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ANCC study questions > Pediatrics > Flashcards

Pediatrics Flashcards

1
Q

What BMI percentile is a child in if they are considered obese?

A

95 % or >

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2
Q

What BMI percentile is a child in if they are considered overweight?

A

85 to 95%

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3
Q

What BMI percentile is a child in if they are considered healthy?

A

5th to 85%

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4
Q

What BMI percent is a child in if they are considered underweight?

A

< 5th %

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5
Q

What are the typical puberty ages for girl & boys?

A

Girls 10.5 years
Boys 11.5 years

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6
Q

What age for girls & boys is considered precocious puberty?

A

Girls before age 8
Boys before age 9

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7
Q

What Tanner stage is a pt. in if there is no enlargement of male genitalia with thin, short, & sparse pubic hair?

A

Stage 1

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8
Q

What Tanner stage is a child in if there is sparse, long, straight/slightly curled, or pigmented pubic hair in males? At this stage the genitalia has begun to enlarge & the scrotum is reddened and has begun to change in texture?

A

Stage 2

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9
Q

What Tanner stage is a child in when pubic hair becomes more densely distributed? At this stage the genitalia continues to enlarge, penis lengthens, and scrotal skin darkens.

A

Stage 4

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10
Q

What Tanner stage is a child in when pubic hair becomes more coarse, dark, & curly. At this stage the genitalia has grown in size.

A

Stage 3

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11
Q

At his age an infant/child is expected to sit up without support, pull themselves to a standing position, & transfer items between hands. They can also locate objects from hidden view, wave bye, bye, claps, plays peek a boo, raises arms to be picked up, & says mama, dada.

A

9 months

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12
Q

At this age an infant/child begins to follow things with eyes, able to hold hands close to face & observe it, & is expected to roll to their side?

A

3 months

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13
Q

At this age an infant/child recognizes self in mirror, uses sippy cup, uses pincer grasp, stands/walks independently, crawls up & down stairs says 1 to 2 words, follows simple commands, & is able to lift items to find a toy.

A

12 months

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14
Q

At this age an infant/ child is expected to turn their head while in supine position, able to briefly fixate on mothers face, & may be cross eyed d/t inability to coordinate eye movements?

A

1 month

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15
Q

At this stage an infant/child is able to follow objects past midline, coos, lift head at 45 degrees when prone, & develops social smile?

A

2 months

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16
Q

At this stage an infant/child smiles spontaneously & laughs responsively, begins to babble, tuns head to a voice, rolls from stomach to back, & holds head steady without support.

A

4 months

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17
Q

At this stage an infant/child sees things in 3 dimensions & has fully developed color vision.

A

5 months

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18
Q

At this stage an infant/child makes good eye contact, turns head 180 degrees, turns head in response to name, reaches for objects to bring things to mouth, passes items from one hand to another, sits up independently with occasional tripoding, babbles, & starts stranger anxiety.

A

6 months

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19
Q

At this stage an infant/child can feed self with spoon & speaks 4 to 6 words

A

15 months

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20
Q

At this stage an infant/child is 1st able to walk backwards, can throw small ball, walks up steps, makes a tower of 4 cubes, speaks 10 to 20 words (at least 2 body parts), can help undress self, & pretends to feed doll.

A

18 months (1 year, 6 months)

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21
Q

At this age an infant/child can run, climb up & down stairs, jump up & down, stand on tiptoe, kick or throw ball overhead, uses 2 word sentences, follow 2-3 step instructions, name 5 body parts, & paralle play.

A

24 months (2 years)

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22
Q

At this stage an infant/child can ride tricycle, broad jump/jump forward, stand on 1 foot, copies circle, build tower of 6 blocks, goes to bathroom by self, uses imaginative play, and 3 word sentences.

A

3 years

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23
Q

At this stage an infant/child can ride bicycle, hops, copies a cross/ square, draws 2-3 body parts, use pair of rounded scissors, catch a ball tossed at them, role plays (social interaction), engages in cooperational play, & names 4 colors & numbers.

A

4 years

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24
Q

At this stage an infant/child can copy a triangel & square, counts on fingers, draws a person with 4-6 body parts, dress & undress self, & is aware of gender.

A

5 years

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25
Q

At this stage an infant/child is able to copy a triangle, ties their own shoes, & skips

A

6 years

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26
Q

At this Tanner stage in females breast are underdeveloped & hair is villus.

A

Stage 1

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27
Q

At this Tanner stage in females she has bilateral breast buds, areola begins to develop, & she has some straight pubic hair.

A

Stage 2

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28
Q

At this Tanner stage in females there is enlargement & elevation of the breast, there is no separation of the areola (one mound), & pubic hair becomes darker, coarse, & curly.

A

Stage 3

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29
Q

At this Tanner stage in females the breast begins to project creating a second mound & pubic hair is of adult quality

A

Stage 4

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30
Q

At this Tanner stage in females breast development presents with projection of the nipple only

A

Stage 5

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31
Q

Assessment of the following symptoms is an example of what type of questionnaire?
1) feeling nervous, anxious, or on edge
2) inability to stop / controlling worry
3) worrying too much about different things
4) trouble relaxing
5) inability to sit still, being restless
6) easily annoyed/ irritable
7) feeling afraid, fear that something awful
may happen

A

GAD 7 assess severity of generalized anxiety disorder

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32
Q

What tool is used to help diagnose anorexia nervosa?

A

SCOFF questionnaire
S=sick
C= control
O= one stone (loss of 14 lbs or more)
F=fat
F= food

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33
Q

Name 10 risk factors for breast cancer in adult women?

A

1) Race (Eastern decent)
2) Weight (BMI > 30)
3) Increased tissue density
4) Age (> 70)
5) High estrogen levels (before & after
menopause)
6) Use of hormone replacement
7) High insulin
8) Age at 1st full term pregnancy (age> 35)
9) Increased bone mineral density
10) Tall stature ( (> 69 inches)

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34
Q

1st degree relative, autoimmune thyroiditis, Dm type 1, juvenile chronic arthritis, & gluten exposure timing in infancy are risk factors for which dz?

A

Celiac disease

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35
Q

What 3 genetic conditions are associated with Celiac dz?

A

Turner, Williams, & Down’s syndrome

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36
Q

What are 4 clinical presentations that are associated with Celiac disease?

A

Abd. distention, diarrhea, steatorrhea (fatty stools), nutritional deficiencies, & wt. loss

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37
Q

The following requires increased screening for which virus regardless of their vaccination status?
1) Born to a mother with this virus
2) Persons born in countries with high
prevalence to this virus (e.g., Africa,
Mongolia, & China)
3) Organ, tissue, blood, or semen donors
4) Pregnant women

A

Hepatitis B virus screening

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38
Q

Adolescents presenting with fatigue, syncope, chest pain, dyspnea, or lightheadedness should always be screened for what condition? How often should it be done?

A

Sudden cardiac death
Should be done throughout childhood

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39
Q

What are 4 specific screening recommendations for autism spectrum disorder (ASD) between 18 - 24 months?

A

1) Delayed developmental milestones
2) Underdeveloped language skills
3) Having a sibling with ASD
4) Caregiver conserns

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40
Q

Deficits in social/language skills, avoiding eye contact, sensitivity to routine changes, repetitive movements (hand flapping, spinning), & challenges in emotional understanding are all red flags for what condition?

A

Autism Spectrum Disorder

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41
Q

The American Academy of Pediatrics “Bright Futures” created a tool to screen for alcohol/substance abuse in adolescents. What is the name of the tool?

A

CRAAFT (Care, relax, alone, forget, friends, trouble) tool

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42
Q

What are 5 core aspects to assess in a caregiver of an ill pt?

A

1) Availability
2) Competency
3) Family dynamics
4) Financial situation
5) Willness

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43
Q

Name 7 risk factors for development of Type 2 diabetes.

A

1) Prediabetes
2) Sedentary lifestyle
3) Non alcoholic fatty liver dz
4) Obesity
5) Family history
6) Age =/ > 45
7) African American race

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44
Q

How much folic acid should women of childbearing age take daily?

A

400 to 800/ 0.4 to 0.8 mg a day

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45
Q

Name 5 foods high in folic acid

A

1) Dark green leafy veg
2) Beans, peanuts, sunflower seeds
3) Fresh fruits & juices
4) Whole grains
5) Liver & seafood

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46
Q

Name 5 strategies to assist a pt. with smoking cessation.

A

1) Advise pt. to quit
2) Offer counseling
3) Prescribe cessation medication PRN
4) Connect pt.’s to additional cessation
resources
5) Follow up to offer ongoing support &
prevent relapses

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47
Q

What 2 barriers can restrict the NP’s full potential in health promotion, preventive care, & acute care services?

A

1) Licensure laws
2) Scope of practice policies

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48
Q

What does the NP ask the pt. to do to assess the vagus nerve if he/she has a c/o neck pain & tingling?

A

Assess cranial nerve X by asking the pt to say “aaaah”, observe for symmetrical lifting of the soft palate & uvula

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49
Q

What physical findings (9) are concerning in a pt. with chronic kidney dz (CKD) with a history of DM type 2 & HTN reporting increasing fatigue?

A

Later stages of CKD (stage 4/5 with gfr < 29) includes:
1) Excoriation from pruritus
2) N&V
3) Anorexia
4) Fatigue/weakness
5) Sleep disturbances
6) Oliguria
7) peripheral edema
8) SOB
9) Uncontrolled HTN

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50
Q

What 4 imaging studies should the NP order for CKD?

A

1) Renal US
2) Renal US doppler
3) CT
4) Voiding cystourethrography

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51
Q

What 4 labs should be checked for erectile dysfunction?

A

Glucose, TSH, PSA, & lipid profile

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52
Q

What are 4 types of Obstructive lung dz

A

Asthma, bronchiectasis, COPD, Emphysema

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53
Q

What is the normal level of creatinine & what happens to the renal function when creatinine goes up?

A

Normal is below 1
as creatinine goes up, renal function goes down

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54
Q

What 3 things can cause high levels of creatinine?

A

Dehydration, increased protein intake, & creatinine supplements

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55
Q

Creatinine clearance indicates how well the kidneys are working. What 3 things does it test for?

A

proteinuria, albuminuria, & microalbuminuria,

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56
Q

As creatinine clearance increases what does the renal function do (go up or down)?

A

It also goes up

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57
Q

What are 3 factors affecting serum creatinine?

A

age, gender, & muscle mass

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58
Q

eGFR evaluates for kidney Dz & stage.It measures the kidneys ability to eliminate toxins & waste from the blood. What is NML eGFR? What is low eGFR?

A

NML is > 90
Low is < 15 (Stage 5)

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59
Q

What is the normal BUN?

A

6 to 24

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60
Q

What is normal BUN to Creatinine Ratio?

A

10:1 to 20:1

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61
Q

Symptomatic complicated UTI (leukocytosis, fever, chills, malaise) is tx with? What if sulfa allergy?

A

Ciprofloxacin (Cipro), Norfloxacin, or Suprex

Sulfa allergy: Cipro, Keflex, or Cefclor

62
Q

What are 8 UTI risk factors?

A

Female, pregnancy, h/o recent UTI/Infections, Diabetes, immunocompromised, Failure to void post intercourse, spermicide use, dehydration, & poor hygiene.

63
Q

Asymptomatic (uncomplicated) UTI is treated with which antibiotic? Which antibiotic is used if allergic to sulfa?

A

Trimethoprim sulfametoxazole (Bactrim)
Sulfa allergy- Nitrofurantoin (Macrobid)
Fosfomycin
Augmentin

64
Q

What is the diagnoses of this type of kidney infection that includes symptoms of flank pain (costovatebral tenderness) with shift to the left? What is the tx?

A

Acute pylenephritis
Tx: Mild- Cipro, Levoquin, Ceftriaxone, or
augmentin
Mod to severe/ immunocompromised:
Hospitalization

65
Q

What are the 4 types of kidney stones (nephrolithiasis)? Which is the most common?

A

Calcium oxilate (most common), struvite, uric acid, & cystine.

66
Q

Name some foods high in calcium oxalate (8)?

A

Beans, spinach, potatoes, rhubarb, meat, beats, chocolate, & nuts

67
Q

How many doses of HPV does a pt get if under age 15?

A

2 doses 1st at birth, 2nd at 6 to 12 months

68
Q

How many doses of HPV does a pt. get if older than 15?

A

3 doses Give 1st dose then 2nd 2 months later, & 3rd 6 months after that

69
Q

What is the order for the “step up” tx for asthma?

A

1) low dose ICS/LABA combination
budesonide/formoterol (Symbacort) PRN
2) Change budesonide/formoterol to BID
3) Med to high budesonide/formoterol BID + q
4 hrs PRN
4) Med to high budesonide/formoterol BID +
prednisone q day x 7 days
5) Refer to pulmonology

70
Q

Insulin glargine (Lantus) is a ________insulin given how many times a day?

A

Basal, daily

71
Q

Insulin lispro (Humalog) is a _________insulin and given how many times a day?

A

Rapid acting, before meals

72
Q

Detemir (Levemir) is a ______ insulin given how may times a day?

A

Basal sliding scale TID PRN

73
Q

What type of cells produce insulin & where are they located?

A

Beta cells, located in pancrease

74
Q

Which diabetic medication is preferred for pt.’s needing to loose wt, but have CV dz?

A

Liraglutide (Saxenda) a GLP1

75
Q

What medication is an example of biguanide for diabetes?

A

Metformin glucophage

76
Q

Glyburide, glucotrol, amaryl, diabines, are 3 examples of what class diabetic medication?

A

Sulfonylureas

77
Q

Diabetic meds that end in”zone” are which class drugs?

A

TZD

78
Q

Diabetic meds that end in “Liptin) are which class drugs?

A

DPP-4 inhibitors

79
Q

Diabetic meds that end in “nide” are which class drug?

A

Meglitinides

80
Q

Diabetic meds that end in “zin” are which type of drug?

A

SGLT 2

81
Q

Diabetic meds that end in “tide” are which type of drug?

A

GLP 1 agonistis

82
Q

What 3 medications are indicated for a pt with acute viral rhinosinusitis presenting with sinus congestion, facial pain, green nasal discharge, transverse nasal crease, bad breath, ear pressure, and low grade temp?

A

1) Analgesics/ Antipyretics (acetaminophen,
ibuprofen)
2) Oral decongestant e.g., pseudoephedrine
(sudafed)
3) Intranasal steroid (flonase)

83
Q

Rhinosinusitis that progresses after 7 to 10 days with maxillary pain, purulent nasal drainage, maxillary or tooth pain is treated with what 1st line medication? What 2 antibiotic can be used if allergic to PCN?

A

Amoxicillin Clavulante (Augmentin)
PCN allergy: Doxycycline or 3rd gen cephalosporin (cefdinir, cefixime, cefazidime)

84
Q

Identify the following stages of HTN
1) 130 -139/ 80 - 89
2) < 120/ <80
3) >/= 140/ >/= 90
4) 120 -129/ <80

A

1) Stage 1
2) Normal
3) Stage 2
4) Elevated

85
Q

What are 4 1st line BP medications ?

A

Ace, ARBs, CCBs, & Thiazide diuretics

86
Q

Name 3 medications to treat chronic pain in fibromyalgia.

A

1) pregabalin (Lyrica)
2) Duloxetine (Cymbalta)
3) Milnacipran (Savella)

87
Q

What is the step wise approach to COPD?

A

SABA (Albuterol, atrovent)
+ LAMA Tiotropium Bromide (Spiriva)
+ LABA (Salmeterol, formoterol)
+ Corticosteroid (prednisone)

88
Q

A pt. with a T score of -2.5 and FRAX 10 years hip fracture risk of 3.4% requires which medication class & one example?

A

Biophosphonates
Alendronate (Fosamax)

89
Q

What are 2 supplements that are used in osteoporosis?

A

Calcium & Vit D

90
Q

A T score between -1 & - 2.5 indicates what disorder?

A

Osteopenia

91
Q

A T score < -2.5 indicates what disorder?

A

Osteoporosis

92
Q

Diagnosis of this pt with 3 day h/o progressive cough with sputum production, 101 temp, sat 95%, rhonchi, dullness to percussion with the following CXR revealing consolidation/ infiltrates? What are 2 common pathogens? And what is the 1st line ABT?

A

Community acquired pneumonia
Pathogens: Strep pneumoniae & H. influenzae
Tx: Amoxicillin

93
Q

What type of study would participants be assigned to control groups by chance?

A

Randomized clinical trial

94
Q

This type of study compares groups of persons without disease to a group of persons who do have the disease?

A

Case control study

95
Q

This study uses a quantitative method that summarizes & synthesizes results of independent studies to reach conclusions?

A

Meta analysis

96
Q

This type of study places participants in categories according to their risk factors then studied

A

Cohort studies

97
Q

What stage pressure ulcer is this?

A

Stage 2 Partial thickness dermis loss, shallow open ulcer, with pink wound bed

98
Q

What is the diagnosis & how is it treated?

A

Oropharyngeal candidiasis (Thrush)
Caused by Candida albicans
Tx: topical antifungals

99
Q

What is the diagnosis & how is it treated?

A

Herpes zoster (Shingles)
Caused by reactivation of the varicella zoster
virus
Tx: Oral antivirals (acyclovir)

100
Q

What stage wound is this?

A

Stage 4 pressure ulcer
Full thickness tissue loss, slough/eschar with exposed tendon, bone, or muscle. Often includes tunneling.

101
Q

What is this condition?

A

Psoriasis
It is an immune mediated chronic
inflammatory dz involving T lymphocytes &
dendritic cells.
Characterized by abn. patches of skin that are
red, dry, pruritic, & scaly

102
Q

What is the diagnosis & how is it treated?

A

Tinea pedis (athlete’s foot)
Caused by dermatophyte fungal infection,
characterized by hyperkeratosis with/
without erythema
Tx: topical antifunagls terbinafine (Lamisil)

103
Q

Identify this skin condition & treatment

A

Contact dermatitis
Presents as mild redness at the location or
irritant contact to erythema, edema, &
vesicular lesions.
Tx: Removal of irritants
Topical steroids
Topical emollients/moisturizers

104
Q

Identify this skin condition & tx

A

Acne vulgaris
Presents with multiple lesions, including closed
comedones, open comedones, pustules,
nodules, & papules.
Tx: varies

105
Q

Identify this skin condition

A

Actinic Keratosis
Presents as scaley red macule, papule, or
plaque.
Considered “precancerous” lesions that may progress to squamous cell carcinoma.

106
Q

Identify this skin condition & tx

A

Cellulitis
A soft tissue infection characterized by skin
erythema, edema, & warmth.
Caused by beta-hemolytic streptococci.
Tx: Empiric antibiotics

107
Q

Identify this skin condition & tx

A

Pityriasis rosea
Characterized by “Christmas tree” pattern that
starts with a herald patch & smaller oval
macules.
Tx: antihistamines or topical steroids

108
Q

Identify this skin condition & treatment.
Appears as greasy, yellowish scales in areas that are rich in sebaceous glands commonly on the scalp.

A

Seborrheic dermatitis (Cradle cap)
Often occurs in infants 3 to 12 months &
resolves spontaneously.
Tx: emollients with gentle removal of scales with soft brush/ fine tooth comb.

109
Q

Identify this skin disorder
Lesions appear as a scaly patch/plaque often
associated with erythema.

A

Squamous Cell Carcinoma

110
Q

Identify this skin disorder & tx.
It is characterized by 4 P’s (purple, polygonal
papules, plaques, & pruritic) caused by
immune mediated activated T cell
response

A

Lichen planus
Tx: topical steroids

111
Q

Identify this skin condition & tx
Appears as non-pruritic macular or maculo-
papular rash that starts 3-5 days after high
fever. Rash starts on the neck & trunk, then
spreads to the extremities.

A

Roseola infantum (6th dz)
Tx: supportive

112
Q

This appears as erythematous papules, often
with excoriation from intense pruritis that is
transmitted through direct, prolonged skin-
to-skin contact. Burrows may/may not be
visible. How is it treated?

A

Scabies
Tx: Topical permethrin or oral ivermectin

113
Q

This is characterized by skin lesion associated with Lyme Dz. It has expanding erythematous lesion that is often oval or circular shape “bull’s eye lesion”. How is it tx’d?

A

Erythema migrans
Tx: Doxycycline, amoxicillin, or cefuroxime

114
Q

This inflammatory condition is characterized by erythematous patches in skin folds that “weeps” & often pruritic. What is the tx?

A

Intertrigo
Tx: Topical antifungals or barrier cream

115
Q

What is the cause of this skin condition? It appears as erythematous macular & papular eruptions referred to as “exanthematous eruption” How is it treated?

A

Drug eruption
Tx: Dc the drug, give antihistamines

116
Q

This condition presents as “slapped face”
appearance with erythema on both cheeks
progressing to a reticulated rash on the
trunk & extremities after a few days. It is
characterized by fever, HA, & nausea.
What causes it? How is it treated?

A

Erythema infectiosum (5ths dz)
Human parvovirus
Tx: supportive (acetaminophen/ ibuprofen)

117
Q

This is a benign skin condition characterized by papules of the cheeks & nose of infants

A

Milia

118
Q

This skin condition appears as erythematous plaques with papules occuring in moist areas (skin folds, under diaper in infants). Caused by Candida albicans. What is the tx?

A

Cutaneous candidiasis
Tx: Topical skin barrier, low potency topical
steroid or antifungal.

119
Q

This is characterized by hyperpigmented “velvety” appearing plaques typically found on the neck & axillae.

A

Acanthosis Nigricans

120
Q

This is a skin infection spread by direct skin-to-
skin contact characterized by shiny, firm
papules with central indentation.
What is the cause & how is it treated (4)?

A

Molluscum contagiosum
Poxvirus
Tx: self limiting, cryotherapy, curettage, &
cantharidine

121
Q

This type of burn extends through the epidermis & dermis. It extends into surrounding tissue, muscle, & possibly bone.

A

Full thickness (4th degree) burn

122
Q

This is a pruritic erythematous rash with papules, intense pruritis commonly found on flexor surfaces, face, hands, & feet. Often associated with atopy disorders (asthma/allergic rhinitis). What is the treatment?

A

Atopic dermatitis (eczema)
Tx: emollients & topical steroids

123
Q

This is characterized by pruritic, erythematous papules caused by 2 species (Cimex lectularius, Cimex hemipterus). What is the tx?

A

Bedbugs
Tx: Topical steroids, antihistamines

124
Q

These are flesh colored papules often with hyperkeratosis that is transmitted by direct skin-to-skin contact. What causes it & ow is it tx’d?

A

Verruca vulgaris
Human papillomavirus (HPV)
Tx: Topical salicylic acid, cryotherapy

125
Q

This skin condition appears asymmetrical, irregular borders, variation in color, diameter > 6 mm, & changes in evolution?

A

Melanoma

126
Q

This skin condition is caused by dermatophyte fungal infection that appears circular or oval, erythematous scaling patch, or plaque followed by central clearing with raised boarder. How is it tx?

A

Tinea corporis
Tx: terbinafine (Lamisil)

127
Q

This is an infection of the nail bed caused by staphylococcus aureus or streptococcus pyogenes. It is characterized by erythema & possible purulent fluid collection under the nail. How is it tx?

A

Paronychia
Tx: I&D, topical or oral antibiotics

128
Q

Appears as painful, unilateral vesicular rash distributed on a dermatome caused by the varicella zoster virus. What is the tx?

A

Herpes zoster (shingles)
Tx: Oral antivirals (acyclovir)

129
Q

This is characterized by redness on the central face, typically the nose & cheeks. May have papules or pustules as a result of inflammatory immune response to cutaneous microorganisms. What is the tx (4)?

A

Rosacea
Tx: Gentle skincare, avoid aggravating factors,
topical antibiotics, or laser therapy.

130
Q

This is a flesh colored papule with pearly appearance.

A

Basal Cell Carcinoma

131
Q

This presents as purple/bluish or dark pigmented macules that may bleed easily typically affecting lower extremities. What is the cause & who is most at risk?

A

Kaposi’s Sarcoma
Human herpesvirus 8 (HHV-8)
HIV patients

132
Q

This rash is characterized by a diffuse erythematous rash with “sandpaper” quality. Pt. may present with “strawberry tongue”. It is associated with Streptococcus pyogenes pharyngitis infection. What is the tx?

A

Scarlatina
Tx: Oral penicillin

133
Q

This is a highly contagious superficial bacterial infection of the skin caused by Streptococcus pyogenes or Staphylococcus aureus. Appears honey-colored crusting. How is it tx?

A

Impetigo
Tx: Topical mupirocin (Bactroban)

134
Q

This is characterized by circumscribed, erythematous, pruritic plaques that present in response to allergic reactions. How is it tx?

A

Urticaria
Tx: antihistamines

135
Q

This presents as generalized pruritic vesicular rash following prodrome of fever, pharyngitis, & generalized malaise that is highly contagious (skin-to-skin) or nasopharyngeal droplets. How is it tx?

A

Varicella
Tx: supportive

136
Q

This is characterized by painful oral vesicles that rupture to form grayish-based ulcers. Macular, maculopapular lesions that progresses to vesicular lesions appearing on the hands, feet, & other areas. What is the tx?

A

Coxsackievirus (hand, foot, mouth dz)
Tx: Supportive

137
Q

This appears as erythematous papules, frequently with background erythema that may have very small superficial clear vesicles caused by occlusion & inflammation of the sweat glands.

A

Miliaria (heat rash)

138
Q

This appears as raised, silvery scaling plaque lesions, typically on the scalp, knees, & elbows. It is immune mediated chronic inflammatory dz that involves T lymphocytes & dendritic cells. How is it tx?

A

Plaque psoriasis
Tx: topical steroids, emollients, immune & modifying agents.

139
Q

This is formed by an accumulation of sebum & keratin material. What is the tx?

A

Comedone (whitehead)
Tx: topical retinoids

140
Q

What stage pressure ulcer is this where the skin is intact, non-blanchable with local redness typically over a bony prominence?

A

Stage 1

141
Q

This is characterized by erythema typically affecting the cheeks & nose in a “butterfly” pattern. How is it tx?

A

Acute cutaneous lupus erythematosus
Tx: Methotrexate

142
Q

This affects those exposed to elements & is graded from 1 to 4 based on the depth of tissue involved. Appears as grey & waxy that may form bullae or necrotic tissue.

A

Frostbite 2nd degree

143
Q

This is a pruritic maculopapular rash that occurs on areas of the body in contact with water contaminated with schistosome parasites.

A

Cercarial dermatitis (swimmer’s itch)

144
Q

This presents with intense pruritis with erythematous papules commonly found on flexor surfaces, scalp, & face. A chronic inflammatory response to altered skin microbial flora. How is it tx?

A

Atopic dermatitis (eczema)
Tx: avoid exacerbating factors, maintain skin hydration, & topical steroids.

145
Q

What stage burn is this. It extends through the epidermis into a portion of the dermis with blistering that may lead to scarring. How is it tx?

A

2nd degree Partial Thickness
Tx: Topical antimicrobials (bacitracin, sivadene
cream)

146
Q

This type burn affects the epidermis only & is presents with skin redness without blistering, heals without scarring. How is it tx?

A

1st degree Superficial burn
Tx: supportive care, topical moisturizers

147
Q

This is caused by a fungal infection affecting the fingers & toenails. Appears whitish/ yellowish, discolored, & hyperkeratotic .

A

Onychomycosis

148
Q

This is a benign pigmented lesion that is often dark in color in sun exposed areas.

A

Cafe-au-lait

149
Q

This is a superficial fungal infection that is characterized by hyperpigmented, hypopigmented, or erythematous macule of the trunk & extremities. How is it tx?

A

Tinea versicolor
Tx: Topical antifungals

150
Q

This is also referred to as a “boil” that is well circumscribed, painful nodule involving hair follicles. Caused by Staphylococcus aureus. How is it tx?

A

Furuncle
Tx: Topical heat, monitoring, & I&D

151
Q

This presents with painful erythematous nodules, progressing to an abcess, typically with sinus tracts connecting multiple nodules. How is it tx?

A

Hidradenitis Suppurativa
Tx: Topical or oral antibiotics, surgical excision, & grafting.

152
Q
A

ANCC study questions (2 decks)

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