Pediatrics Overview Flashcards

1
Q

A child with cerebral palsy and a gastrostomy tube is admitted to the hospital for a fundoplication. This procedure is used to manage

A

gastroesophageal reflux

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2
Q

GER is most common in children with ____

A

neuroimpairment

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3
Q

What are the steps used to treat GER in children

A

change feeding regimen
change positioning during feeding
stat medications for reflux and motility

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4
Q

If treatment is refractory to GER, _____ is used a last resort management

A

Fundoplication or PEG-J extension

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5
Q

Premature infants with these types of conditions are at an increased risk for metabolic bone disease

A
  1. cholestasis
  2. immobilization
  3. Chronic steroid use
  4. very low birth weight <1500 grams
  5. chronic diuretic use
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6
Q

MBD is characterized by the development of

A

osteopenia and osteomalacia

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7
Q

When used in the assessment of critically ill children, how do predictive equations compare to indirect calorimetry

A

no consistent comparison can be found

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8
Q

Indirect calorimetry is the gold standard for the assessment of energy needs in the critically ill child and should be used whenever possible. When IC is not available, what should be used

A

Schofield or WHO equation

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9
Q

what is the most common nutrient deficiency in childhood

A

iron deficiency anemia

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10
Q

Term infants have enough iron stores for up to ____ months

A

6 months

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11
Q

Infant formulas are fortified with enough

A

iron

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12
Q

Iron content of breast milk is ______ than formula but more efficiently absorbed

A

less

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13
Q

exclusively breast fed infants require additional iron starting at ________ months old with supplementation or complementary foods

A

4-6 months old

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14
Q

Cows milk has iron but is ___________ because it is high in calcium

A

not efficiently absorbed

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15
Q

Children should not be introduced to cows milk before ___ months because they will be at risk for ______

A

12 months

iron deficient

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16
Q

An obese 12 year old is admitted to the hospital for an evaluation of sleep apnea. A diet history reveals she drinks 3 cans of soda, 24 oz of juice and 8 oz of chocolate milk a day. In what mineral may she be deficient

A

calcium

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17
Q

soda consumption in youth decreases ____ consumption

A

calcium

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18
Q

______ adolescents are at the highest risk of developing _____ deficiency

A

female

calcium

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19
Q

juice consumption should be

A

<8 oz a day school age/adolescence
<4-6 oz pre school children
<4 oz toddlers

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20
Q

Children should consume ____ servings a day of dairy to obtain enough calcium

A

2-3 servings

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21
Q

adolescents should consume ___ servings a day of dairy to obtain enough calcium

A

4

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22
Q

When does the American Academy of Pediatrics recommend universal screening for iron deficiency be performed in young children

A

12 months old

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23
Q

iron deficiency over time can lead to long term _______ deficits

A

neruodevelopmental

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24
Q

Selective screening for iron deficiency is done at any age for infants with the following risk factors

A

prematurity
low socioeconomic status
poor growth
exclusive Breast feeding without supplementation

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25
Q

When reviewing a child’s growth chart data , the child’s weight for length curve is falling below the 3rd percentile. What z-score indicates severely wasted

A

z score below =3

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26
Q

a z-score (also known as the std deviation) is where a child weight falls from the median or percentile in growth charts

A

50th

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27
Q

a positive change in standard deviation/z scores indicates

A

growth

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28
Q

a negative change in standard deviation/z scores indicates

A

slowing growth rate

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29
Q

what is the suggested daily amount of potassium required for maintenance of infants with PN

A

2-4 mEq/Kg

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30
Q

A 13 year old boy whose BMI is at the 97th percentile on the CDC’s growth chart for age and sex would be classified as

A

obese

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31
Q

BMI on growth charts is used for children ages over

A

2 years

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32
Q

a BMI between the 85th and 94th percentile is classified as

A

overweight

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33
Q

A BMI greater than or equal to the 95th percentile is classified as

A

obese

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34
Q

Which conditions are associated with delayed bone age in a child with a short stature (things that delay bone age)

A

hypothyroidism
Cushing syndrome
growth hormone deficiency

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35
Q

____ is a diagnostic test assessing a child with abnormal growth, using radiography of the knees or left wrist

A

bone age

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36
Q

Precocious Puberty is known as

A

advanced bone age

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37
Q

what type of pre-term growth chart allows for comparison for pre-term infants from 22 weeks gestation age up through 10 weeks post term age

A

Fenton

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38
Q

What are the pros of using a Fenton growth chart

A

large sample size
validated tool
assess rate of growth OVER TIME

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39
Q

In newborns, potassium is not added to the PN solution until

A

kidney function is established

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40
Q

what is the daily maintenance fluid requirement for a 5 kg infant

A

500mL

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41
Q

The Holliday Segar Method estimates fluid requirements. For each 100 kcals metabolized ____mL of water will be needed

A

100

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42
Q

The Holliday Segar Method to estimate fluid needs should be used for neonates greater than

A

14 days old

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43
Q

How is the holliday segar method used

A

1st 10 kg provide 100mL/kg/day
2nd 10 kg (over 10kg): provide 50mL/kg/day
each additional kg over 20 kg, provide 20mL/kg/day

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44
Q

On radiographic examination a pediatric patient is found to have osteopenia and multiple fractures in various stages of healing. Serum lab results show calcium is low, phos is low, creatinine is normal, alk phos is high, 25-OH vit D is low, 1,25 dihyroxyvitamin D is low, and PTH is high. What is the likely diagnosis

A

Vitamin D Type Rickets

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45
Q

Signs/Sx of vitamin D type rickets are ______ serum calcium, _____ serum phos, ____ alk phos, _____ PTH, _____ 25-OH vit D 2, and ______1,25OH vitamin D3

A
normal to low calcium
normal to low phosphorous
high alk phos
increased PTH
low vitamin D 2
low vitamin D3
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46
Q

In vitamin D dependent rickets type 2, whate are the signs and symptoms. ______ 25 OH vitamin D 2 and _______ 1,25 dihydroxy vitamin D 3

A

low vitamin D2

ELEVATED VITAMIN D3

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47
Q

What is the recommended daily enteral elemental iron dose for preterm infants 1 month after birth

A

2-4 mg/kg/day (during stable growth) because the rate of growth and erythropoiesis slows down s/p birth and iron requirements are lower.

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48
Q

elemental iron supplementation in preterm infants starts around ___ month and should last until ______ months

A

2-4mg/kg/day for 4-8 weeks starting until 12-15 months old

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49
Q

Infants not getting human milk should receive ______ formula and preterm infants should get at least ____ mg/kd/day of elemental iron from 1-12 months of age

A

iron fortified formula

2 mg/d/day from 1-12 months old

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50
Q

what trace element should be supplemented in a child with chronic diarrhea

A

zinc

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51
Q

acute diarrhea lasts for < ____ days, persistent diarrhea lasts for more than ____ days, and chronic diarrhea lasts for > ____ days

A

14 days
14 days
30 days

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52
Q

Studies show that ______ decreases the duration of diarrheal episodes, decreased hospitalizations and decreased mortality

A

zinc

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53
Q

____ mg of zinc should be given a day when a child has 10-14 days of acute diarrhea and children under 6 months old should only receive ____ mg o zinc

A

20 mg

10 mg

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54
Q

is pancreatic insufficiency a contraindication to nasogastric feedings in a pediatric patient with cystic fibrosis

A

No, pancreatic enzymes can be given to help with absorption

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55
Q

what are contraindications to NG tube placement in pediatric patients with CF? (will need stomach or small bowel access)

A

upper airway secretion
nasal polyps
recurrent sinusitis
otitis

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56
Q

what is the best indication for the use of a soy based infant formula

A

galactosemia

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57
Q

why are soy based infant formulas not used in children with cow’s milk allergy?

A

a high percentage of children who are allergic to cow’s milk protein are also allergic to soy

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58
Q

patients with soy or cow’s milk allergies require which type of infant formula

A

hydrolyzed or free amino acid formula

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59
Q

An inborn error of metabolism that affects the body’s ability to metabolize galactose

A

galactosemia

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60
Q

A child or infant with galactosemia must _______ from the diet and use ______ based formulas

A

eliminate galactose from the diet

use soy based formulas

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61
Q

What is recommended to prevent vitamin D deficiency in a 1 month old infant who is fed human milk

A

give 400 IU of vitamin D a day soon after birth

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62
Q

how much vitamin D is recommended for exclusively breast fed infants

A

400 IU vitamin D

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63
Q

A seven month old fed reconstituted infant formula and other age appropriate complementary foods may be at risk of over-supplemetnation of which mineral?

A

Fluoride due to the tap water

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64
Q

high amounts of fluoride in a child’s diet can cause

A

disrupted tooth enamel/mineralization (enamel fluorosis)

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65
Q

which pediatric patients are at the highest risk for enamel flurosis?

A

infants on re-constituted formulas used with tap water

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66
Q

non-nutritive sucking helps prevent ___________ in children

A

oral aversion

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67
Q

non-nutritive sucking should be used in the enterally fed neonate less than _______ weeks corrected gestational age to promote__________

A

< 32 weeks

to promote oral feeding when developmentally ready

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68
Q

suck/swallow coordination is usually developed between __ and ___ weeks gestation

A

32-34 weeks

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69
Q

what are the benefits of non nutritive sucking

A

improves digestion of EN feedings
encourages oral development
stimulates lingual lipase, gastrin, insulin, motilin and vagal innervation during EN feedings

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70
Q

which equation is typically used to measure energy needs in pediatrics

A

Schofield equation

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71
Q

if a child is under weight, which weight should you use to calculate energy needs in pediatrics

A

ideal body weight as they need rapid weight gain

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72
Q

children with cystic fibrosis require _____ energy needs

A

increased

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73
Q

why are energy needs elevated in children with cystic fibrosis

A

increased work of breathing, decreased nutrient absorption from pancreatic insufficiency

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74
Q

what is the maximum dose in units of lipase/kg/meal for PERT therapy

A

2,500 units

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75
Q

too high of a dose of lipase or PERT enzyme therapy can increase the risk of developing

A

fibrosing colonopathy

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76
Q

children with cystic fibrosis require _____% of energy needs for optimal growth

A

120%

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77
Q

supplement fat soluble vitamins in the _____ form for optimal vitamin absorption in children with CF

A

water miscible (children with CF have fat malabsorption)

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78
Q

Infants with cystic fibrosis require additional sodium due to high losses, so salt needs to be supplemented. Infants who are 0-6 months old require ____ teaspoons/day and ____ teaspoons if older than 6 months

A

1/8 teaspoon/day

1/4 teaspoon/day

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79
Q

when is enteral nutrition indicated in children with cystic fibrosis

A

if the child cannot meet their energy needs with po intake alone

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80
Q

other than fat soluble vitamins, what else important to supplement in children w/ CF

A

calcium as they have a high risk of osteoporosis

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81
Q

if a child’s health insurance does not cover enzymes in children with CF, can generic enzymes be supplemented?

A

no, they are not water miscible

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82
Q

A 14 year old female with cystic fibrosis weighs 50 kg and is 63” tall with pancreatic insufficiency. She takes PERT at meals at a dose of 25,000 units of lipase per capsule. What is her max per meal?

A

25,000 units x 50 kg = 125,000 units total divided by 25,000 units per capsule, is 5 capsules per meal

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83
Q

in the critically ill child, are standard equations used to calculate energy needs?

A

no, they are inaccurate

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84
Q

if indirect calorimetry is not available to measure energy needs in critically ill children, which equations should be used, should a stress factor be used?

A

Schofield or WHO equations

NO stress factors should NOT be used

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85
Q

overfeeding in critically ill children can cause _____ ,_____and _____ leading to increased time on the vent and increased PICU length of stay

A

cholestasis

hyperglycemia with increased infection

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86
Q

what is the gold standard for measuring energy needs in children with burns

A

indirect calorimetry

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87
Q

the general goal of % of energy needs for children with burns are about ____ to ___%of their REE

A

120-130%

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88
Q

children with burns greater than _____% BSA usually need nutrition support to meet their elevated nutrition needs

A

20% BSA

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89
Q

what types of children in the ICU require lower energy needs

A

traumatic brain injury
cerebral palsy
Trisomy 21

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90
Q

protein needs ____ during periods of stress, critical illness and short bowel syndrome in children

A

increase

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91
Q

as child ages, protein needs typically _____ in healthy children

A

decrease

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92
Q

children from 0-12 months usually require ____g/kg/day of protein

A

1.5 g/kg/day

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93
Q

children from 13 months to 3 years usually require ____ g/kg/day of protein

A

1.1g/kg/day

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94
Q

children 4 to 13 years old typically require ___ g/kg/day of protein

A

0.95

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95
Q

children between the ages of 14 and 18 years old typically require ___ g/kg/day of protein

A

0.85

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96
Q

protein needs during injury _________ due to nitrogen loss and acute inflammation

A

increase

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97
Q

protein needs roughly _____ during injury and illness . Children of 0-2 years require ___ to ___ g/kg/day protein, 2-13 years old require ___ to ___ g/kg/day and ages 2-18 years old need ___g/kg/day protein

A

double
2-3 g/kg/day
1.5-2 g/kg/day
1.5 g/kg/day

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98
Q

excessive protein intake of ____ to ___ g/kg/day can contribute to negative consequences such as ___ and ___

A

4-6 g/kg/day
metabolic acidosis
azotemia

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99
Q

In infants less than 6 months avoid giving ______ due to inadequate nutrient intake and possible electrolyte imbalances

A

free water

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100
Q

how are fluid needs calculated in children

A

Holiday-Segar Method

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101
Q

the holiday-segar method of fluid needs provides ____mL/kg for infants 1-10 kg

A

100mL/kg

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102
Q

the holliday-segar method of fluid needs provides _______mL + ______mL/kg for every kg over 10 kg up until 20 kg

A

1000 mL + 50mL/kg

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103
Q

The holliday-segar method of fluid needs provides _______mL + ____mL/kg for every kg over 20 kg of weight

A

1500 mL + 20mL/kg

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104
Q

what are the benefits of breast milk

A

increased resistance to infections, increased GI maturity, decreased risk of overfeeding, decreased risk of NEC in preemies, decreased risk of allergies

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105
Q

breast milk contains _____ kcal/oz

A

20 kcal/oz

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106
Q

breast milk contains ___ to ___ grams/mL of protein

A

0.9-1.4 grams/mL

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107
Q

breast milk contains __ to ___ grams of fat/mL

A

3.5-3.9 g fat/mL

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108
Q

pre-mature infants require ____ kcal/oz of formula for weight gain

A

24 kcal/oz

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109
Q

infant formula for pre-mature infants are higher in

A

protein, fat, calcium, phosphorous, and zinc

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110
Q

infant formula for pre-mature infants post discharge contain ____ kcal/oz until 9 months of age

A

22 kcal/oz

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111
Q

Standard infant formula contains ___kcal/oz

A

20 kcaloz

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112
Q

infants with ______ CANNOT have standard formula as they cannot consume lactose

A

galactosemia

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113
Q

infants with galactosemia require ____ based formula

A

soy

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114
Q

should infants with cow’s milk protein allergy use soy based infant formula’s?

A

no they usually also have soy allergy

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115
Q

low lactose infant formulas are used for infants with

A

suspected lactose intolerance

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116
Q

Anti-Reflux infant formula are for infants with severe ____ who are not gaining weight appropriately. It has a ____ component that makes the formula more viscous which makes it harder to bring back up

A

GER

starch component

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117
Q

if an infant is on an acid blocker medication, will anti-reflux medications work?

A

no because the starch relies on the stomach acid to thicken the ofrmula

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118
Q

caseine hydrolysate infant formula is used in infants with _____ protein allergy

A

milk

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119
Q

elemental infant formula is an amino acid based formula is used for infants with

A

severe food allergies, malabsorption

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120
Q

vitamin _____ is supplemented prophylactically to ALL newborns

A

vitamin K

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121
Q

_____IU a day of vitamin D is recommended for exclusively breast fed infants

A

400 IU/day

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122
Q

for infants breast fed and on formula, what is the recommendation for vitamin D?

A

routinely monitor levels and supplement as needed

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123
Q

for infants getting 100% goal volume of infant formula, what are the recommendations for vitamin D supplementation

A

NO supplementation of vitamin D is necessary unless they have a malabsorption disorder

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124
Q

which children/infants are at most risk for a vitamin D deficiency

A

breast feeding without supplementation
dark pigmented skin (melanin acts as SPF)
born earlier than 32 weeks gestation
geographic location
recent immigration from developing country
malabsorption disorders such as epilepsy, CP, SBS, biliary atresia, phenobarbital medications

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125
Q

phenobarbital medications in infants can lower _____ vitamin

A

vitamin D

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126
Q

when are vitamin B12 levels of concern in infants

A

if the baby is exclusively breast fed and mom is vegan s

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127
Q

when should iron be fortified in infants

A

by 4-6 months old

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128
Q

when does fluoride need to be supplemented ?

A

after 6 months of age based on the water supply (rural areas and well water)

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129
Q

0.25mg/day of this is needed to be supplemented in some infants from 6 months to 3 years old

A

fluoride

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130
Q

Cow’s milk should not be given before

A

1 year

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131
Q

why is Cow’s milk inappropriate for children

A

low in iron
low in vitamin C and E
low in essential fatty acids
has a high renal solute land due to limited ability to concentrate the urin as I stooging high in milliosmoles

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132
Q

elemental formulas for children 1-10 years old is used for

A

malabsorption and food protein allergies

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133
Q

elemental formulas for children 1-10 years old contains

A

free amino acids, 240-3ckal/oz

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134
Q

semi elemental formulas for children 1-10 years old contains

A

protein as peptides and amino acids , 30-45 kcal/oz

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135
Q

when would Semi-Elemental formula for children 1-10 years old be used

A

malabsorption

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136
Q

a polymeric formula for children 1-10 years contains these properties

A
fiber
is calorie dense
30kcal/oz
44-53% carbs
35-45% fat
12-15% protein
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137
Q

when are orogastric tubes recommended for children

A

premature infants <34 weeks with nose breathing, lack of gag reflux
basilar skull fractures

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138
Q

when are NG tube appropriate for children requiring enteral nutrition

A

normal gastric function
no risk of aspiration
short term use

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139
Q

when are Nasoenteric tubes recommended for children requiring enteral nutrition

A

short term with significant reglux
gastroparesis
high aspiration risk

140
Q

when are gastrostomy tubes recommended for children requiring enteral nutrition

A

long term for at least 3 months

141
Q

when are gastrojejunostomy tubes recommended for children requiring EN

A

long term
severe GER who aren’t a candidate for a Nissen Fundoplication
already have a gastrostomy but be but not tolerating their feeds

142
Q

when children are given EN via bolus or gravity how should the be initiated and advanced

A

start at 25% of the goal
divide the # of feeds
increase the volume by 25% daily

143
Q

when children are given EN via pump how should they be initiated and advanced

A

start at 1-2mL/kg/hr and advance by 0.5 to 1 mL/hr every 6-24 hours to the goal

144
Q

if possible, don’t use powdered formula for these types of infants

A

immunocompromised

145
Q

what is the recommended hang time of manipulated formula and human breast milk including powdered, re-constituted HBN, and EN formula with additives

A

4 hours

146
Q

what are the indications for EN in children

A

insufficient oral intake to support adequate weight gain and growth, oral motor dysfunction, inborn errors of metabolism, Chron’s disease
a structural or functional GI abnormality such as congenital malformation, head/neck tumor, or injury/critical illness

147
Q

what is the preferred method of feeding in a critically ill child

A

enteral nutrition (the stomach)

148
Q

when should feeding be initiated in the PICU

A

within 24-48 hours of admit if feasible

149
Q

by the end of 7 days (1 week) feeding should provide _____ energy needs

A

2/3 energy needs (60%)

150
Q

when is PN indicated in the PICU

A
prematurity
severe GI impairment
volvulus intestines
NEC
intestinal atresia
small bowel ischemia
IBD
short bowel syndrome
Gastrochisis
omphalacele
hyper metabolic and unable to meet needs alone with EN, s/p bone marrow if not able to meet needs with EN alone
Hirshcpurngs Disease
151
Q

an opening in the abdominal wall muscles where the intestines, stomach and liver protrude outside of the body

A

Gastrochisis

152
Q

what is assessed in pediatric malnutrition

A

food/nutrient intake, energy/protein needs, growth parameters, weight gain velocity, mid upper arm circumference, hand grip strength

153
Q

when using z scores you can meet _____ number of criteria for malnutrition in pediatrics

A

1

154
Q

categories of pediatric malnutrition using z scores

A

weight/height, BMI, length for height/age, MUAC

155
Q

Mild Malnutrition Criteria (peds) Z scores

A
  • 1 to -1.9 height/weight
  • 1 to -1.9 BMI
  • 1 to -1.9 MUAC
156
Q

Moderate Malnutrition Criteria (PEDS) z scores

A
  • 2 to -2.9 height/weight
  • 2 to -2.9 BMI
  • 2 to -2.9 MUAC
157
Q

Severe Malnutrition Criteria (PEDS) z scores

A
  • 3 or less height /weight
  • 3 or less BMI
  • 3 or less length/ht and length/age
  • 3 or less MUAC
158
Q

Mild Malnutrition Criteria PEDS (2+ needed)

A

weight gain velocity <75% of normal
5% loss of UBW
decline in 1 standard deviation of weight for length/weight for height z score
51%-75% EEN/EPN

159
Q

Moderate Malnutrition Criteria PEDS (2+ needed)

A

weight gain velocity <50% of normal
7.5% loss of UBW
decline in 2 std deviations for weight for length/weight for height z score
26-50% EEN/EPN

160
Q

Severe Malnutrition Criteria PEDS (2+ needed)

A

weight gain velocity <25% of normal
10% loss of UBW or greater
at least 3 standard deviations below wt/lenght and wt/ht z score
<25% EEN/EPN

161
Q

phenotypic malnutrition criteria (weight) in GLIM

A

> 5% in = 6 months

>10% in > 6 months

162
Q

phenotypic malnutrition criteria (BMI) in GLIM

A

<20 if >70 years old
<22 if 77 years old
<18.5 Asians <70 years old
<20 Asians >70 years old

163
Q

phenotypic malnutrition criteria (Muscle mass)

A

decreased muscle mass

164
Q

etiologic GLIM criteria

A

50% < food intake >1 week
any reduction > 2 weeks for any chronic GI absorption that impacts food assimilation
acute/chronic disease related inflammation

165
Q

well defined, easy to palpate, slightly seen clavicle in females, curved shoulders, scapular bones not prominent describes ______ upper body muscle

A

normal

166
Q

muscles around the knee visible but well rounded, patella not prominent, gastrocnemius is developed and rounded describes ____ lower body muscle

A

normal

167
Q

temporalis muscle slightly depressed, decreased pectoralis major muscle moderately visible, clavicle present in females and males, shoulder blade/acromion process is more visible with a hollow trapezius, there is somewhat prominent scapular bones describes ______ upper body muscle

A

mild/moderate depletion

168
Q

patella slightly prominent but rounded, inner thigh with concave gap when pressed together, gastrocnemius is less developed describes____ lower body muscle

A

mild/moderate depletion

169
Q

depressed/hollow temporalis muscle, prominent facial bones, sharply protruded clavicle, minimal prese pectoralis muscle, scapula/ acromion process are sharply angular and there is deep concave interosseous muscle describes ___ upper body muscle

A

severe depletion

170
Q

patella is sharply prominent, there is concaved shape between thighs with a large gam and the quadriceps lack definition indicates _____ lower body muscle

A

severe depletion

171
Q

fat pads protrude slightly or are flat indicate, the skinfold underneath the triceps with ample fat tissue, iliac crest doesn’t protrude and ribs are visible indicates ____ fat assessment

A

normal fat assessment

172
Q

faint, dark circles with a moderately concave eye area, skin fold pinch with some fat tissue but less space between the fingers, iliac crest visible and ribs are visible but without marked depressions between them indicates _____fat assessment

A

mild to moderate fat depletion

173
Q

visible, dark circles, extremely concave eye socket, skin is loose, skin fold pinch yields fingers touching, little to no fat tissue present, iliac crest is protruding, ribs are protruding with sharp depressions in-between them indicate ___ fat assessment

A

severe fat depletion

174
Q

the incidence of aspiration is directly caused by EN is _______ to be determined due to the lack of clinical research. There is no standard definition of aspiration

A

difficult

175
Q

Critically ill children have decreased strength and coordination of pharyngeal muscles and a weak cough reflex making ___ more likely

A

aspiration

176
Q

what is considered appropriate use of powdered infant formula in healthcare facilities?

A

only use when alternative, sterile liquid products are not available or when clinically necessary

177
Q

powdered formulas are or are not sterile

A

are NOT!

178
Q

use extra caution when providing powdered formulas to ______ children as they have a higher risk of bacterial contamination

A

immunocompromised chidren

179
Q

in the hospital, what is the hang time for expressed human milk when used for continuous feedings?

A

4 hours

180
Q

human milk is _____ sterile due to normal skin flora that is present. Never re use ___, ___ or _____ to reduce the chance of contamination

A

never sterile

bags, syringes, or tubing

181
Q

A 1 month old has acute onset of diarrhea for 48 hours. The parents noticed that he hasn’t been wetting as many diapers and mucous membranes are slightly dry. It is anterior fontanel is soft and not sunken. He normally ingests milk based formula ad lib. What is the most appropriate intervention?

A

oral rehydration therapy. the infant is likely dehydrated from diarrhea/viral gastroenteritis and then return to age appropriate diet as tolerated and continue with milk

182
Q

sunken eyes, sunken fontanel, poor skin turgor, dry mucous membranes and decreased numbers of wet diapers indicates

A

dehydration

183
Q

what osmolarity is considered to be an upper limit for the osmolarity of infant formulas to avoid tolerance issues

A

460mOsm/kg

184
Q

Osmolality of standard infant formulas has a caloric density of ______ kcal/oz with and osmolarity of _______ to ____ mOsm/kg

A

20 kcal/oz

200-380mOsm/kg

185
Q

which infant formulas have the highest osmolarity

A

protein hydrolysate and free amino acid infant formulas

186
Q

the osmolarity of a 30kcal/oz infant formula is

A

450 mOsm/kg

187
Q

what distinguishes gastroesophageal reflux (GER) from gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) in infants?

A

GERD is characterized by significant complications including weight loss, failure to thrive, feeding difficulties, and back arching

188
Q

GER commonly resolves spontaneously and without _____

A

significant complications

189
Q

regurgitation is very common in infants and typically resolves between 7-12 months of age as the esophageal sphincter matures. Common causes of regurgitation are

A

rapid administration of EN or formula
delayed gastric emptying
Feeding tube migration

190
Q

what is the max GIR for a term infant getting PN

A

14-18 mg/kg/min

191
Q

a high eGFR in children can cause

A

fat production, hepatic steatosis, PNALD, hyperglycemia, hypertriglyceridemia

192
Q

in an infant getting PN what is the minimum amount of soybean oil based ILE needed to prevent EFAD ?

A

0.5-1g/kg/day

193
Q

fatty acids are important in infants/children because of their role in

A

brain development

194
Q

standardized neonatal parenteral amino acid solutions differ from standard adult PN amino acids by having a higher content of

A

tyrosine and taurine

195
Q

what 2 amino acids are considered essential in neonates due to enzyme immaturity

A

tyrosine and taurine

196
Q

what 3 amino acids are given in lower amounts than adults

A

phenylalanine, methionine, glycine

197
Q

_______ amino acid is not part of a standard infant PN amino acid solutions but can be added separately to lower the pH to optimize calcium and phosphorous solubility

A

cysteine

198
Q

the amino acid cysteine is not part of standard pediatric amino acid solutions in PN but can be added for what benefit

A

optimizes calcium and phosphorous solubility by lowering the pH

199
Q

What is the recommended daily intake of selenium for term infants receiving PN

A

2 mcg/kg/day

200
Q

what are the functions of selenium

A

immune function, antioxidant function, thyroid hormone activity and regulation

201
Q

selenium must be added ____ to PN in neonates

A

separately

202
Q

immediately following neonatal cardiac surgery, which of the following is the best estimate of parenteral caloric requirements

A

55-60 kcal/kg/day (lower than 89)

203
Q

what therapies most appropriate in the nutritional management of an infant with chronic lung disease

A

high calorie, fluid restriction using concentrated formulas

204
Q

why are calorie needs increased in infants with chronic lung disease

A

due to increased work of breathing, emesis and chronic infections

205
Q

_____ is necessary in infants with chronic lung disease to decrease fluid build up around the heart and lungs

A

fluid restriction

206
Q

Pancreatic enzymes that are supplemented in high doses in children with cystic fibrosis could result in

A

fibrosing colonopathy

207
Q

pancreatic enzymes are used are used in children with cystic fibrosis in order

A

to decrease steatorrhea, increased nutrient absorption

208
Q

what is the maximum number of units of lipase/kg/day to avoid fibrosing colonopathy

A

<10,000 units/kg/day

209
Q

Use of Lactobacillus rhamnosus GG (LGG) in pediatric practice has been found to be most effective in treating

A

infectious diarrhea/gastroenteritis

210
Q

An infant has a complete ileal resection with preservation of the ileocecal valve. What would be the primary nutritional concern?

A

vitamin B 12 deficiency w/ bile acid deficiency

211
Q

preterm infant formula or fortified human milk is used for premature infants becuase

A

after the 1st month, unfortified human milk may have inadequate protein amounts

212
Q

preterm formulas contain ___ to __% of carbohydrate calories from lactose and medium chain triglycerides to aid with absorption

A

40-50%

213
Q

premature infant formulas are higher in what macronutrient

A

protein

214
Q

Necrotizing Enterocolitis (NECT) etiology is unclear. but ____ has been found not to increase the risk

A

early minimum enteral feeding does not increase the risk of NEC

215
Q

what is the benefit of starting minimum enteral feedings on infants

A
shortens the time to get to full feeds
faster weight gain
improved feeing tolerance
decreased hospital length of stay
decreased incidence of infection for LBW/VLBW
216
Q

in premature infants, when medically possible starting ))) can begin on the day of birth

A

minimum enteral feedings

217
Q

exclusive EN has been shown to be effective in inducing remission of Chron’s disease in the pediatrics population. What EN formula is recommended as the first line treatment

A

polymeric formula

218
Q

biliary atresia in infants is most frequently associated with

A

fat malabsorption

219
Q

atrophy of the bile ducts causing obstruction of bile flow from the liver to the biliary system & small intestine is called

A

biliary atresia

220
Q

biliary atresia will result in

A

a significant decrease in bile acids required for fat absorption, causing fat and fat soluble vitamin malabsorption . Essential fatty acid deficiency will not occur as long as LCTs are supplemented

221
Q

what is a characteristic of cachexia in pediatric oncology patients

A

progressive lean tissue & body fat

222
Q

what method of estimating energy requirements in critically ill children is LEAST accurate when compared to resting energy expenditure measurement by indirect calorimetry

A

RDA (recommended dietary allowance)

223
Q

In the pediatric ICU, predictive equations are ___ consistent with measured energy expenditure leading to over or underfeeding

A

NOT

224
Q

what is the gold standard for estimated energy needs in the pediatric ICU

A

Indirect Calorimetry

225
Q

Nutrition therapy for pediatric patients with <20% total body surface area burn typically includes

A

oral intake of high calorie, high protein diet

226
Q

In Chron’s disease ___ is thought to positively alter the gut microbiome and ______ is recommended unless there are symptoms of malabsorption of GI dysfunction

A

EN

polymeric

227
Q

what are the clinical symptoms of celiac disease

A

failure to thrive, constipation, anemia, diarrhea, abd pain/distention, vomiting, short stature, weight loss, inadequate weight gain, dermatitis, decreased bone mineral density, fatigue, delayed puberty

228
Q

a 2 month old infant who has been exclusively fed with cow’s milk based formula develops a full body rash, what would be the next step

A

switch to a protein hydrolysate based formula

229
Q

what are signs/symptoms of a cow’s milk allergy

A
blood in stool
diarrhea
skin rash
eczema
wheezing
230
Q

The biochemical defect in Phenylketonuria (PKU) prevents the hydroxyl of phenylalanine to tyrosine which causes a build up of phenylalanine in the blood and a subsequent deficiency of tyrosine

A

provide a phenylalanine restricted, tyrosine supplemented diet

231
Q

what are the metabolic alterations noted during the ebb response following a burn injury to a pedi patient

A
decreased resting energy expenditure
hyperglycemia
low insulin
low oxygen consumption
decreased blood pressure, cardiac output and decreased body temperature
232
Q

after the EBB phase of a burn, comes the flow phase which exhibit these metabolic alterations

A

increased catecholamines, increased insulin, increased glucagon/corticosteroids with hyperglycemia, catabolism, increased body temp, increased losses of nitrogen, magnesium, phos and potassium and accelerated gluconeogenesis

233
Q

what is the diagnostic criteria of infantile anorexia

A

refusal to eat adequate amounts of food for 1 month or greater and or growth deficiency

234
Q

what nutrition support therapy is essential to intestinal adaptation following significant bowel resection

A

Enteral nutrition (human milk preferred)

235
Q

what is the maximum GIR of a pediatric patient

A

14 mg/kg/min

236
Q

in PN, dextrose should provide between _______% kcals

A

40-60% kcals

237
Q

in PN, fat should provide between _____% calories

A

20-40% kcals

238
Q

providing over ____% of fat in pediatric patients can cause ketosis

A

60%

239
Q

how much lipid is needed to prevent EFA deficiency

A

0.5 g/kd/day soy based lipids

240
Q

what are symptoms of pediatric essential fatty acid disease

A

scaly rash
increased susceptibility to infection
poor wound healing
poor growth

241
Q

are TNA’s recommended for neonates/infants

A

no

242
Q

which amino acids are needed in greater amounts in infants less than 1 years old when TPN is given

A

tyrosine

histadine

243
Q

which amino acids are needed in lesser amounts in infants less than 1 years old when TPN is given

A

phenylalanine
methionine
glycine
more acidic pH

244
Q

which amino acid is conditionally essential in infants <1 years old as it is used for neural transmission and bile acid conjugation

A

taurine

245
Q

why is taurine a conditionally essential amino acid in infants on PN <1 years old

A

it is needed for neural transmission and bile acid conjugation

246
Q

why is a low pH desirable in infant PN

A

it increases phosphorous and calcium solubility

247
Q

in infant PN , the amino acid profile is based on

A

human milk

248
Q

preterm neonates, infants and children require how much sodium in PN

A

2-5 mEq/kg sodium

249
Q

children over 50 kg require how much sodium in PN

A

1-2 mEq/kg

250
Q

preterm neonates, infants and children require how much potassium

A

2-4 mEq/kg

251
Q

children over 50 kg require how much potassium in PN

A

1-2 mEq/kg

252
Q

preterm neonates require how much calcium in TPN

A

2-4 mEq/kg

253
Q

infants and children require how much calcium in TPN

A

0.5-4 mEq/kg

254
Q

children over 50 kg require how much calcium

A

10-20 mEq total

255
Q

preterm neonates require how much phosphate in TPN

A

1-2 mmol/kg

256
Q

infants and children require how much phosphate in PN

A

0.5-2 mEq/kg

257
Q

infants over 50 kg require how much phosphate

A

10-40 mol total

258
Q

preterm neonates, infants and children require how much magnesium in PN

A

0.3 to 0.5 mEq/kg

259
Q

children over 50 kg require how much magnesium in PN

A

10-30 mEq total

260
Q

which trace element needs to be increased in infant TPN if there is enter cutaneous fistulae or diarrhea

A

zinc

261
Q

which trace element needs decrease in infant TPN during cholestasis

A

manganese

262
Q

patients with cholestasis can develop _____ within the first 3 weeks of starting PN as they have difficulty excreting it from lack of bile flow

A

hypermanganesemia

263
Q

what are symptoms of hypermanganesemia in infants/neonates

A

irritability

seizures

264
Q

if an infant develops hypermanganesemia during PN infusion, what should be done

A

decrease the amount or take it out of PN

265
Q

Multitrace-4 Neonatal PN MVI and Multitrace-4 Pediatric PN MVI contains all trace elements as adults EXCEPT

A

selenium

266
Q

which trace element is NOT in multi-trace 4 PN MVI

A

selenium

267
Q

what are the important functions of selenium for infants and children

A

converts thyroid to its active form
antioxidant
needed for proper enzyme and immune function

268
Q

Selenium is not included in the Multi-trace MVI for infant PN and infants are at risk for deficiency. If an infant or neonate is on PN for over 1 month how should selenium be supplemented

A

2 mcg/kg/day

269
Q

_______ deficiency is associated with microcytic anemia & neutropenia

A

copper

270
Q

________ (along with manganese) should be eliminated or decreased in PN in children with cholestasis as it is removed by bile which is inhibited in cholestasis

A

copper

271
Q

_____ deficiency is associated with growth failure and hair loss and loss is exponential during high GI output including diarrhea

A

zinc

272
Q

when should zinc be added to infant PN

A

diarrhea, high GI output

273
Q

if a child has cholestasis, how can PN be altered to be more liver friendly

A

reduce lipids
cycle PN
decrease copper & manganese
keep the GIR within normal limits

274
Q

there is no _____ in pediatric PN MVI and there needs to be an exogenous source given for long term PN infants

A

iron (and selenium)

275
Q

______ is supplemented with long term TPN infants to assist in fat oxidation and use

A

Carnitine

276
Q

______ is a shuttle for long chain fatty acids that bring fatty acids across the mitochondrial membrane for beta oxidation

A

carnitine

277
Q

when carnitine is deficient, what are the consequences

A

increased triglycerides
increased total bilirubin
hypoglycemia
increased All Phos

278
Q

how much carnitine should be supplemented in deficiency (PN) x

A

v

279
Q

____ improves tolerance to IV fat emulsions in children/infants

A

carnitine

280
Q

what amino acid is added to preterm infant/infant PN to decrease pH and increase calcium/phosphorous solubility

A

cysteine

281
Q

how can aluminum be managed in PN

A

choose PN components with the lowest aluminum amount

282
Q

what is the max amount of aluminum per FDA guidelines

A

5mcg/kg/day

283
Q

which types of children are at an increased risk of aluminum toxicity

A

renal disease (cannot excrete well from the kidneys)

284
Q

hyperaluminemia is associated with

A

Metabolic Bone Disease

Encephalopathy

285
Q

how often should trace elements be checked on children with LT PN

A

check in 3 months after initiation, then every 3-6 months thereafter

286
Q

how often should fat soluble vitamins Be checked on children with LT PN

A

check in 6 months then annual thereafter if results are normal

287
Q

which anthropometric measures are used to evaluate if a child is malnourished

A

weight
height
mid upper arm circumference

288
Q

a neonate is considered the first ___ days of life

A

28 days

289
Q

premature infants usually need to start off with what type of artificial nutrition

A

parenteral nutrition

290
Q

what are the indications to begin PN in neonates

A
very low birth weight <1500 grams
severe respiratory distress syndrome
Volvulus
Meconium ileus
atresia
gastrochisis
severe Hirschprung's
enteric fistula 
diaphragmatic hernia
291
Q

the time of starting PN on neonates depends on

A

their weight at birth

292
Q

when is PN ideally started in Very Low Brith Weight Neonates

A

the first few hours of life

293
Q

what type of PN is started in neonates

A

Vanilla/Starter/Base PN

294
Q

how much grams of protein do neonates need when starting on PN

A

3-3.5g/kg/day

295
Q

when is PN ideally started in low brith weight premature babies

A

within 24-48 hours

296
Q

when can PN be stopped in premature babies

A

when adequate EN is established

297
Q

what is the purpose of starter PN in premature infants

A

to provide immediate protein

298
Q

what range of dextrose is given in base PN

A

5-10%

299
Q

what range of amino acids is given in base PN

A

3-4%

300
Q

why is heparin added to neonatal PN

A

there is not enough forward pressure in the baby’s lines this will prevent back flow and clotting

301
Q

how much heparin is recommended for neonatal PN

A

0.25-1 unit/mL

302
Q

what prevents clotting in the neonatal PN line

A

heparin 0.25-1 unit/mL

303
Q

neonates require ______ fluid in the first 48 hours of life (about 70-90mL/kg/day) *it is better for the lungs

A

decreased fluid

304
Q

over time, neonates will have _____ fluid needs from insensible losses associated with prematurity and phototherapy

A

increased

305
Q

a preterm infant requires ____mL/kg/day of water

A

75-120mL/kg/day

306
Q

a term infant requires ____mL/kg/day of water

A

60-120 mL/kg/day

307
Q

an infant over 1 month old or 3-10 kg requires _____mL/kg/day of water

A

100mL/kg/day

308
Q

how are total fluid needs calculated for neonatal TPN

A

Total fluid from calculation - fluid from drips - ILE volume- volume in feeds = volume left over for PN

309
Q

Example: a 25 week gestational male is admit to the NICU. his brith weight is 515 grams, head circumference 21.5 cm and length is 30 cm. He is at the 4th percentile weight, 17% percentile HC and 14% tile length. On the Fenton curve his z-score is - 1.7. On his first day your hospital gives 70mL/kg/day of fluids, what is his hourly rate?

A

515 grams / 1000 = kg - .515 kg

.515 x 70mL/day = 36mL of fluid in 24 hours = 36/24= 1.5mL/kg/day

310
Q

why do neonates usually have high ammonia and BUN when given PN

A

they have higher protein needs due to an immature urea cycle activity This is common)

311
Q

when is adding insulin considered in neonatal PN

A

when BG consistently >200mg/dL (response is variable)

312
Q

should insulin be added to PN in neonates

A

no you’ll have better control if given separately

313
Q

be careful when providing insulin to neonates as they are

A

very insulin sensitive

314
Q

premature neonates can be deficient in fatty acids within ___ days

A

3-7 days

315
Q

fatty acids are essential for neonates because t

A

they are essential for central nervous system development

316
Q

if ____ lipids are used for ILE they need to be given at a higher rate to meet essential fatty acid requirements

A

SMOF

317
Q

neonates can safely be at a GIR rate up to

A

14mg/kg/min

318
Q

Calculate the GIR of a patient getting 12g/kg/day of dextrose

A

GIR: a mg per kg per min
12 grams * 1000 mg = 12000mg
24 hrs , 1 hr= 60 min x 24 = 1440 min
12000/1440= 8.3 mg/kg/min

319
Q

how much sodium is required for preterm neonates in PN

A

2-5 meq/kg/day

320
Q

why do neonates require higher amounts of calcium and phos

A

bone growth

321
Q

___ and ____ are extremely important to prevent metabolic bone disease (they have lost out on bone mass accrual in their third trimester)

A

calcium and phos

322
Q

what is the optimal calcium to phos ratio to promote the greatest retain

A

2.6 to 1 mEq:mM or 1.7 to 1.0 mg:mg

323
Q

premature neonates may need a calcium to phosphorous ratio up to _____ especially if they were categorized as intrauterine growth restriction (they tend to reseed a little)

A

2:1 mEq/mM

324
Q

if a neonate is <2.5 kg how much PEDI trace is needed

A

2mL/kg/day

325
Q

if a neonate is greater than or equal to 2.5 kg how much PEDI trace is needed

A

5mL/day

326
Q

_____ is the precursor too glutathione. It acts as an antioxidant, allows for the reduction of methionine, and lowers pH to improve calcium and phos solubility

A

L-cysteine

327
Q

L-cystiene is not required unless

A

giving at least 4g/kg/day protein in PN

328
Q

how much carnitine is given in neonatal PN

A

5-10mg/kg/day

329
Q

_____ is added or given to neonates on PN to help better utilize triglycerides as it is required for transport of long chain fatty acids across the mitochondrial membrane for oxidation

A

Carnitine

330
Q

when is supplemental carnitine required for premature neonates on PN

A

<32-34 weeks gestational age

331
Q

_____ is added to neonatal PN to maintain catheter patency

A

heparin

332
Q

when are labs typically drawn in neonates when started on PN

A

after the first 24 hours of life

333
Q

a baby only has ____mL of blood/kg body weight

A

80 mL

334
Q

some electrolytes are naturally _____ in neonates especially potassium and phosphorous

A

higher

335
Q

what is the average potassium level in a neonate

A

4-6.2 Meq/L

336
Q

what is the average BUN in a neonate

A

4-15 mg/dL

337
Q

what is the average serum creatinine in a neonate

A

4-15 mg/dL

338
Q

what is the average phosphorous level in neonates

A

4.1-9 mmol/L

339
Q

what osmolarity is allowed In central PN

A

> 900mOsm/L

340
Q

pediatric patients can tolerate a slightly higher ___ in PN due to increased elasticity of their veins

A

osmolarity about 1,000 mOsm

341
Q

ILE in neonates is often y-site or piggy backed in order to

A

prevent phlebitis

342
Q

what factors affect calcium and phos solubility

A

amino acids (not enough)
calcium and phos concentration (if exceeds 55)
calcium salt form (gluconate is preferred over chloride)
pH: lower pH is more desirable
temperature; don’t let it get hot
order of mixing : ALWAYS ADD PHOS FIRST in pn and ALWAYS ADD CALCIUM LAST in pn

343
Q

what calcium salt form is preferred for mixing PN for optimal calcium-phosphorous solubility

A

calcium gluconate

344
Q

should pH be low or high to promote optimal calcium-phosphorous solubility

A

LOWER (can add L cysteine to lower_

345
Q

what can be added to PN to lower its pH for better ca-Phos solubility

A

L-cysteine amino acid

346
Q

when mixing PN _____ should always be added first and _____ should always be added last

A

PHOS FIRST

CALCIUM LAST

347
Q

on a calcium phosphorous curve does your calcium phos level want to be above or below the curve

A

BELOW THE CURVVE will decrease the risk of precipitation