Pediatrics Flashcards

1
Q

biliary atresia is complete _____ within the first 3 months of life

A

biliary atresia is complete obstruction of the lumen of the extrahepatic biliary tree within the first 3 months of life

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2
Q

in idiopathic neonatal hepatitis, there is ____ transformation, where some cells may show ____ and ____ degeneration

A

in idiopathic neonatal hepatitis, there is giant cell transformation, where some cells may show ballooning and acidophilic degeneration

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3
Q

“facial abnormalities, including Hutchinson teeth, saber shins”

dx?

A

Syphilis

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4
Q

patients with Wiskott Aldrich syndrome are at increased risk for which cancer?

A

lymphoma

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5
Q

describe a malformation

A

primary structural abnormality with poor formation of tissue d/t a localized error that occurs during development (intrinsically abnormal developmental process)

  • polydactyly
  • cleft lip
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6
Q

$$ “a child has epinephrine metabolites in lysosomes; what disease is this?”

A

Dubin-Johnson

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7
Q

in a patient with neuroblastoma, there are elevated blood levels of ____

and elevated urine levels of ____

A

in a patient with neuroblastoma, there are elevated blood levels of catecholamines

and elevated urine levels of catecholamine metabolites (VMA, HVA)

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8
Q

male CF patients are often infertile due to atrophy and fibrosis of the ___ and ____

A

male CF patients are often infertile due to atrophy and fibrosis of the vas deferens and epididymis

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9
Q

Klinefelter patients are prone to develop which 3 conditions?

A

breast cancer

extragonadal germ cell tumors

autoimmune diseases

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10
Q

40% of neuroblastomas arise in ____ whereas the remainder arise anywhere along ____

A

40% of neuroblastomas arise in the adrenal medulla whereas the remainder arise anywhere along the sympathetic chain

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11
Q

describe the manifestations of a congenital Rubella infection

A
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12
Q

diagnosis of neonatal necrotizing enterocolitis is by abdominal radiographs that show ____ and _____

A

diagnosis of neonatal necrotizing enterocolitis is by abdominal radiographs that show dilated loops of bowel and pneumatosis intestinalis (presence of air bubbles in wall of intestines)

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13
Q

Rotor syndrome is due to a defect in ____ with the bilirubin being absorbed ____

A

Rotor syndrome is due to a defect in the excretion of conjugated bilirubin into the biliary canaliculi with the bilirubin being absorbed into the blood

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14
Q

_____ is the most common cause of deformation

A

uterine constraint is the most common cause of deformation

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15
Q

galactosemia can progress to ____

A

galactosemia can progress to cirrhosis

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16
Q

describe a disruption

A

caused by secondary destruction of a previously normally formed part d/t an extrinsic disturbance

-amniotic bands

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17
Q

retinoblastoma can extend into ___ nerve and/or ____ space (___) with intracranial spread

A

retinoblastoma can extend into optic nerve and/or subarachnoid space (CSF) with intracranial spread

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18
Q

in respiratory distress syndrome, a typical x-ray image would show ____

A

in respiratory distress syndrome, a typical x-ray image would show ground glass alterations of the lung

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19
Q

describe 2 complications of oxygen therapy in neonates with RDS

A
  • retrolental fibroplasia = retinopathy of d/t O2 toxicity & VEGF
  • bronchopulmonary dysplasia = arrested development of alveolar septation at saccular stage of development → dysmorphic capillary configuration
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20
Q

____ is swelling of the infant’s scalp

A

caput succedaneum is swelling of the infant’s scalp

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21
Q

____ can be used to detect high levels of bilirubin

A

amniocentesis can be used to detect high levels of bilirubin

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22
Q

Down syndrome patients have a higher risk of ____ and ____

A

Down syndrome patients have a higher risk of ALL and Alzheimers

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23
Q

list the clinical features of Turner syndrome

A
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24
Q

nephroblastomas are associated with ____ syndrome, which is a deletion of ___ gene

A

nephroblastomas are associated with WAGR syndrome, which is a deletion of WT1 gene

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25
Q

in perinatal biliary atresia, there is ___ inflammation of intrahepatic bile ducts and progressive destruction of ____

A

in perinatal biliary atresia, there is periductal inflammation of intrahepatic bile ducts and progressive destruction of intrahepatic biliary tree

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26
Q

in perinatal biliary atresia, there is inflammation and ___ of the ___ and ___ bile ducts

A

in perinatal biliary atresia, there is inflammation and fibrosing stricture of the hepatic and common bile ducts

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27
Q

____ is the most common chromosomal disorder

A

Down syndrome (trisomy 21) is the most common chromosomal disorder

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28
Q

$$ how do infants contract Gonorrhea?

A

through the birth canal

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29
Q

$$ “baby born with Rubella; how did this spread?”

A

hematogenous dissemination from the placenta

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30
Q

describe the triphasic pattern of Wilm’s tumor

A

blastema = sheets of small round blue cells

stroma = fibrocytic or myxoid in nature, may have striated muscle

epithelium = abortive tubules and glomeruli

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31
Q

on histology of retinoblastoma, there are ____ which are clusters of cuboidal tumor cells arranged around a central lumen

A

on histology of retinoblastoma, there are Flexner-Wintersteiner rosettes (TRUE rosettes) which are clusters of cuboidal tumor cells arranged around a central lumen

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32
Q

pediatric patients with agammaglobulinemia are at increased risk for which cancer?

A

acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL)

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33
Q

a frequent complication of retinoblastoma is _____

A

a frequent complication of retinoblastoma is secondary glaucoma

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34
Q

____ are associated with Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome which is caused by a mutation of ____ gene

A

nephroblastomas are associated with Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome which is caused by a mutation of WT2 gene

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35
Q

list the early complications of neonatal necrotizing enterocolitis

A

sepsis

shock

acute tubular necrosis

DIC

intestinal perforation

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36
Q

PKU is caused by a ___ mutation in the ___ gene located on chr. ____

A

PKU is caused by a point mutation in the PAH gene located on chr. 12

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37
Q

in inherited retinoblastomas, patients have an increased susceptibility to which 3 other tumors?

A

osteosarcoma

Ewing sarcoma/PNET

pinealoblastoma

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38
Q

list the 2 cardiovascular malformations seen in Turner syndrome patients

A

coarctation of the aorta

bicuspid aortic valve

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39
Q

respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) occurs due to decreased ____

A

respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) occurs due to decreased surfactant

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40
Q

____ can mimic homeobox gene defects

A

valproic acid can mimic homeobox gene defects

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41
Q

idiopathic neonatal hepatitis excludes which 3 known associated factors?

A

A1AT def.

extrahepatic biliary atresia

infectious agents (HAV, HBV, HCV)

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42
Q

list the clinical features of Klinefelter syndrome

A
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43
Q

in long term survivors of neonatal intraventricular hemorrhage, there are cavitations or ___ surrounded by ____

A

in long-term survivors of neonatal intraventricular hemorrhage, there are cavitations or pseudocysts surrounded by hemosiderin-laden macrophages and gliosis

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44
Q

what are 2 clinical clues in a child that suggest cystic fibrosis?

A

nasal polyps

rectal prolapse

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45
Q

galactosemia is an autosomal (dominant or recessive?) condition where there is deficiency of ____

A

galactosemia is an autosomal recessive condition where there is deficiency of galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase (which catalyzes galactose → glucose)

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46
Q

recurrent pulmonary infections in CF can result in which 3 pulmonary conditions?

A

chronic bronchitis

bronchiectasis

lung abscesses

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47
Q

the 1-minute APGAR score determines ____

while

the 5-minute APGAR score assess _____

A

the 1-minute APGAR score determines how well the baby tolerated the birthing process

while

the 5-minute APGAR score assesses how well the newborn is adapting to the new environment

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48
Q

Down syndrome patients are at increased risk for which cancer?

A

acute leukemia

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49
Q

list poor prognostic indicators in neuroblastoma

A

poor prognostic indicators:

MYCN amplification

deletion distal 1p and gain of distal 17q

telomerase overexpression

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50
Q

PDA, cataracts, microcephaly and sensory neural deafness

dx?

A

Rubella

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51
Q

“encephalopathy, retinopathy, hydrocephalus”

dx?

A

Toxoplasmosis

52
Q

on microscopic examination of Dubin-Johnson syndrome, there is accumulation of coarse, iron free, ____ granules in ____ and ____ cells

A

on microscopic examination of Dubin-Johnson syndrome, there is accumulation of coarse, iron free, dark brown granules in hepatocytes and Kupffer cells

53
Q

the hyperphenylalaninemia seen in PKU interferes with ____ and inhibits _____

A

the hyperphenylalaninemia seen in PKU interferes with amino acid transport system in the brain and inhibits the synthesis of neurotransmitters

54
Q

a 13q deletion predisposes children to which cancer?

A

retinoblastoma

55
Q

nephroblastomas can be caused by mutations in ____ gene which accounts for 10% of the sporadic cases

A

nephroblastomas can be caused by mutations in B-catenin gene which accounts for 10% of the sporadic cases

56
Q

____ is seen in survivors of neonatal intraventricular hemorrhage

A

hydrocephalus is seen in survivors of neonatal intraventricular hemorrhage

57
Q

_____ has a strong influence on the incidence of Down syndrome

A

maternal age has a strong influence on the incidence of Down syndrome

58
Q

kernicterus occurs when high levels of ___ bind to and injury _____

A

kernicterus occurs when high levels of unconjugated bilirubin bind to and injury the immature neurons of the CNS

59
Q

on electron microscopy in Dubin-Johnson syndrome, there is pigmented in ____ and is composed of polymers of ____

A

on electron microscopy in Dubin-Johnson syndrome, there is pigmented in lysosomes and is composed of polymers of epinephrine metabolites, not bilirubin pigment

60
Q

microscopic examination of the bowel in neonatal necrotizing enterocolitis would show ____

A

microscopic examination of the bowel in neonatal necrotizing enterocolitis would show mucosal coagulative necrosis extending into and often through the submucosa and muscular layers

61
Q

list the delayed complications of neonatal necrotizing enterocolitis

A

short gut syndrome

malabsorption

strictures

62
Q

how does SIDS affect the lungs?

A

congestion +/- pulmonary edema

63
Q

describe fetal infections acquired via the hematogenous route

A
64
Q

in neonatal intraventricular hemorrhage, there is rapid death if there is massive hemorrhage with tears of ____

A

in neonatal intraventricular hemorrhage, there is rapid death if there is massive hemorrhage with tears of falx cerebri or tentorium

65
Q

neuroblastoma is a poorly differentiated tumor arising from primitive ____ that normally give rise to the ____ and ____

A

neuroblastoma is a poorly differentiated tumor arising from primitive neural crest cells that normally give rise to the adrenal medulla and sympathetic ganglia

66
Q

describe the triple-risk model for SIDS

A
  1. vulnerable infant (has a RF)
  2. critical development period in hemostatic control (arousal and cardiorespiratory)
  3. one or more exogenous stressors (hypercarbia/hypoxia/thermal stress)
67
Q

nephroblastoma is a malignant embryonal neoplasm derived from ____

A

nephroblastoma is a malignant embryonal neoplasm derived from nephrogenic blastemal cells

68
Q

in SIDS, there is hypoplasia of ____ along with decrease in _____ in some cases

A

in SIDS, there is hypoplasia of arcuate nucleus in the brain stem along with decrease in brain stem neuronal populations in some cases

69
Q

list common presentations of Wilm’s tumor

A

abdominal pain

hematuria

HTN

acute abdominal crisis secondary to traumatic rupture

70
Q

describe ascending infections that affect the fetus

A
71
Q

neuroblastoma stains positively for ___ and ____

A

neuroblastoma stains positively for neuron-specific enolase and synaptophysin

72
Q

there is elevated ____ bilirubin during the first week of life

A

there is elevated unconjugated bilirubin during the first week of life

73
Q

Dubin-Johnson syndrome is characterized by defective ____ from ___ to ____

A

Dubin-Johnson syndrome is characterized by defective transport of conjugated bilirubin from hepatocytes to canalicular lumen

74
Q

describe a sequence

A

multiple congenital anomalies that result from secondary effects of a single localized aberration in organogenesis

ex: Potter sequence (oligohydramnios sequence)

75
Q

cystic fibrosis is caused by a mutation in ___ on chr. ____

A

cystic fibrosis is caused by a mutation in CFTR on chr. 7

76
Q

embryonic/fetal type of biliary atresia is due to aberrant _____

perinatal type of biliary atresia is due to _____

A

embryonic/fetal type of biliary atresia is due to aberrant intrauterine development of the extrahepatic biliary tree

perinatal type of biliary atresia is due to normally developed biliary tress that is destroyed following birth (viral induced injury to biliary epi.)

77
Q

most pediatric tumors have a ____ appearance since they are of ____ origin

A

most pediatric tumors have a “small, round blue cells” appearance since they are of embryonal origin

78
Q

retinoblastomas can invade ___ especially the highly vascular ____ with subsequent ____ metastases

A

retinoblastomas can invade blood vessels especially the highly vascular choroid with subsequent hematogenous metastases

79
Q

describe the pattern of metastasis of Wilm’s tumor

A

“3 L’s”

-regional LNs

-lungs

-liver

80
Q

nephroblastomas are associated with ____ which is a dominant, negative inactivating mutation of ____

A

nephroblastomas are associated with Denys-Drash syndrome which is a dominant, negative inactivating mutation of WT1

81
Q

describe the 2 phases of physiological jaundice

A
  • phase I = lasts 5 days in term infants and 7 days in preterm infants
    • serum bilirubin level may reach 12-15 mg/dl
  • phase II = decline of serum bilirubin levels, lasts for 2 weeks
    • after this, normal adults values are reached
82
Q

____ is caused by disseminated neuroblastoma (multiple cutaneous metastasis with deep blue discoloration of the skin)

A

blueberry muffin baby is caused by disseminated neuroblastoma (multiple cutaneous metastasis with deep blue discoloration of the skin)

83
Q

$$ “baby with necrotizing enterocolitis; what is a risk factor for this?”

A

low birth weight of baby

84
Q

list the top cause of death for children 1-14

A

accidents

85
Q

list risk factors for respiratory distress syndrome

A
  • prematurity
  • perinatal asphyxia
  • maternal diabetes
  • Cesarean section before onset of labor
  • twin gestation
  • male sex
86
Q

Crigler-Najjar type II disease is characterized by ____ of UDP-glucuronosyltransferase activity and can be treated with ____

A

Crigler-Najjar type II disease is characterized by partial decrease of UDP-glucuronosyltransferase activity and can be treated with phenobarbital

87
Q

list methods to prevent respiratory distress syndrome

A
88
Q

phenylketonuria is characterized by progressive ___ caused by a deficiency of the hepatic enzyme ____

A

phenylketonuria is characterized by progressive mental retardation caused by a deficiency of the hepatic enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase

89
Q

homeobox gene defect causes ___, ___ and ____ abnormalities

A

homeobox gene defect causes limb, vertebral and craniofacial abnormalities

90
Q

a defect in Sonic Hedgehog Gene (SHH) causes ____

A

a defect in Sonic Hedgehog Gene (SHH) causes holoprosencephaly

91
Q

erythroblastosis fetalis is ___-induced hemolytic disease in the newborn that is caused by ____

A

erythroblastosis fetalis is antibody-induced hemolytic disease in the newborn that is caused by blood group incompatibility between mother and fetus

92
Q

Crigler-Najjar type I disease is characterized by ____ of UDP-glucuronosyltransferase activity

A

Crigler-Najjar type I disease is characterized by complete absence of UDP-glucuronosyltransferase activity

93
Q

the embryonic/fetal type of biliary atresia is associated with congenital anomalies such as ____ and ____

A

the embryonic/fetal type of biliary atresia is associated with congenital anomalies such as malrotation of abdominal viscera and congenital heart disease

94
Q

list 3 methods to prevent bronchopulmonary dysplasia

A

gentler ventilation

glucocorticoids

prophylactic surfactant

95
Q

x-ray or CT of the abdomen in a patient with neuroblastoma would show ____

A

x-ray or CT of the abdomen in a patient with neuroblastoma would show calcification

96
Q

____ amplification in neuroblastoma has a poor prognosis

A

MYCN amplification in neuroblastoma has a poor prognosis

97
Q

____ is the most commonly fractured bone during labor

A

the clavicle is the most commonly fractured bone during labor

98
Q

a germline mutation in ____ gene causes a familial predisposition to neuroblastoma

A

a germline mutation in ALK gene causes a familial predisposition to neuroblastoma

99
Q

in neonatal intraventricular hemorrhage, there is bleeding into ____

A

in neonatal intraventricular hemorrhage, there is bleeding into the germinal matrix with extension into ventricles and beyond

germinal matrix = source of nerve cells in embryo and fetus (up to 33 weeks of gestation)

100
Q

why do children generally have a better prognosis than adults when it comes to cancers? (2 reasons)

A

difference in tumor type between children and adults

increased ability of children to tolerate therapy

101
Q

in galactosemia, infants that are fed milk rapidly develop vomiting and diarrhea, then ____, ____ and ____

A

in galactosemia, infants that are fed milk rapidly develop vomiting and diarrhea, then hepatosplenomegaly, jaundice and hypoglycemia

102
Q

____ is the most common cause of hypogonadism in males

A

Klinefelter syndrome is the most common cause of hypogonadism in males

103
Q

Turner syndrome occurs due to partial or complete ____

A

Turner syndrome occurs due to partial or complete monosomy of genes on the short arm of the X chromosome

104
Q

there is a ____ odor associated with PKU

A

there is a mousy/musty odor associated with PKU

105
Q

list the top cause of deaths for children under 1 year

A

congenital malformation, deformations, chromosomal abnormalities

106
Q

environmental risk factors for SIDS is ____ sleep position; name 3 other RFs

A

environmental risk factors for SIDS is prone sleep position

  • hyperthermia
  • sleeping with parents when < 3 months
  • sleeping on a soft surface
107
Q

in erythroblastosis fetalis, ____ reach maternal circulation in last trimester or during childbirth, where there is sensitization of mother foreign antigens and subsequent development of ____

A

in erythroblastosis fetalis, fetal RBCs reach maternal circulation in last trimester or during childbirth, where there is sensitization of mother foreign antigens and subsequent development of antibodies that can freely traverse the placenta to the fetus and cause hemolysis

108
Q

Dubin-Johnson syndrome is an autosomal (dominant or recessive?) disorder characterized by chronic or intermittent jaundice and accompanied by a _____

A

Dubin-Johnson syndrome is an autosomal recessive disorder characterized by chronic or intermittent jaundice and accompanied by a black liver

109
Q

___ causes CNS, cardiac and craniofacial abnormalities including cleft lip and palate

A

retinoic acid (for acne) causes CNS, cardiac and craniofacial abnormalities including cleft lip and palate

110
Q

a complication of galactosemia is ___ and ____

A

a complication of galactosemia is cataracts and mental retardation

111
Q

describe the correlation between APGAR score and mortality during the first 28 days

A
112
Q

in neuroblastoma, increased expression of ____ indicates good prognosis

A

in neuroblastoma, increased expression of tyrosine kinase receptor A (Trk-A, neurotrophin receptor) indicates good prognosis

113
Q

in CF patients, ____ occurs due to impaction of ___ in the terminal ileus with subsequent risk of perforation and peritonitis

A

in CF patients, meconium ileus occurs due to impaction of meconium in the terminal ileus with subsequent risk of perforation and peritonitis

114
Q

describe 22q11.2 deletion syndrome

A
115
Q

list predisposing factors for neonatal necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC)

A

intestinal ischemia

bacterial colonization of the gut

administration of formula feeds

116
Q

retinoic acid interferes with ____ pathway which is involved in ____

A

retinoic acid interferes with TGFB signaling pathway which is involved in palatogenesis

117
Q

describe the presentation of retinoblastoma

A

white pupil = leukocoria

squint = strabismus

poor vision

spontaneous hyphema = hemorrhage into the anterior portion of the eye

118
Q

neuroblastoma can metastasize early, with spread to:

A

bone

lymph nodes

liver

BM

subcutaneous tissue

119
Q

in SIDS, multiple ____ are seen in which 3 locations?

A

in SIDS, multiple petechiae are seen in:

thymus

visceral/parietal pleura

epicardium

120
Q

describe the clinical features in Down syndrome

A
121
Q

on histology of neuroblastoma, there are ____ which are tumor cells that are concentrically arranged about a central space filled with neuropil (no lumen)

A

on histology of neuroblastoma, there are Homer-Wright pseudorosettes which are tumor cells that are concentrically arranged about a central space filled with neuropil (no lumen)

122
Q

deficiency of phenylalanine hydroxylase results in ____ and formation of ____; of the 2 ____ causes irreversible brain damage

A

deficiency of phenylalanine hydroxylase results in hyperphenylalaninemia and formation of phenylketones; of the 2 hyperphenylalaninemia causes irreversible brain damage

123
Q

describe deformation

name maternal and fetal examples

A

localized or generalized compression of the growing fetus by abnormal biomechanical forces

124
Q

in Dubin-Johnson syndrome, there is an associated defect in hepatic excretion of ____

A

in Dubin-Johnson syndrome, there is an associated defect in hepatic excretion of coproporphyrins

125
Q

the most common cause of unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia in neonates is ____

A

the most common cause of unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia in neonates is fetomaternal blood group incompatibility (hemolytic disease of newborn)

126
Q

a risk factor for SIDS in an infant is ___ abnormality associated with defective ____/____ control

A

a risk factor for SIDS in an infant is brainstem abnormality associated with defective arousal/cardiopulmonary control

127
Q

neonatal necrotizing enterocolitis commonly affects which 3 areas?

A

terminal ileum

cecum

right colon