Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Parm > PEDS MINIMUM(done) > Flashcards

PEDS MINIMUM(done) Flashcards

1
Q

 1) Imaging modality of choice when evaluating a child for infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis:

A

ultrasonography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

2) Typical age of intussusception in infants:

A

3 months - 3 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

3) What are the two typical anamnestic features of acute appendicitis?

A

First epigastric and periumbilical pain, later the pain is localized in the right lower abdominal quadrant.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

4) Standard imaging modality of polytraumatized patients:

A

acute CT.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

5) Most common cause of acute abdomen in children:

A

appendicitis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

6) Which is the most common cause of strangulation ileus?

A

Incarcerated hernia

=A type of hernia in which the contents of the hernial sac cannot return back through the abdominal wall defect into the peritoneal cavity with the application of gentle external pressure.
Increases the risk of subsequent strangulation and bowel obstruction..

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

7) The most common cause of transfusion-requiring hematochezia, without abdominal pain and without diarrhea:

A

Meckel’s diverticulum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

8) You find a high GGT in a patient with ulcerative colitis, what should you think about?

A

Sclerosing cholangitis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

9) What are the typical characteristics of perianal fissures in Crohn’s disease?

A

Not in the midline, not painful.

deep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

10) What is the first therapeutic choice in Crohn’s disease?

A

Exclusive enteral nutrition.

( (no solid foods) diet is designed to induce remission in patients. It is a short-term program and may extend six to 12 weeks.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

11) What are the two most frequent chest deformities?

A

Pectus excavatum and
pectus carinatum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

12) What are typical signs of bacterial otitis externa?

A

Pain and/or tenderness of the tragus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

13) What are the 4 most important indications of adenoidectomy?

A

Recurrent URTI
Recurrent otitis media,
inhibition of nasal breathing,
obstructive sleep apnea.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

14) The most frequent pathogen of sinusitis and otitis media?

A

Str. pneumoniae.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

15) In which cases of middle-ear inflammatory disease should we suggest tympanostomy tubes (Grommet)?

A

Chronic serous otitis media

Chronic Eustachian tube dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

16) What is the most frequent pathogen in urinary tract infections?

A

E. coli.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

17) What are the typical abnormalities in urine analysis in glomerulonephritis?

A

RBCs
RBC cylinders.
Proteinuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

18) What is the most frequent cause of hypertension before the adolescent age?

A

Kidney disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

19) Which is the most frequent glomerulonephritis type?

A

IgA nephropathy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

20) What is the prognosis of West-syndrome or infantile spasm?

A

Usually poor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

21) Which bacterium is the most frequent cause of childhood pneumonia?

A

Str. pneumoniae.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

22) What are the two main components of the treatment of pseudocroup?

A

Rectal steroid, inhalation of adrenaline.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

23) What is the most common cause of new onset cough?

A

Viral infection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

24) What is the Holzknecht sign characteristic for?

A

Airway foreign body aspiration.

On expiration, the affected lung becomes pneumatic due to occlusion at the level of bronchi. This results in an ipsilateral downward push on the diaphragm by the lung.

On inhalation, the midline shifts to the affected side which is referred to as the Holzknecht sign.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

25) What is the most common cause of a cough ongoing since birth which always presents during feeding

A

Tracheoesophageal fistula.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

26) What percentage of the mortality is caused by accidents in Hungary in children older than 1 year?

A

36-40%, this is the main cause of death in children older than 1 year.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

27) What is the prognosis of juvenile absence epilepsy?

A

Usually favorable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

28) What can prevent coronary artery disease (aneurysm) in Kawasaki syndrome?

A

IVIG.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

29) What is the most serious complication of juvenile idiopathic arthritis?

A

Macrophage activation syndrome (MAS).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

30) Which muscles are affected in juvenile polymyositis?

A

Proximal muscles of the limbs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

31) What is the typical feature of stool in biliary atresia?

A

Clay-colored (acholic) stool.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

32) What kind of diseases are included in atopic march and in which order?

A

Atopic dermatitis food allergy - asthma bronchiale - allergic rhinitis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

33) How is food allergy diagnosed? What is the reliability of IgE testing?

A

IgE testing is not reliable. The diagnosis should be based on double blind oral food challenge.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

34) In which case serological testing is not informative in celiac disease.

A

In IgA deficiency.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

35) What is the diagnostic basis of endocarditis?

A

Blood culture and echocardiography.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

36) What are the upper airway infections that should be treated with antibiotics?

A

Streptococcus angina,
acute otitis media
and
acute bacterial sinusitis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

37) What is the diagnostic basis of erythema migrans?

A

The fact of tick bite
and
the clinical picture: growing erythema which is more than 5 cm in diameter.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

38) What is the ideal age for closing the soft palate defect?

A

Between 9 and 18 months.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

39) What is the most likely diagnosis in the following case: patient with polyuria, polydipsia with positive urine glucose and acetone test?

A

Diabetes mellitus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

40) A patient with typical diabetes symptoms has a 18.2 mmol/l blood sugar level in the afternoon. What is to be done?

A

Refer the child to a pediatric diabetic center immediately.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

41) What kind of hormonal changes are seen in the salt wasting form of congenital adrenal hyperplasia due to deficiency of 21-hydroxylase?

A

Insufficient glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid secretion, excessive androgen secretion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

42) How does the mother’s iodine deficiency influence the newborn’s thyroid function?

A

It results in temporary primary hypothyroidism.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

43) Which is the most common adrenocortical enzyme defect?

A

The defect of the 21-hydroxylase enzyme.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

44) What are the most typical histologic findings in ulcerative colitis?

A

Crypt abscesses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

45) Name at least 5 extraintestinal abnormalities in celiac disease:

A

arthritis,
osteoporosis,
hepatitis,
isolated iron deficiency,
Duhring-disease (dermatitis herpetiformis).

46
Q

46) What is the definition of “graft versus leukemia”?

A

Immunologic attack of the donor cells against the patient’s leukaemic cells after allogeneic bone marrow transplantation.

47
Q

47) What is a haploidentical transplant?

A

Half matched HLA antigen stem cell transplant (from usually a family member).

48
Q

48) What does allogeneic stem cell transplant mean?

A

The patient (recipient) gets hematopoietic stem cells from another person (donor).

49
Q

49) What glucose levels are diagnostic for diabetes mellitus?

A

Fasting blood glucose level higher than 7 mmol/l,

or

more than 11.1 mmol/l at any time
or at any point during an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT).

50
Q

50) Which are the 4 presenting symptoms of diabetes mellitus?

A

Polyuria, polydipsia,
weight loss with good appetite,
fatigue-weakness.

51
Q

51) What are the diseases most commonly associated with type 1 diabetes mellitus?

A

Celiac disease and Hashimoto thyroiditis.

52
Q

52) What is the most modern therapeutic method of type-one diabetes?

A

Insulin pump with an integrated glucose sensor.

53
Q

53) How much insulin should be given in diabetic ketoacidosis?

A

0.05-0.1 U/kg/h

54
Q

54) Since the introduction of expanded screening, how many congenital metabolic diseases are screened routinely in Hungary?

A

27 and SMA(spinal muscular atrophy) screening is also available.

55
Q

55) The final therapy of biliary atresia is liver transplantation. There is a surgical bridging therapy before transplantation. What is the name of this operation?

A

Kasai porto-enterostomy.

56
Q

56) How often should a baby be breastfed?

A

On-demand.

57
Q

57) When is it suggested to introduce cow’s milk for children?

A

After 12 months of age.

58
Q

58) How does the breast milk’s protein content relate to the cow’s milk protein content?

A

One third.

59
Q

59) What are the most important diseases which can be easily diagnosed and followed up by cranial ultrasound?

A

Brain hemorrhage and hydrocephalus.

60
Q

60) For how long can we see the shadow of the thymus on the thoracic X-ray?

A

Until 3 years of age.

61
Q

61) What radiological examinations can be done to diagnose VUR? (Name three!).

A

MCU (Micturating cysto-urethro-gram),
Sono-cysto-graphy,
Dynamic kidney-scintigraphy.

62
Q

62) How can you diagnose perforation in a critically ill baby with necrotizing enterocolitis if you cannot move them in the incubator?

A

Horizontal X-ray from side position while the baby is lying on the back.

63
Q

63) In which part of the bone does osteomyelitis start?

A

In the metaphysis.

64
Q

64) How long to wait after surgery before bathing?

A

7-8 days.

65
Q

65) What is chicken pox (varicella) reactivation called?

A

Herpes zoster.

66
Q

66) What is the sixth disease?

A

Exanthema subitum, roseola infantum.

67
Q

67) Which is the contagious disease that causes severe fetal injuries in 80 percent of its cases?

A

Rubella.

68
Q

68) Name at least five examples when pulse oximetry is not informative!

A

Carbon-dioxide intoxication,
cardiac failure,
cold extremities.
methemoglobinemia,
severe anemia,

69
Q

69) Define paradoxical breathing!

A

The chest moves inward and the abdomen moves outward during inhalation, and vice versa.

70
Q

70) How do we give oxygen to a conscious patient in an emergency situation who is breathing spontaneously?

A

Through a face mask with a reservoir, with high flow oxygen (10-15 l/min).

71
Q

71) How does the concentration of protein and glucose of CSF change in bacterial meningitis?

A

Protein concentration is increased,
glucose concentration is decreased.

72
Q

72) Name of the two most common pathogens of newborn meningitis!

A

Streptococcus agalactiae,
E. coli.

73
Q

73) What affects the sensitivity of blood culture?

A

The amount of blood drawn within 24 hours after the fever.

74
Q

74) Name the condition of infants associated with abdominal pain in which bowel movements are preceded by tension and crying lasting for about 10 minutes?

A

Infantile dyschezia

75
Q

75) The pathogen causing neonatal infection that can be identified by maternal vaginal secretion screening.

A

Streptococcus agalactiae. (group B Streptococcus, GBS)

76
Q

76) The amount of a single fluid bolus required to treat septic shock:

A

10 ml/kg.

77
Q

77) The most common endocrine disorder causing growth retardation

A

Thyroid dysfunction – hypothyroidism.

78
Q

78) What does precocious puberty mean in the case of girls?

A

If the secondary sexual characteristics appears before the age of 8 years

79
Q

79) What changes can we see in the urine sediment in typical pyelonephritis?

A

Leukocytes and bacteria

80
Q

80) In which chromosomal abnormality is duodenal atresia common?

A

Trisomy 21 (Down syndrome)

81
Q

81) What is the radiological sign of duodenal atresia?

A

„Double-bubble” sign

82
Q

82) What are the B-symptoms in lymphoma?

A

Fever, night sweats, weight loss.

83
Q

83) At what platelet count is there major risk of bleeding?

A

Below 10-20 G/l

84
Q

84) What to do in case of neutropenic fever?

A

Broad spectrum empiric antibiotic therapy after taking blood cultures.

85
Q

85) What are the serum electrolyte disturbances in case of tumor lysis syndrome?

A

Elevated potassium, phosphate and uric acid,

decreased calcium.

86
Q

86) What are the alarming signs of retinoblastoma? What examinations are required?

A

Strabism,
leukocoria -
ophthalmoscopic examination.

87
Q

87) What is the most common type of malignancy in childhood?

A

ALL.

88
Q

88) What are the symptoms of increased intracranial pressure?

A

Headache,
vomiting in the morning,
nuchal rigidity,
setting-sun sign,
focal neurological signs,
bradycardia,
high blood pressure,
irritability,
bulging fontanelle.

89
Q

89) What are the physical symptoms of anemia?

A

Fatigue,
paleness,
tachycardia,
systolic heart murmurs.

90
Q

90) How does the total iron binding capacity change in case of anemia and inflammation?

A

Increased in anemia, decreased in inflammation.

91
Q

91) What is the treatment of immune thrombocytopenia (first- and second-line treatment.)?

A

IVIG, corticosteroid

92
Q

92) List the signs of increased work of breathing!

A

Use of respiratory accessory muscles,
intercostal retraction,
jugular retraction,
nasal flaring,
paradoxical breathing, grunting.

93
Q

93) At what age do the fontanelles close at the latest?

A

Posterior fontanelle: by 3 months, anterior fontanelle: by 18 months.

94
Q

94) What are the symptoms and laboratory signs of nephrotic syndrome?

A

Proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, hyperlipidemia, oedema.

95
Q

95) What are the symptoms and laboratory signs of nephritic syndrome?

A

Hematuria,
oedema hypertension,
uraemia(too much urea)
oliguria (kidney failure is correct instead of the latter two).

96
Q

96) What factors are included in the APGAR score?

A

Heart rate, respiratory rate, skin color, reflex irritability, muscle tone.

97
Q

97) Age limits of puberty?

A

Boys: 9-14 years. Girls: 8-13 years.

98
Q

98) What are the direct and indirect signs of appendicitis?

A

Direct sign: tenderness at the McBurney point.
Indirect signs:
Blumberg(rebound tenderness, + in peritonitis too)
Rovsing (RLQ pain when palpating LLQ)
Obturator
Psoas signs.

99
Q

99) How can we estimate the body weight between the ages of 2-8 years?

A

(2 x years) + 8.

100
Q

100) What does autologous stem cell transplantation mean?

A

A procedure in which a patient’s healthy stem cells are collected from the blood or bone marrow before high dose chemotherapy, stored, and then given back to the patient after treatment.

101
Q

101) What is the heart rate and respiratory rate of a healthy newborn?

A

Respiratory rate: 50-60/min, Heart rate: 120-160/min.

102
Q

102) Which cultured pathogen from throat swabs warrants antibiotic treatment?

A

Str. pyogenes.

103
Q

103) In case of maternal GBS positivity, up to what age can this bacteria cause disease in the baby?

A

Up to six months of age.

104
Q

104) What is the recommended empiric treatment of neonates with suspected sepsis?

A

Ampicillin + Gentamycin.

105
Q

105) What factors are included in the croup score?

A

cough
cyanosis.
Sound of inhalation,
stridor,
signs of dyspnea (nasal flaring, retractions),

106
Q

106) In case of pain localized to one point in the bone, when should we order an X-ray if the pain does not stop?

A

1 week

107
Q

107) What is the choice of imaging modality if acute osteomyelitis is suspected?

A

MRI

108
Q

108) What is the most common presentation of cow’s milk protein allergy in infants?

A

Bloody stool

109
Q

109) Which disease should be suspected in case of bloody stool and vomiting in neonates?

A

Volvulus

110
Q

110) Which disease should be suspected in case of neonates with distended abdomen and severe constipation?

A

Hirschsprung-disease

Parm (15 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions