peds PA exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Neurodevelopment symptoms

A
vision problems
hearing loss
changes in weight
persistent N/V
headaches
fainting, blackout, memory change
hyperactivity
weakness in one part of body
clumsiness- (posterior fossa?)
changes in bowel or bladder habbits
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

5 Important components to neuro History

A

1) health history
2) behavioral assessment
3) psychosocial assessment
4) school performance
5) development history
* must adjust neuro exam to developmental age of child*

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

types of neuro exams

A

neuro eval
neuropsychological eval (brain and nervous system effect way you behave- IEP is example)
and Neurodevelopment Eval* the best one

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

history problems, cont

A
attention problems
memory 
behavior 
language/communication problems
vision 
neck pain-occipital head pain-bad
weakness/jerks
gait, sensory changes
diplopia, mother's projection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

If there is a problem with thinking or remembering, where could the problem be?

A

the hemispheres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

if there’s a problem with coordination, the problem is:

A

in cerebellum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Balance problems? + N/V

A

Infratantorium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

problem with arms/legs with bladder/bowel control, the problem might:

A

be in spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

if problem with speech, the problem might be in the

A

left hemisphere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

if the child presents with multiple problems that do not localize to 1 area, and things don’t fit together, consider:

A

psychosocial realms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

significant fall

A

3x the child’s height

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

9 parts of neuro exam

A

1) overall inspection
2) general cerebral function
3) Cranial Nerves
4) reflexes
5) motor strength
6) sensory
7) proprioceptive and cerebral fx
8) Soft sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Overall inspection: what do i Look for?

A

neurocutaneous lesions? muscle atrophy, weakness in gait, abnormal positioning, hand dominance before 18months, skin
temors? tremors of tongue or hands when not crying
hypermobility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

ash leaf:

A

tuberosclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

cafe au lait;

A

> 5 of them assoc with neurofibromatosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

flammeus nevus

A

on side of face, that side associated with glaucoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

large calves indicate possible:

A

muscular dystrophy (is there pelvic girdle weakness?)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Marie Charcot Tooth Syndrome

A
Thin, stork like legs
high arches
sensory loss
decreased reflexes
neuropathy will present with distal weakness before wasting
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

myopathies vs neuropathies

A

myop; present as central weakness ex) proximal girdle eakness

Neuropathy presents with distal weakness ex) stork like legs, wasting of marie charcot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Diastematomyelia

A

split cord malformation; longitudinal split in spinal cord
multiple leasions + glutteal fold–>abnormality
-may be minimally affected or entirely asymptomatic; present as leg weakness, low back pain, scoliosis, incontinence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Cerebral Function, part II

JOMAC

A
*consider dev. milestones
Judgement, problem solving
Orientation to time/space
Memory
Affective disturbances
Calculation disturbances
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

pre school child- cerebral function, assess:

A

comon objects? know family members, where you buy food, name something in refrigerator, knows if they have pets, can count 3 objects, draw a picture, 3 wishes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

2 year old developmental tasks

A
  • Gains 5-6 pounds and 5 inches HC 2cm
  • Kicks ball forward
  • Removes article of clothing (not Hat)
  • Combines two words
  • Mild lordosis with protuberant abdomen
  • 8 more teeth to total 14-16
  • Tower of 7 cubes
  • Imitate circular strokes
  • May draw a horizontal line
  • Empties trash cans and drawers
  • Parallel play
  • Speech should be understood
  • Rotary chewing refined
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

3-5 year dev tasks

A
• 3-5 YEARS PRESCHOOL—Initiative-vs.-Guilt
• Gain 4-5 pounds and 2.5 - 3.5 inches
• 3 years
– Throws ball overhand
– Names 4 animal pictures
– Pedals tricycle
– Puts on an article of clothing
– Names one animal picture
– Jumps up and down
– Draws a person upon request with sticks
– State age, sex
– Involve other in play
– Can count fingers
– Hand muscle developed
– Wants to do things by themselves
– Learning to share
– Likes to help
– Brushes teeth
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

4 year old tasks

A
• Lordosis and round abdomen starts to
disappears
• Plays games with other children
• Says what to do when tired, cold, hungry,
• Says first and last name when asked
• Copies circle
• Balances on each foot for 2 seconds
• Can copy a + with demonstration
• Finger muscles for tasks
• Balance on 1 foot for 5 seconds
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

5 year old task

A
• Dresses without supervision
• Copies a cross
• Draws a Person
• Puts object on, under, in front of and
behind when asked
• Hops on one foot 2 or more times
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

SCHOOL AGE—Industry-vs.-

Inferiority

A
• 6-12 years
• Mastering skills that will be needed
later as an adult
• Winning approval from other adults,
peers
• Building self esteem, positive self
concept
• Taking place in a peer group
• Adopting moral standards
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

first grade dev tasks

A
  • Print 1st and last name
  • Write #’s 1-10
  • Draws a person-6 parts
  • Copies a square
  • Heel to toe walk
  • Knows the letters of the alphabet
  • Walk on alternate heels
  • Play sports
  • Friends
  • Peers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

CN 1

A

olfactory-not often done, do it when there’s a direct blow to forehead above nasal bridge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

CN II

A

optic nerve;
VISION testing
after head trauma
shape of pupil
penny test-follow with eyes, cold sensation
optic fundus, visual acuity, pupillary reactions, size in mm. accommodation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Horner’s syndrome

A
decreased sweating on affected side of face
can happen post op cardiac pts
ptosis
sinking eyeball into ace
constricted pupil
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

CN III, IV, VI

A

oculomotor, trochlear, abducens

eyelids for droopng, size, 6 fields of gaze, reaction to light and accom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

CN VI

A

longest subarachnoid course of all, dyunfunction of itcan result from lesions anywhere along its course btw 6th nerve nucleus in dorsal pons and alteral rectus muscle in the orbit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Increased ICP

A

result in downward displacement of brain stem, causing stretching of the 6th CN
can happen from: shunt failure (check EOMs), pseudotumor cerebri (6th nerve palsy)
posterior fossa tumors
neurosurgical trauma, venous sinus thrombosis, meningitis, lyme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

6th nerve palsy, differential

A

thyroid eye disease
myasthenia gravis
duane’s synrdome

send to neuropthalmologist for:
spasm near reflex
delayed break in fusion, old fracture in orbit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Papilledema: Grades

A

Grade 1: c shaped halo of edema surrounding optic disk
Grade 2- halo of edema now surrounds optic disc, margin not well defined
Grade IV- SEVERE- more severe swelling + circumferential halo, edema covers major vessels as they leave disc (grade III) and vessels on disk (grade IV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

nystagmus-if recent onset, think

A

posterior fossa tumor?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Horizontal nystagmus

A

seen with labyrinthine, cerebellar or brainstem pathology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

vertical nystagmus seen in

A

cerebellar or brainstem pathology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Medication toxicity can cause

A

horiz or vert nystagmus* ex) Dilantin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

CN V

A
trigeminal
facial muscle atrophy/tremors
palpate jaw muscles- monster face
test for touch and temp sensation
3 parts of CN V- test in all 3
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

CN VII

A

Facial Nerve
look for symmetry when face is clenched for CN V test, (monster), then do smile/frown, close eyes, puff cheeks
note- lyme presents with CN II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

facial nerve palsy: central

A

forehead is unaffected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

facial nerve palsy, peripheral

A

forehead has problem- eyes roll up when try to close

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

CN VIII

A

Acoustic
tuning fork-hard in young kids
use of audioscope or audiometer for routine screening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Weber test

A

for CN VIII
middle forhead place tuning fork
does patient hear it equaly or on one side louder? normal is same on both sides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

unilateral conductive hearing loss, patient hears best in which ear?

A

the abnormal ear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Rinne Test

A

comparing Bone conduction-place fork on mastoid process behind ear–

Air conduction- assess by holding fork in air near front of ear
AC>BC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

CN IX

A

Glossopharyngeal
swallow
gag reflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

CN X

A

Vagus
vocal quality
rise of soft palate a child says A AH
swallowing problems?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

CN IX and X

A

do HA HA- rise of soft palate intact vagus , plus ulnar deviation is both

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

CN XI

A

accessory
head rotation gainst resistence to test STCLM
shrug shoulders to test trapezius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

CN XII

A

hypoglossal
inspect tongue in mouth- symmetry, tremors, atrophy? lingual sounds like l, t, d, n
unilateral lesion: protruded tongue deviates toward affected weaker side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Reflexes- grading

A
0 abscent
1+ hypoactive
2+ normal
3+ hyperactive without clonus
4+ hyperactive with clonus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Reflexes;

A
biceps
triceps
patellar
achilles tendon (ankle)
abdominal
babinski
snouting
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

babinksi

A

after walking, normal is downward curl

before walking - curl upwar

an abnormal or positive sign is upward curling in a walking child

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Chaddock

A

stroke with blunt point around side of foot from external malleous to small toe
positive test: if there is dorsiflexion of big toe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

oppenheimer

A

firmly press down on shine and run thumb and knuckles upward along medial tibia]
positive test: if there is dorsiflexion of big toe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

muscular dystrophy bloodowork

A

TSH
CK
Liver enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

a child should tandem walk by

A

earliest; 4

latest- 6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

fine motor

A

tap hands on thigh, alternate, touch each finger to thumb, look for intentional tremors, gait abnormalities,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

grading motor strength

A
0/5 No muscle movement
1/5 Visible muscle movement, but no
 movement at the joint
2/5 Movement at the joint, but not
 against gravity
3/5 Movement against gravity, but not
 against added resistance
4/5 Movement against resistance, but
 less than normal
5/5 Normal strength
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

duchenne muscular dystrophy

boys

A

difficulty w climbing stairs, running, jumping frmo standing position, falls, slow motor progression,
18 months start waling, clumsy age 2-3, difficulty keeping up w peers 3-5yo
calf muscle hypertrophy
weakness- proximal before distal* legs before arms weaken, extensors weaken before flexors

to walking, calf pseudohypertrophy, lumbar lordosis, multifocal contractures, trendelenburg gait, fatigue,
WALK LIKE DUCK

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

gower’s maneuver

A

to stand from sitting, they will walk their hands up their legs slowly and climb up them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

pronator drift

A

pt stand for 20-30sec arms straight forward, palms up, eyes closed
pt will not be able to maintain extension and supination if they have upper motor neuron problem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

graphesthesia

A

adolescent- with blunt end of pen draw large number in their palm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

stereognosis

A

familiar object in child’s hand and have them tell you what it is

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Dystonic posturing

A

• Dystonic posturing is stiffening of the
extremities during a stressed gait or
rhythmic movements.
– The child hops in place or heel toe walk
-hand goes up on the weak side
penny on nose test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

proximal inhibitation

A

The inability to inhibit proximal musculature while
using distal muscles is a neurologic marker.
• *Screen for proximal inhibition by having the
child rapidly alternate opening and closing of
fists with arms extended, or by rapidly rotating
the wrist while holding the arm up and hand
above the head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

simple skull fracture

A

linear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

depressed skull fracture

A
  • Hematoma at site

* Piece of bone depressed into brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

compound skull fracture

A
  • Laceration and depressed skull fracture
  • Dura usually pierced
  • Skull fragment may be displaced into the brain tissue.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Basilar fracture

A
• break in the posteroinferior portion of the skull occurs.
• produces dural tears that result in leakage of cerebrospinal fluid
(CSF).
– meningitis 
early S&S
-blood behind TM
nerve palsies, deafness or ringing
dizziness, NV
battle sign
raccoon sign
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

epidural hematoma

A

older kids more often
• Blood is between the dural surface and the skull and is
usually the result of a tearing of the meningeal artery.
• more common in older children than in toddlers and
infants, because before age two, the middle meningeal
artery is not yet embedded in the bony surface of the
skull.
• May not have loss of consciousness.
• Signs and symptoms
– Headache
– Decreased level of consciousness
– Fever
– Dilation of the pupil on the affected side of the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

battle’s sign

A

bruising over temporal area- seen in basilar fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

raccoon sign

A

bruising around eyes, basilar fracture, also seen in neuroblastomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Meningitis History

A

progression, exposure, history of otitis media? uderlying health, immunodef, seizures?
focal seizure is common iniital pres
generalized- febrile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

presentation of meningitis in newborns

A
– Fever
– Nonspecific symptoms (eg, poor feeding,
vomiting, diarrhea, rash)
– Bulging fontanel
– Irritable, restless, or lethargic.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

presentation of meningitis in older kids

A
– Sudden fever
– Headache,
– Nausea, vomiting,
– Confusion, stiff neck, photophobia
• Meningitis can cause seizures, and decreased
level of awareness.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

• Brudzinski sign for meningitis

A

– Flexion of neck causes flexion of hips and knees
– Test for nuchal rigidity with head off table in your
hands.
– Gently flex the head at the neck until the chin touches
the chest
– Positive
• When both the knees and hips are flexed in
response to passive flexion of the neck towards
the chest.
• Reflex is due to exudate around the roots in the
lumbar region, inflammation of lumbar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Kernig’s sign

A
–Associated with meningeal irritation
and hamstring spasm
–Flex hip and knee, then straighten
knee.
–Excessive pain and resistance
bilaterally suggests meningeal
irritation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

PATIENTS IWTH VP SHUNT and Meningitis–

A

present differently
inc risk of getting meningitis
sometimes dont get as high a fever
-they get low grade ventriculitis, headaches, n, malaise, low fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

viral meningitis

A

less toxic and acute in presentation
enterovirus
more common in summer
vomiting, headache, stiff neck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Signs & Symptoms of DMD

A

• Abnormal muscle function
– Delayed walking
– Frequent falls
– Difficulty with running and climbing stairs
– Calf pseudohypertrophy
• Progressive proximal musculature weakness
– Waddling gait 2° girdle muscle weakness
– Gower’s sign
• Increase in serum creatine kinase (CK) and
transaminases (aspartate aminotransferase and
alanine aminotransferase)
• Delays in attainment of developmental milestones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

intoeing

A

normal for infant and toddler years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

flat feet

A

normal infant and toddler years; 10% of population
only a problem if it is r/t tarsal coalition which is painful; check by raising toes/tip toes- if you see arch, there’s no torsal coaliation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

metatarsus adductus

A

top half of foot in-toes
the top half of the upper 1/2 forehoot has deformity
skin crease may be located on medial aspect of longitudinal arch
benign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

internal tibial torsion

A

causes in-toes
assoc w sitting on feet
associated with intrauterine positioning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

femoral anteversion

A

can cause mild intoe-ing
peaks in late preschool, spontaneous correction by age 8
severe cases-need referral
W- sitting position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

toddler years muscular dev

A

largest amount of growth during these years

  • wide based gait “toddling”
  • Genu Varum (bow leg) seen until child walks for one year
  • *if geu varum has inc by age 3 and not resolved, could be blount disease** needs referall (medial growth of tibial bone)
  • genu Valgum (knock knees) abnormal if child has been walking
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

genu valgum

A

knock knees; normal 3-5 years old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Developmental dislocation of hip

A

idiopathic- positive family history, breech presentation, dislocated and irreducible, subluxated to dislocated and reducible

teratogenic- more severe with germ plasma defect
sig. assoc w/ club foot, congenital torticollis, metatarsus adductus and scoliosis

Females > males *breech
unilateral more common

highest risk: female, first born, breech delivery- need u/s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Ortolani maneuver

A

hip held while thigh is tested and abducted and pulled anterior; anterior push up one side at a time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Barlow maneuver

A

adducting hip while pushing thigh posteriorly
if hip goes out of socket: “dislocatable” or positive
confirm dislocation by performing ortolani to reduce and relocate hip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Galeazzi sign

A

lower extremities- when hips and knees are 90 degrees in flexion; identifies unilateral hip dislocation– are the knees different heights? the shorter leg will stay posterior b/c its not in socket
good for 5-6 month olds b/c ortolani/barlow won’t work on them)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Evaluating DDH

A

ultrasound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

trandelenberg gait

A

pelvis tils toward normal hip when weight is on affected side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

when to worry for genu varum/ valgum

A
alignment in comparison to age is normal
sharp curve
lateral thrust (severe bow leg)
asymmetry
intercondylar distance of > 15cm or 6 in
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Ricket’s

A
"fanning" at wrist
test Vit d, phosphorous, calcium and parathyroid hormone
frontal bossing
protuberance on costochondral borders-rosary
-widened ends of bone (fanning)
-low phosphorous
shrt stature
abnormal Vit D

note- african americans absorb less nutrients from the sun, need vit d supplements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

internal tibial torsion

A

nonpathologic variation of normal
patella faces anterior position
delayed correction wil usually self correct over time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

femoral anteversion

A
normal variant
max age 3
delayed correction can lead to persistent intoing
b/l w no other disease process
correcst w time
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

wind sign

A

measurement of thigh foot angle w patient in prone position and knees flexed;
normal external radiation: ten degrees
> 10- abnormal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

clubfoot

A

positional- in utero
true- structurally abnormal, bones of leg or foot or muscles of calf often underdev.
will need serial casting, then bracing; need close follow up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

congenital clubfoot/talipes equinovarus

A

male female
1/1000 births
multifactorial etiology; heel turned in, adducted and supinated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

ponsetti method

A

serial casting for clubfoot

106
Q

legg-calve-perthes disease

A

disorder of femoral head
(vascular necrosis decreases bloodflow to femoral head)
idiopathic ischemic necrosis, collapse and subseq repair, self limiting
residual deformity
healing w new bone growth in femoral head
won’t fit well into socket

107
Q

assessment of legg-calve-perthes

A

pain localized to hip, thih or knee
dec ROM, limited internal rotation/abduction
limp- antalgic/ trandelenbrug gait
(antalgic gait- cant stand on leg)

108
Q

Blount’s disease

A

isolated growth disturbance of medial tibia epiphysis
more common in AA
compression injury to medial growth plate
lteral thrust on effected side- extreme bow leg
no evidence of ligamentous laxity

109
Q

Osgood Schlatter

A

swelling/ pain of anterior tibial tuberosity
avulsion injury tibial spine
ages 10-15
tanner III for girls
Tanner IV for boys
growth spurt of bone- but muscle has not caught up, muscle grinds against leg, bump

110
Q

slipped capital femoral epiphysis, SCFE

A

ortho EMERGENCY
males 2:1 females
b/l 25-50%
onset of puberty often, males 10-16, males 10-14
underlying connective or endocrine disorder ex) marfan or hypothyroid
-femoral head “falls off” femur”
-displacement of femoral epiphysis on femoral neck
unknown cause, multifactorial, endocrine, trauma

111
Q

symptoms of SCFE & assessment

A
painful lip
obligate external rotation
loss of internal rotation
trandelenburg gait
pain may be in knee
flexion contracture possible
referred pain
classic sign: pt will rotate their leg outwards*

Assess- onset of symptoms, sudden or insidious
pain- deep in groin, thigh, and or knee, inc w activity
gait- ext rotation, antalgic limp
loss of in rotation

112
Q

classifications of SCFE

A

Acute, chronic and degree of slip

113
Q

acute SCFE

A
114
Q

chronic SCFE

A

> 3 wks

115
Q

acute on chronic SCFE

A

> 1 month, sudden inc pain

116
Q

mild slip SCFE

A

less than 1/3 diameter of femoral neck

117
Q

moderate slip

A

less than 1/2 diameter of fem neck

118
Q

severe slip

A

greater than 1/2 diameter of femoral neck

119
Q

faber test

A
specific for problems of sacroiliac joint
FABER=hip 
flexion
ab-duction
external 
rotation
120
Q

Osteogenic sarcoma

A

pain on pressing lower femur is a BAD sign
most common malignant primary bone tumor in children
“sunburst” appearance on xray
primary symptoms intermittent pain history and swelling over several weeks

121
Q

Ewing sarcomas

A

peripheral primitive neuroectodermal tumor
2.5% of cases of childhood cancer
most in adolescence and young adulthood
uncommon in people of african and asian descent
2nd most common
moth eaten destructive lesion in shaft of long bone “onion skin periostitis”
slight male predilection (1.5: 1)
95% of cases occur btw 4-25 years)
Rare in AA
primary symptom; pain with possible fever, tenderness

122
Q

scoliosis

A
presence of body asymmetries
shoulder height- not level
scapular prominences
chest prominences
unequal line at C7

the younger the child develops the cure, the mroe likely it is to progress

123
Q

Adam’s forward bend test

A

pt bends forward at waist standing w feet together and knees straight
patients arms are dependent, hands held w palms opposed
should be c shaped
shoes off

124
Q

scoliosis measurements

A
> 10 degrees is abnormal
most 
most common pattern is right thoracic and left lumbar
use of scoliometer
> 7 degrees, refer
125
Q

Painful scoliosis

A

underlying pathology like spondylolysis, intraspinal tumor, herniated disc, tethered cord etc often cause the pain

new onset painful scoliosis- benign osseus lesions
benign bone tumors cause pain
more male predominance while idiopathic is more female

126
Q

kyphosis

A

excessive curvature in thoracic spine

127
Q

hyperlordosis

A

increased swayback

128
Q

Sheuermann’s

A

inc kyphosis > 45 degrees, with 3 adjacent vertebrae at apex
more rigid
tight hamstrings or contracted pectoral muslces
.5-.8%
autosomal dominant
refer to ortho

129
Q

spondololysis

A

stress fracture of vertebrae
most common in 5th vertebra in lower back, in fourth lumbar vertebra (L5)
low back pian usually self limited & seldom lassts
persistent pain > 2-3 wks needs referral
do one leg hyperextension test for dx

often from repetitive use- recurring truama, flexion, hyperextension or twisting

130
Q

spondylolisthesis

A

prereq is spondylolysis
- when 1 vertebra slips forward on adjacent vertebrae
gradual deformity of loewr sine, narrowing of vert. canal, assoc w pain

you see this in athletic kids,
lumbrosacral area most often
can involve gatigue gracture at pars interarticularis (this si spondylolysis)

symptom- discomfort localized one sided to paraspinous region above belt

131
Q

tarsal coalition

A

flat feet, no arch on tip toes

132
Q

sever’s disease

A

if you press at the heel, its painful

friction- when the heel is lower than the top of the foot; the achilles rubs against bone opothocitis

133
Q

Sports physical history

A

history- fam history, personal, ROS, keep RECORD OF THIS, collection of data prior to exam
chest pain? syncope? chest pain during exercise ?
menstrual history, heat related illness? any red flags–>cardio consult

134
Q

PE for sports exam

A
BP, ht, wt
eyes- anisocoria?
heart- listen sit, lay, squat
chest
abdomen- hepatosplenomegaly?
genitalia-active lesions- ex) herpes simplex or glatiroium- wrestling etc
135
Q

2 min musculoskeletal exam

A

1) inspect child- symmetry
2) forward flexion, ext, rotation and lateral flexion of neck- ROM of cervical spine
3) Resist shoulder shrug (strength of trapezius, test CN XI)

136
Q

Differences in Pediatric

Anatomy l

A

More radiolucent cartilage
l Growth plates prone to separate before joint
ligament tear
l Bones more porous & less dense prone to bow
when bent
l Thicker periosteum – reduces fracture
displacement, produces more callus, rapid
healing
l Bone formation potential greater, non unions
are rare, potential for overgrowth in shafts of
long bones
l Ability to remodel bones

137
Q

intramembranous dev

A

develops in connective tissue

138
Q

Intracartilaginous dev

A

catilaginous mass precedes
ossification
– primary center of ossification- diaphysis
– secondary center of ossification- epiphysis

139
Q

Epiphyseal plate

A

– cartilaginous tissue separates diaphysis & epiphysis
– at skeletal maturity epiphyseal plate closes
-consider tanner stage and sex of child. for instance if a 16 yo has fracture, if he is a male: his growth plate is tli up til 21, more likely to be a break
if 16 yo female w same injury and her menses began 3 yo, then she is more likely to have a sprain cause her growth plates are closed

140
Q

Neurovascular exam

A

pain, parasthesias, puleslessness, purple or pale color, paralysis, painful passive motion

141
Q

radial nerve test

A

thumbs up sign

142
Q

median nerve

A

a ok sign

143
Q

ulnar nerve

A

spread or cross fingers

144
Q

Plastic Fracture

A

bowed beyond natural recall

145
Q

buckle/ torus fracture

A

compression at metaphysis and diaphysis junction “bump in road”

146
Q

greenstick fracture

A

disrupts but not completely broken cortext- “incomplete” fracture

147
Q

Avulsion

A

tearing away part of the bone by ligament or tendon

common site- hip

148
Q

complete fracture

A

complete through born- from force

149
Q

physeal fractures

A

higher the salter harris number, the great risk of growth plate arrest and joint incongruity

150
Q

Physeal fractures- TYPES

A

Type I- separation of physis only; not typically seen on xray- splint, forms callus in 7-10 days, needs f/u appt

type II- separation fo physis with triangle fragment of metaphysis

type III- separation of physis and passes through metaphysis

Type IV- fracture passes through metaphysis, physis, epiphysis and into joint

type V- compression injury of physis, diagnosed in retrospect

151
Q

SALTER

A
S-slice through (type I)
A-Angled up (II)
L (going down (III)
Totally through (IV)
ERased growth plate- (V)
152
Q

Ankle injury

A

lateral collateral compex most often involved (85%)
strain is injury to muscle tendon unit attached muscle to bone
sprain is injury to ligament-holds joint together

if there is pain on the outer part of the foot, ovr the ligament, it is usually a strain
if there is pain over the malleolus, may be fracture

153
Q

Ottawa Ankle Rules

A

An xray is needed if: pt has pain in malleolar zone and either bone tenderness over areas of potential fracture OR cannot bear weight for 4 steps immed. post injury in ED or Office

154
Q

differences in pediatric and adult airway

A

larger tongue
tonsils and adenoids are larger
narrower airway, shorter, mores oft tissue, soft laryngeal cartilage
epiglottis- floppy, omega shaped, inc secretions

155
Q

differences in pulmonary

A

fewer and smaller alveoli
less supportive pulmonary elastic and collagen tissue
cartilaginous sternum ribs
porly dev intercostal and accessory muscles–>resp aarrest
thin chest wall

156
Q

Tachypnea

A

> 60 breaths per min

157
Q

tachypnea 2-12 months

A

> 50 breaths per min

158
Q

tachypnea 1-5 years

A

> 40 breaths per min

159
Q

tachypnea 5 years +

A

> 20 breaths per min

160
Q

Inspection: what does a precordial bulge indicate?

A

cardiac defect, pneumothorax, or chronic localized chest disease, or CF

161
Q

suprasternal retractions indicate

A

high obstruction, severe

162
Q

infrasternal retractions indicate

A

low obstruction

163
Q

harrison’s groove

A

flaring of the ribs (bottom of pectoral muscle) seen often in hispanic kids

164
Q

Percussion, where you should hear flatness

A

over thigh

165
Q

where you should hear dullness

A

over liver

166
Q

where you should hear resonance

A

over lung

167
Q

where you should hear hyperresonance

A

none is normally present

168
Q

where you should hear tympany

A

gastric air bubble or puffed out cheek

169
Q

increased areas of vibration with tactile fremitus indic

decreased virbration with:

A

lung consolidation

dec with or absent when bronchus is obstructed

170
Q

normal vesicular lung sound

A

short expiration, long inspiration

171
Q

tracheal breath sounds

A

heard at suprasternal notch or lateral neck
hollow
non musical
heard clearly in insp and exp cycle
rep intrapulmonary sounds but can be disturbed if upper airway patency is altered
*reps upper airway patency
insp and exp are equal

172
Q

bronchial breath sounds

A

soft
nonmusical
heard on both phases of resp cycle, mimicing tracheal sounds
indicates patent airway surrounded by consolidated lung tissue) pneumonia, fibrosis
I = E

173
Q

stridor

A

high pitched, musical
best heard upper airway or at distance without stethoscope
indicates: upper airway obstruction
assoc with extrathoracic lesions- laryngomalacia, vocal cord lesions
and assoc w intrathoracic lesions (tracheomalacia bronchomalaia, extrnsic compression on expiration
will hear w foreign bodies

174
Q

vocal cord dysfunction & stridor

A

aka paradoxical vocal cord motion
resp condition characterized by:
inappropriate adduction of vocal cord
resultant airflow limitation at level of larynx, accomp by stridorous breathing
if a kid w “asthma” does not improve on asthma meds- consider this

175
Q

wheeze

A

musical, high pitched
can be heard on insp and exp
localized wheeze: suggests airway narrowing or blockage (foreign body) if it is
Generalized wheeze: assoc. w airway narrowing and limit of airflow ex) COPD, asthma

176
Q

monophonic wheeze

A

large airway obstruction
inhaled foreign body, endobronchial tuberculosis, bronchial adenoma, enlarged mediastinal nodes, malignant tumors
*pts with monophonic, localized wheezing- consider mass lesion

177
Q

polyphonic/heterophonous wheezing

A

small airway obstruction
exp. wheezing is predominant pres.
asthma, bronchiolitis

178
Q

Transient Earlier Wheezing-TEW

A

usually disappear in early toddlerhood, patients will freq rattle as a wheeze, rattles get misdiagnosed in young children as a wheeze

179
Q

rhonchus

A

musical and similar to snoring
lower in pitch then wheeze
may be heard on inspiration, expiration or both
assoc w fluid films and abnormal airway collapsibility
often clears with coughing–suggesting large airway involvement
soudns like snoring
clears with coughing vs. crackles which won’t
lower pitched than qheeze

180
Q

fine crackles

A

nonmusical
short, explosive
heard on mid-late inspiration and occasionally on expiration
unaffected by cough, gravity dependent
you won’t necessarily always hear these in kids!

181
Q

coarse crackles

A
nonmusical, short and explosive
heard on early insp and throughout exp
transmitted to mouth
affected by cough
indicates intermittent airway opening
182
Q

croup

A

history is consist w URI w/ or w/o low grade fever
barking cough- often starts late in evening after child has been asleep
child can be progressively worse by 2nd/3rd night
mild: just expiratory stridor
severe: exp and insp stridor
steeple sign on lateral neck film

183
Q

steeple sign is associated with

A

croup, lateral neck film

184
Q

asthma history

A

time of onset, triggers
severity of symptoms, esp compared with current exacerbations
treatments given before ED? response?
all current meds, time of doses, hospitalizations, PICU?

185
Q

Asthma Vitals

A

unusual fever
pulsus paradoxus- drop in systolic BP of 10 mmhg or more with inspiration- hard to measure and not as useful as we thought
increase in RR initially bu with fatigue in severe asthma it can slow

186
Q

Asthma PE- Lungs

A

wheezing can be diffuse; first on exp then both insp and exp
localized initially
shifting in location as degree of obstruction varies
can be oconfused as pneumonia with persistent cough and localized rales
accessory muscle use indicates obstruction
presence of air leak may occur and present as subcut emphysema, deviated trach

187
Q

C-ACT

A

childhood asthma control test- how well controlled is the asthma?

188
Q

PASS

A

pediatric asthma severity score ** she likes this one better; mild/mod/severe/ resp arrest
wheeze, work of breathing, prolonged expiration, breah sounds aeration, breathlessness

189
Q

PRAM

A

pediatric resp assessment measure

190
Q

asthma diagnostics

A

Chest xray- not routine use, maybe for first time wheezer
spirometry- degree of resp compromise, peak exp flow rate over 6 but not likely practicle under 8 year old
30-50% of predicted or patient’s personal best–severe obstruction
Oximetry
Blood Gases in severe exacerbation- PCO2 is dec initially then may elevate as sign of muscle fatigue, hypoxia or hypercapnia–>acidosis

191
Q

Pertussis

A

can happen even w immunization- 15% failure rate
cough up to 6months after acute illness
often from adult
infants might not have whoop but have paraoxysmal coughs and turn red or blue

192
Q

3 phases of Pertussis

A

1) Catarrhal- 2 weeks, URI S/S w conjunctival injection, fever, mild cough
2) Paroxysmal- frequency and sev of cough inc 2-4 weeks
may have whoop, posttusive emesis, apnea
3) convalescent- les freq cough, dec severity 1-2 weeks

193
Q

pertussis cough variations by age

A

older children, adolescents, adutls- milder symptoms, bronchitis like

infants- do not have enough diaphragmatic pressur to whoop–paroxysmal cough, post-tussive vomiting, cyanosis, apnea

194
Q

1 reason for chronic abdominal pain in children

A

constipation

195
Q

1 finger test

A

can child point to localize pain

196
Q

LUQ organs

A

pancreas, spleen

197
Q

RUQ

A

liver, gallbladder

198
Q

LLQ

A

colon, intestine, L ovary

199
Q

RLQ

A

intestine, appendix, R ovary

200
Q

scratch test**

A

non touching maneuver

help to identify hepatosplenomagaly and avoid rupture

201
Q

CVA tenderness

A

pt seated upright, place palm of left hand over CVA strike with left hand
tenderness indicates: pyelnephritis (inflamm of kidney substance and pelvis, or perinephric abscess

202
Q

Red flags for abd assessment PE

A

guarding- peritonitis, appendticitis, cholecystitis
point tenderness- appendicitis, cholecystitis at McGurney’s point
Asymmetry- appendiceal abscess, tumor
No bowel sounds- peritonitis, infarcted bowels
Palpable mass- tumor, cyst, intussusception
Nutritional status- weight, height, edema, anemia
extra intestinal features- arthritis, skin, ciliary injection of uveitis is seen with crohn’s and JRA
Abd distention- peritonitis, obstruction
visible bowel loops- intussuseption, obstruction
high pitched bowel sounds- obstruction

203
Q

Acute abdominal pain

A

slow or rapid onset of pain in abd; usually steadily builds; can relate to an event, can hve v/d, fever, anorexia, guarding is usually present

204
Q

Subacute abdominal pain

A

won’t localize with 1 finger test
onset is more difficult to pinpoint
not acutely ill
allows exam of abd, may be vague in location and tenderness, hard to localize

205
Q

chronic abdominal pain

A

onset assoc w an event that child doesnt want- test, gym, recess, not localized, does not waken child, can resolve spontaneously, pain is out of proprtion to PE, labs normal
“hyperresponsive” gut

206
Q

Causes of epigastric pain

A
peptic ulcer disease (h pylori) 
GERD
gallbladder
trauma
idiopathic
207
Q

causes of periumbilical pain

A

functional abd pain, abd migraine, strept pharyngitis, gastroenteritis, appendicitis, carb or lactose deficiency

208
Q

CAUSES OF RLQ PAIN

A

OVARIAN TORSION, APPENDICITIS, PID, ECTOPIC PREG, MITTELSHMERZ (MID MENSTRUAL CYCLE), RIGHT LOWER LOBE PNEUMONIA, inguinal hernia, iliopsoas abscess

209
Q

LLQ pain cuase

A

constip, right ovarian or testicular pain

210
Q

causes of suprapubic pain

A

UTI, const, urinary ret, hydrometrocolpos`

211
Q

non abdominal causes of abdominal pain

A

pneumonia, strept pharyngitis ( not known why), reproductive tract disease (STD, ovarian cyst, ectopic preg), DKA- serum amylase elevated btu pt doesnt have pancreatitis, sickle cell disease- vasoocclusive crisis, gallstone formation, gallstones,
*any hemolytic anemia can cause gallstones**

212
Q

factors suggesting acute abdomen

A
bilious vomiting (green)
abd tenderness
distension
abd mass
obstipation (severe const)
feeding intolerance
edema of abd wall
crying,
irritability, fever, hypotheremia, omphaltiis, severe pain
213
Q

appendicitis clinical hx

A
pain precedes vomiting**
n.v
tenderness at McBurney's Point
fever
Leukocytosis
214
Q

clinical pres of appendicitis - Toddler age

A

toddler: fever, vomiting, pain intermittent and refrred to right hip with limp; localized or gen abd pain

215
Q

clinical pres of appendicitis- school aged child

A

abd pain and vom, pain with walking or movement is very specific, fever, abd wall tenderness tends to focal to RLQ, involuntary guarding present, sensitive

216
Q

Appendicitis Signs and Symptoms: MANTREL

A
Migration of pain
Anorexia
Nausea and Vomiting
Tenderness on RLQ
Rebound tenderness
Elevated temp
Leukocytosis
217
Q

Physical Assessment Tools for APpendicitis** 7 things

A
Mid abd pain to RLQ
Anorexia
Positive Psoas Sign
Obturator sign
heel strike
Rovsing Sign
Markle Jar Heel test
218
Q

Psoas sign

A

lie child supine, place righ hand above r knee, direct child to raise leg against pressure, have child drop right leg over exam table–Positive if painful

219
Q

Obturator Sign

A

pain occurs when theres internala nd external rotation of the flexed thigh

1) flex child’s R thigh at hip w knee bent
2) rotate leg internally at hip

220
Q

Rovsing’s

A

pain in RLQ with left sided pressure

221
Q

markle jar heel test

A

up on toes, down hard on heels “bunny rabbit” test, have pt jump up and down

222
Q

Rebound tenderness

A

only do if there is no other positive other test, not on young child- firmly and slowly push in, hold, quickly withdraw- the pain is when you withdraw and remove hand

223
Q

Murphy’s sign

A

temporary inspiratory arrest with palpation of Right subcostal margin- pain at gallbladder
indicates cholecystitis

224
Q

Mneumonic for causes of Pancreatitis

A
I GET SMASHED
Idiopathic
Gallstones
Ethanol
Trauma
Spider/scorpion
Mumps/malig
Autoimmune
Steroids
Hyperlip/hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroid
E-ERCP
D-drugs, (hiv meds, furoesmide, methanol, salicylates etc0
225
Q

Pancreatitis

A

most common from trauma
upper abd pain, periumbilical pain and radiation to back
lipase and amylase elevation
ileus, distension, ascites, hypercalcemia

226
Q

Nonalcoholic Steatophepatitis (NASH) and nonaloholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD)

A

strong assoc w obesity, elev of liver enzymes
AST & ALT
NASH- fat in liver, along w inflammation and damage, leads to cirrhosis

NAFLD- fat in liver without inflamation

227
Q

Bile colored vomit suggests

A

obstruction, midgut volvus (when get twists and cuts of BF)= URGENT

228
Q

coffee ground colored vomitus

A

esophagitis, gastritis, gastric ulcer

229
Q

bright red, small amount vomitus

A

esophagitis, gastritis

230
Q

bright red blood, large amount

A
esophogeal tear (Mallory Weis tear)
gastric ulcer, duodenal ulcer, esophageal varices (less likely in kids)
231
Q

food or gastric content vomitus

A

infectious gastroenteritis, obstruction

232
Q

assessing hydration status

A

HR**
level of activity
esp important w d, v or dec intake
voiding pattern

233
Q

mallory weis tear

A

tear in mucosal layer at junction of esophagus and stomach

234
Q

Eosinophillic esophagitis- EE

A

chronic, immune mediated esophageal disease characterized by symptoms r/t esophageal dysf and histologically by eosinophil predom inflam.

isolated to esophagus, and other causes of esophageal eosinophilia should be excluded, spec. PPI- responsive esophageal eosinopiia

235
Q

S and S of EE

A

recurrent v, abd pain, dysphagia, pain w swallowing, vomiting happens not always with eating, intense discomfort as swallowed food moves down, episodes last for a few sec, or longer, sometimes food gets stuck in esoph- weight loss if its severe and chronic
heartburn, cough, chest pain –>endoscopy

236
Q

Rome III criteria for functional abdominal pain

A

must include these 3 for at least once a week for at least 2 months prior to dx

1) continuous or episodic abd pain
2) insufficient criteria for other functional GI disorders
3) No evidence of inflammatory, anatomic, metabolic, neoplastic process that can explain it
* dx of exclusion*

237
Q

ROME III DX Criteria for IBS

A

1) must include both if the following criteria, at least 1/week for 2months prior to dx. Abd discomfort or pain assoc w 2 or more of the following at leats 25% of time
1) improvement with defecation
2) onset assoc w change in freq of stool
3) onset assoc w change in form of the stool
no evidence of any inflammatory process

238
Q

Dx criteria for Functional Dyspepsia

A

1) persistent or recurrent pain or discomfort centered in upper abd
2) not relieved by defecation or assoc w onset of change in stool freq or form
3) no evidence of inflamm, anatomic, metabolic or neoplastic process to explain symtpoms

239
Q

Pyloric Stenosis

A

not a mechanical osbtruction
familial
5:1 male
non bilious, projectile vomiting
hungry after
hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis (they vomit out the chlorids–>alkalotic;
often presents at 3-6 weeks of lfie w nonbilious projectile vomiting

240
Q

infant dyschezia

A

normal!
infant grunts and groans while stooling, soft stool,
this is a failure to coordinate relaation of pelvic floor and sphincter
its normal

241
Q

Malrotation with Volvulus

A
abnormal fixation of bowel mesentary with twisting around mesenteric artery
painful distended abd
bilious vomiting
blood in stool
abd pain
242
Q

bilious emesis is…

A

mechanical obstruction unless proven otherwise!

243
Q

intussusception

A

invaginating or telescoping one portion of the bowel into itself; produces obsrtuction and vascular compromise
most freq cause of mechanical obstruction in infants and toddlers
cuts off BF–>mechanical obstruction
males- 5-1- months, 2x > females
Jelly stool is classic sign, vomiting, and intermittent abd pain with palpable sausage shaped mass “Dance’s Sign”
palpable mass most often seen in RUQ
ileocolic insus.- telescoping pulls bowel structures upward in abd
fever, diarrhea, bloody stool takes longer to dev

244
Q

Dance’s Sign

A

assoc w intussusception- concavity in RLQ due to abscence of underlying bowel

245
Q

Dx and Tx for intussusception

A

Barium enema is 100% Diagnostic
pneumatic reduction - less sedation, pain, less morbid and 80-90% success
hydrostatic reduction is effective in 60-80%
operative reduction if others fail
recurrence rate 8-12%

246
Q

Hirschprung’s

A

no stool within 48 hours of birth; constip from birth, FTT, marked distention, abnormal rectal anatomy
aganglionic megacolon- won’t stimulate expulsion
pungent odor`

247
Q

Hirschprung’s presentation in newborn

A

more distended without peritoneal signs unless perf, react minimally to exam, lethargic, fever, tachycardia, ominous hypotension
rectal exam- slight pressure on examining finger with no stenosis or obstruction
ampulla empty- on removal, explosive evacuation of stool or gas

248
Q

Hirschprung’s presentation in infant and kids

A

chronically distended, nt abd, large fecal masses on left
rectal exam-ampulla empty
anal tone is normal
explosive stool will also occur post exam

249
Q

constipation and decreased height may indicate

A

hypothyroidism

250
Q

hematemesis

A

vomiting of blood or blood per rectum- coffee grounds, or bright red

251
Q

melena

A

dark or black tarry stools when bleeding is from upper tract

252
Q

hematochezia

A

maroon stools which indic distal GI source of short transit time from briskly bleeding proximal source

253
Q

juvenile polyps- lower GI bleeding

A

prox to transv colon, uncommon in infants
bleeding with sloughing of polyps
painless, rarely massive
gardner’s syndrome: malignant potential
anal fissures- older children we are concerned about Crohn’s

254
Q

Meckel diverticuli

A

found in 2% of pop
most common source of significant GI bleeding in kids*
preschool- bleeding is a result of HCL secreted from gastric mucosa in the diverticulum-forms an ulcer on ileal mucosa

255
Q

diff btw ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s

A

UC: colon only, Crohn’s: anywhere mouth->anus dig track
UC- diffuse, continuous superficial inflam, edema and shallow ulceration in small pseudopolps in rectum desc colon as far as ileocecal junciton
Crohn’s= focal asymmetrical inflamm anywhere along GI, most common in terminal ileum prox to colon and ileocecal jx

256
Q

Ulcerative colitis hx

A

15-30 years old dx
acute bloody diarrhea
cramping, tenesmusm pallow, growth retardation

257
Q

extraintestinal manifestations of UC

A

arthralgia (knees, ankle, wrist), uveitis, oral ulcerations (aphthous ulcers), growth retardation, liver diseased , erythema nodusum , pyoderma granulosum (skin)

258
Q

Crohn’s

A

weight loss 90%, abd pain, typically RLQ, diarrhea, fever, bloody diarrhea, anal skin tag, perianal ulcerations
same extraintestinal manigestation

259
Q

neuroblastoma

A

most common tumor under 1 year
pres signs vary w primary site: 2/3 are adrenal, remainder are in sympathetic paraspinous ganglia; posterior mediastinum, less than 5% in head neck
vasoactive intestinal peptide, watery D, distention, electrolyte imb, opsoclonus-myoclonus- dancing eyes with myoclonic jerks w or wo cerebellar atxia, catecholamine excess: flushing, tachy, headache, HTN (renal origin);

260
Q

Neuroblastoma-PE

A

Head and Neck- visual changes, exopthalmos, horner’s- (ptosis, meiosis, anhydrosis), cerebellar ataxia

thoracic- neuro abnorm, cough, SOB
Raccoon eye
Heterochromia Iridis

child presents sick (unlike wilms where child presents well);
hard, fixed, firm w irreg border

261
Q

wilm’s tumor

A

abd mass firm flank, nt, not usually crossing midline,
DO NOT TOUCH BELLY if you are considering Wilm’s
younger kids (mean: 30months)
well appearing, most common abd malig, asymptomatic, rarely pain, HTN, Microhamturia