Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

peds 1 > Pediatric Orthopedics > Flashcards

Pediatric Orthopedics Flashcards

1
Q

Scoliosis is a spinal deformity in which there is a lateral curvature in the spine greater than ____ degrees

A

TEN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Five types of scoliosis (which is the most common)?

A 
Congenital (birth)
Infantile (before 3 years)
Juvenile (age 3-10)
Neuromuscular
Adolescent Idiopathic ** Most common (between 10-16)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Four risk factors that make a curve more likely to progress:

A
  • Double curve (v. single)
  • Large curve (30-40 degrees) v small
  • Females v male
  • Peak height velocity (growth spurt)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When is “peak height velocity” (adolescent growth spurt) in girls and boys?

A
  • GIRLS: Tanner 2-3

- BOYS: Tanner 3-5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Scoliosis symptoms in the upper body (3)

A
  • One shoulder is higher than the other
  • One shoulder blade sticks out more than the other
  • One side of rib cage appears larger than the otehr
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Scoliosis symptoms in the lower body (3)

A
  • One hip is higher and more prominent
  • Waist appears uneven
  • One leg appears sorter than other
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Postural scoliosis symptoms (2)

A
  • Body tilts to one side

- Head is not centered over body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When does the American Academy of Orthopedics say boys and girls should be screened for scoliosis?

A

GIRLS: 11 & 13
BOYS: once at 13

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

When does the American Academy of Pediatrics say that boys and girls should be screened for scoliosis?

A

10, 12, 14, 16

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which direction do scoliosis curves usually go?

A

90% of curves are to the right

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What direction scoliosis curves are concerning?

A

Left thoracic curves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the Risser scale?

A

Evaluates skeletal maturity by using an X Ray.

** Scale of 1-5. 5 indicates more skeletal maturity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Three indicators that a scoliosis patient needs an MRI:

A
    • Any indicator of a pathological agent:
  • Pain
  • Neurological changes
  • Bowel and bladder issues
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

When is bracing recommended?

A

Curve greater than 30 degrees or a curve that is progressing 10-25 degree increase or more

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Goal of bracing for scoliosis

A

Prevent curve progression or until curve progression can’t be controlled

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Part time or night bracing may be effective for curves less than __ degrees.

A

35

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How long should bracing continue for?

A

Until growth stops

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What should you assess when administering a PCA?

A
  • Vitals
  • Bowel movemnts
  • NV
  • Is and Os
  • LOC
  • Pruritis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

When is surgery indicated for scoliosis?

A
  • When Cobb angle >45 degrees
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Pain that re-emerges after healing from a scoliosis surgery could indicate:

A

Pseudoarthrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Flat back syndrome was caused by the

A

Harrington Rod

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Healing timeframe after a scoliosis surgery

A
  • Substantial fuse: 3 months
  • No restrictions after 6 months
  • Full fusion: 1-2 years
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Incidence of club foot

  • Per live births
  • Boys v girls
  • Bilateral v Unilateral
A
  • 1-2 of 1,000 live births
  • Affects boys nearly twice as often as girls
  • Bilateral in 50% of the cases
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

List five common forms of club foot:

A
  • Talipes Equinovarus (95% of cases)
  • Talipes Equinovalgus
  • Talipes Calcaneovarus
  • Talipes Calcanovalgus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Six possible causes of club foot

A
  • Intrauterine positioning
  • Neuromuscular or muscle abnormality
  • Genetic predispostion
  • Arrested fetal development of skeletal and soft tissue
  • Concurrent congenital abnormalities
  • Amniotic banding
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is amniotic banding?

A

Fibrous amniotic bands can float around and wrap around a baby’s extremity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Three categories of clubfoot and brief description

A

1) Positional: Due to intrauterine crowding, responds to simple stretching and casting
2) Syndromic (Tetralogic: Associated with other congenital abnormalities; more severe form
3) Congenital (idiopathic / true club foot: Most common. Occurs in otherwise healthy infants.

28
Q

Six other symptoms of club foot:

A
  • Clubbed foot is smaller than non-clubbed foot
  • Shortened achilles tendon
  • Underdeveloped calf muscle
  • Empty heel bed (regressed bone)
  • Transverse plantar crease
  • ## Normal leg length
29
Q

Time frame of clubfoot casting

A
  • Every few days for the first 1-2 weeks, then every 2 weeks until maximum is achieved (cast and stretch, cast and stretch)
30
Q

What happens if you overcorrect club foot?

A

Rocker bottom foot

31
Q

Two treatments after casting

A
  • Denis Browne Splint

- Corrective shoes

32
Q

When is surgical intervention required for club foot?

A
  • Between 3-12 months if child has not been corrected
33
Q

Factors dictating prognosis of club foot

A
  • Severity of deformity
  • Age of child at initial intervention
  • Compliance with treatment
  • Development of bones / muscles / nerves
34
Q

What is the likelihood of recurrence with clubbed foot?

A

25% chance

35
Q

Contusion

A

Damage to soft tissue, subcutaneous structure and muscle

36
Q

Sprain

A

Severe trauma to a joint causing a ligament to be partially or completely torn

37
Q

Strain

A

Injury to the muscle near the musculotendinous junction, as a result of forceful contraction of the muscle

38
Q

Dislocation v Subluxation

A
  • Both refer to the displacement of bones that form a joint

- Subluxation = partial dislocation

39
Q

Management of sports injury (2)

A
  • RICE (no heat)

- Immobilization

40
Q

Sater-Harris Classifications (3)

A

TYPE I: A complete physeal fracture with or without displacement

TYPE II: Physeal fracture that extends through the metaphysis, producing a chip fracture

TYPE III: A physeal fracture that extends through the epiphysis
*** Could impair bone deveopment

41
Q

What is the weakest part of the bone?

A

Ephyseal plate

42
Q

RDA for calcium - adolescents

A

1500 mg / day

43
Q

Stages of bone healing (5)

A

1) Hematoma (1st 24 hours)
2) Cellular proliferation
3) Callus formation
4) Ossification
5) Consolidation and remodeling

44
Q

Speed of bone healing in children adn reason

A

Rapid due to thick periosteum

45
Q

Therapeutic management for fractures (2)

A
  • Closed (simple) reduction: Surgical

- Open reduction: Immobilization device used

46
Q

When is the Petichie rash a cause for concern in kids?

A

When it appears anywhere below the nipple.

47
Q

When should you go to the ER for compartment syndrome?

A

If patient in cast is complaining of pain and can’t extend fingers!

48
Q

Three things to assess in patient with cast

A
  • Capillary refill & finger/ toe color
  • Tingling, numbness in fingers, toes
  • Swelling
49
Q

Cause of compartment syndrome

A
  • Swelling caused by trauma and immobilizing device
50
Q

What happens in compartment syndrome? Where does it occur?

A
  • Compression of compartments with vessels and nerves

- Occurs in tibia, fibula, radius, ulna

51
Q

Four potential complications of fractures

A
  • Infection
  • Neurovascular injury
  • Mal-union or delayed
  • Leg length discrepancy
52
Q

______ is an infection of bone

A

Osteomyelitis

53
Q

Where does osteomyelitis occur?

A

In metaphyseal region of long bones

54
Q

When is osteomyelitis most common?

A

Between 5 and 14 years

55
Q

Two forms of osteomyelitis:

A
  • Exogenous

- Hematogenous

56
Q

What is exogenous osteomyelitis?

A

Direct inoculation from outside bone, like in surgery

57
Q

What is hematogenous osteomyelitis?

A

Spread of organism from existing infection. Acute: Less than 2 weeks, subacute: more than 2 weeks after other infection.

58
Q

When is Staphlococcus aureus most common?

A

Children over 5 yeras

59
Q

Two bone infections associated with sickle cell

A

Salmonella, S. aureus

60
Q

What two bone infections are most common in neonates?

A

E. Coli and B Strep

61
Q

When does Pseudomonas most often occur?

A

Puncture wounds in kids over 6 years

62
Q

Four lab tests to diagnose bone infection

A
  • Leukocytosis, elevated ESR
  • Elevation in C-Reactive Protein
  • Blood Cultures
  • Bone cultures
63
Q

How can you visualize a bone infection?

A

CT Scan, MRI

**Not visible on an X-Ray for 2-3 weeks after symptoms show up

64
Q

Therapeutic management of bone infections

A

Long term IV antibiotics

  • 2 weeks IV
  • 4-6 weeks oral afterward
65
Q

Why do you put an osteomyelitis patient on bed rest?

A

Infection –> Weak bone –> Increased risk for fractures.

Immobilization of affected limb

peds 1 (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions