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FNP Board Exam > Pediatric > Flashcards

Pediatric Flashcards

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1
Q

Until what age do we use the Denver 2 screening tool?

A

up to 6 years old

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2
Q

What age able to know 4 colors?

A

5 years

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3
Q

for exclusively breast-fed infants, how much iron is recommended after 6 months of age?

A

1 mg/kg/day

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4
Q

AKA knock-knee

A

genu valgum

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5
Q

What test is used to confirm Lyme disease?

A

Western blot assay

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6
Q

staphylococcal abscess on the upper or lower eyelid

A

hordeolum (stye)

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7
Q

What is the management for the common cold?

A

rest/hydration, nasal saline drops, humidifier; No OTC cold preps, No antibiotics; and avoid antitussives for <6 yrs. old

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8
Q

3 classes of GERD

A

physiological, functional, pathological

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9
Q

What is the finding in sensorineural hearing loss with the Rinne test?

A

normal in the affected ear

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10
Q

Conductive vs. Sensorineural hearing loss: Weber test - sound lateralizes to the affected ear

A

conductive

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11
Q

“bowed legs”

A

genu varum

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12
Q

small (<1 cm) pus-filled lesion

A

pustule

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13
Q

adjustment of developmental expectations for premature infants through the age of 2 years

A

corrected gestational age

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14
Q

term for fissures at lip corners, which may show vitamin deficiency

A

cheilosis

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15
Q

Which Hepatitis is related to IV drug use and blood transfusions?

A

Hep. C

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16
Q

Genu varum normal variant in which age group?

A

toddlerhood

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17
Q

What is considered a fever in an infant younger than 30- days old?

A

rectal temp of >100.4

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18
Q

Psoas vs. Obturator: pain with right thigh extension

A

Psoas sign

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19
Q

Genetic disorder - defect of the parathyroid, thymus; conotruncal region of heart - will have congenital heart defects; hypoparathyroidism w/ hypocalcemia, leading to seizures in infancy

A

DiGeorge (Velocardiofacial) syndrome

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20
Q

Tanner stage: Breast enlargement without separate nipple contour

A

Tanner Stage 3

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21
Q

At what age do we worry about strabismus?

A

After 6 months of age

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22
Q

How are pinworms spread?

A

fecal-oral

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23
Q

What is given for strep pharyngitis?

A

Penicillin VK 250mg TID x10 days; if allergic to PCN, erythromycin 250mg QID x10 days

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24
Q

At what age should we start measuring blood pressure?

A

3 years old

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25
Q

What medication is used for Kawasaki disease?

A

high dose aspirin therapy

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26
Q

What condition is associated with a “slapped cheek” appearance, is not contagious after fever breaks, and pathogen is Human Parvovirus B19?

A

Erythema infectiosum (fifth disease)

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27
Q

Which vaccine is contraindicated in those w/ a Hx of anaphylaxis to streptomycin?

A

IPV

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28
Q

AKA bowleg

A

genu varum

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29
Q

What would you suspect in a child with fever 101 or higher and exudate pharyngitis (days 1-2) and then rash presentation (12-48 hr after fever onset)?

A

scarlet fever

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30
Q

Inflammatory vs. Non-Inflammatory: Legg-Calve-Perthes disease & slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE)

A

non-inflammatory

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31
Q

Hib not recommended for children over what age?

A

5 years old

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32
Q

Tdap vaccine

A

series of 1 (11 or 12 years) and subsequent Td boosters every 10 years

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33
Q

genu valgum: bowleg or knock-knee?

A

knock-knee

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34
Q

national car seat laws

A

< 1 y/o must sit facing backwards / < 4 y/o & 40 lbs. must be in booster seat

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35
Q

Fetal alcohol syndrome will show abnormal ____ features on PE.

A

facial - small eye openings, thin upper lip, smooth philtrum, upturned nose, small head size

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36
Q

Genu valgum normal variant in which age group?

A

preschooler

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37
Q

What age is school-age children?

A

6-12 years old

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38
Q

What condition is associated with Koplik’s spots?

A

Rubeola (ordinary measles)

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39
Q

self-limiting inflammation of the hip, most likely due to a viral or immune cause. Most often ages 2-6 years. Internal rotation of hip causes spasm; no obvious signs of infection

A

toxic synovitis

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40
Q

What is the proper dose of acetaminophen for an infant?

A

10-15 mg/kg every 4-6 hours

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41
Q

Which condition will show a “steeple”-shaped narrowing of the trachea on a frontal radiograph of the neck?

A

croup

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42
Q

What age able to copy a circle?

A

3 years

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43
Q

Children between 2-5 years old, what is the recommendation for screen time?

A

limited to no more than 1 hour per day

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44
Q

Tanner stage: Pubic hair darker, increased amount, curlier

A

Tanner Stage 3

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45
Q

elevated, firm lesion >1cm

A

nodule

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46
Q

Varicella vaccine

A

series of 2 (between 12 months & 12 years, minimum 3 months apart)

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47
Q

most common sex-chromosome anomaly of females

A

XO Karyotype (Turner’s syndrome)

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48
Q

Which diagnostic test for pyloric stenosis?

A

abdominal ultrasound

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49
Q

AKA hypo/hyperpigmentation macules on limbs

A

tinea versicolor

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50
Q

What is the finding in conductive hearing loss with the Rinne test?

A

abnormal in affected ear (AC < BC)

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51
Q

Where is tinea capitus?

A

scalp

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52
Q

Which skin disorder has linear or curved burrows and interdigital lesions?

A

scabies

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53
Q

DTaP vaccine

A

series of 3 primary (2-4-6 months) & 2 boosters (15 months & 6 years)

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54
Q

What would you suspect in a previously healthy infant who develops acute colicky pain?

A

intussuception

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55
Q

AKA tinea corporis

A

body ringworm

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56
Q

Polio vaccine (IPV)

A

series of 4 (2-4-6 months & 6 yrs.)

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57
Q

Weber vs Rinne: sound should be heard equally in both ears and not lateralize

A

Weber

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58
Q

What would you suspect in a patient with an aversion to second-hand smoke and alcohol odors, fatigue, malaise, anorexia, N/V, headache?

A

Pre-icteric hepatitis

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59
Q

“knock-knees”

A

genu valgum

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60
Q

why is fine motor development of hand-to-hand transfer important by 5-6 months of age?

A

means that both brain hemispheres are working. If not present, may be the first sign of cerebral palsy.

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61
Q

a granulomatous (beady nodule) on the eyelid; infection or retention cyst of the meibomian gland

A

chalazion

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62
Q

“knees are stuck together with gum)

A

genu valgum (knock-knee)

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63
Q

What is a pyloric olive?

A

a palpable mass after vomiting in patient’s with pyloric stenosis

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64
Q

Skin disorders must have which 3 descriptors?

A

morphology, configuration, distribution

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65
Q

Genetic disorder only in females, “shield”-shaped chest (widely spaced nipples), HTN, bicuspid aortic valve, coarctation of aorta

A

XO Karyotype (Turner’s syndrome)

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66
Q

What is Auspitz’s sign?

A

droplets of blood when scales are removed

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67
Q

What test is used to detect antibody to B. Burgdorferi in Lyme disease?

A

ELISA screening

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68
Q

Genu varum (bowleg) is considered a normal variant until what age?

A

2 years old (walking age)

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69
Q

DTaP is not indicated for children over what age?

A

7 years

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70
Q

sensitivity vs. specificity

A

sensitivity +=+ and specificity - = -

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71
Q

What age able to turn a doorknob?

A

2 years

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72
Q

Which diagnostic test for intussusception?

A

radiograph to clarify diagnosis and barium enema is diagnostic & produces reduction

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73
Q

What skin disorder is associated with Auspitz’s sign (droplets of blood when scales are removed)?

A

psoriasis

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74
Q

Rotavirus vaccine (Rota)

A

series of 3 from 6 weeks to 8 months at 4-week intervals (b/c antibodies take about 1 month to build)

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75
Q

Which vaccine should not be given to those who are pregnant or immunosuppressed?

A

MMR

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76
Q

Psoas vs. Obturator: pain with internal rotation of the right thigh

A

Obturator sign

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77
Q

What age able to copy a square?

A

5 years

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78
Q

What virus causes mononucleosis?

A

Epstein-Barr virus

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79
Q

Genetic disorder - inherited connective tissue disorder, long arms, & risk of aortic aneurysm

A

Marfan syndrome

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80
Q

Genetic disorder with an extra X chromosome & only occurs in males; will have more feminine properties

A

XXY syndrome (Klinefelter’s syndrome)

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81
Q

Do not administer Rotavirus vaccine after what age?

A

32 weeks (8 months)

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82
Q

Which skin condition is associated with a “herald patch” and a pruritic rash in a Christmas tree pattern?

A

pityriasis rosea

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83
Q

Which condition? Associated with “Gower’s maneuver”, which is where a child “walks” hands up legs to attain standing position when getting up. It is genetic, affects males, and will have elevated creatine kinase.

A

muscular dystrophy (Duchenne)

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84
Q

Consider antibiotic therapy (& which drug is first-line?) for diarrhea if patient has how many stools daily?

A

> 8-10 stools per day, consider antibiotics. First-line is Bactrim.

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85
Q

Posterior fontanel closes when?

A

2-3 months

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86
Q

Hirchsprung’s disease (aganglionic megacolon): bilious or non-bilious vomiting

A

bilious

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87
Q

serous fluid-filled vesicles >1 cm

A

bulla

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88
Q

dots on top of starburst lines in iris of eye

A

Brushfield spots

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89
Q

Will the common cold have fever and/or lymphadenopathy?

A

neither

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90
Q

normal gestational age

A

37-41 weeks

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91
Q

What would you suspect in a patient with currant jelly stool and/or sausage shaped mass in RUQ?

A

intussusception

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92
Q

“3 wheels at 3”

A

able to ride a tricycle at age 3

93
Q

to what age do we measure head circumference?

A

2 y/o

94
Q

a pus-filled lesion >1 cm

A

abscess

95
Q

“too much rum, wide-center of gravity”

A

genu varum (bowleg)

96
Q

continuous humming murmur; heard best in sitting position, disappears in supine position; also obliterated by turning head and/or compressing neck ispilaterally

A

Venous hum

97
Q

Pyloric stenosis: projectile vomiting or not?

A

Yes

98
Q

Which standardized testing tool is the gold standard for the diagnosis of developmental delays in infants/toddlers to 42 months of age?

A

Bayley Scales of Infant and Toddler Development

99
Q

Weber vs Rinne: air conduction (AC) > bone conduction (BC)

A

Rinne

100
Q

Which condition will show a “thumb sign,” a thumb-shaped patch appearing on a radiograph of the neck?

A

epiglottitis

101
Q

What condition is associated with a rash that starts on the face, spreads to extremities & trunk, and is gone in 72 hours; also is teratogenic?

A

Rubella (3-day measles)

102
Q

What is the most common vector-borne disease in the U.S.?

A

Lyme disease

103
Q

What treatment is used for pinworms?

A

anthelmintics to eradicate infection

104
Q

By what age should the testes be fully descended?

A

3 months old

105
Q

When would you need to order diagnostic tests for gastroenteritis (N/V/D)?

A

if symptoms persist >72 hrs. or bloody stool is present

106
Q

At what age is ibuprofen approved to use?

A

after 6 months old

107
Q

what age does BMI start?

A

2 years old

108
Q

scaly, elevated lesion; the classic lesion of psoriasis

A

plaque

109
Q

Which 2 medication classes can exacerbate acne?

A

steroids & anticonvulsants

110
Q

What is the treatment for a chalazion?

A

warm compresses and referral for surgical removal

111
Q

What antibiotic is used for sinusitis?

A

amoxillin-clavulanate (Augmentin) x10 days; change to Levaquin (or other secondary antibiotic) if no improvement in 3 days

112
Q

what is bone age?

A

x-ray of tarsals and carpals to determine extent of ossification

113
Q

What should be on the differential diagnosis in a child who is stuttering?

A

hearing and/or visual impairment

114
Q

aseptic or avascular necrosis of the femoral head. Most common age 4-9 years old.

A

Legg-Calve-Perthes disease

115
Q

less suck reflex, less airway control

A

hypotonia

116
Q

Clinical features most suggestive of group A beta-hemolytic streptococci (GABHS) include FLEA mnemonic:

A

Fever, Lack of cough, pharyngo-tonsillar Exudate, anterior cervical Adenopathy. If 2/4 are present, do a strep test

117
Q

A condition in which the foreskin is tightly stretched around the head of the penis and cannot be pulled back freely

A

phimosis

118
Q

Which skin infection is associated with honey-crusting lesions?

A

impetigo

119
Q

Which condition? Typically <3 y/o, with RSV being responsible for more than 50% of cases

A

bronchiolitis

120
Q

How old are preschoolers?

A

4-5 years old

121
Q

psychosexual theorist

A

Sigmund Freud

122
Q

Tanner stage: Penis elongates

A

Tanner Stage 3

123
Q

What condition? child holds arm across body with thumb up

A

nursemaid elbow

124
Q

Conductive vs. Sensorineural hearing loss: Rinne test - abnormal in affected ear (AC < BC)

A

conductive

125
Q

3 primary domains of growth and development

A

physical, cognitive, psychosocial

126
Q

What age does physiologic and pyschological readiness for toilet training begin?

A

between 1.5-2.5 years

127
Q

Which diagnostic test for Hirchsprung’s disease (aganglionic megacolon)?

A

abdominal x-ray

128
Q

AKA tinea cruris

A

jock itch

129
Q

Term for onset of puberty before age 8 in girls and 9 in boys

A

precocious puberty

130
Q

Anterior fontanel closes when?

A

approx. 18 months

131
Q

What are 2 treatments used for scabies?

A

Permethrin (Nix) or ivermectin

132
Q

How old are toddlers?

A

1-3 years old

133
Q

primary theorist for the psychosocial domain

A

Erik Erikson

134
Q

Kawasaki disease is most commonly noted in children of what age and what ethnicity?

A

under 2 years old and of Asian ethnicity

135
Q

What condition? positive Kernig’s sign and Brudzinski’s sign

A

meningitis

136
Q

If child has port wine stain, especially if comes to midline & stops, rule out what?

A

Sturge-Webber - serious neuro condition w/ seizures

137
Q

At what age is a neuroblastoma most common?

A

before age 5 years

138
Q

Which condition would be suspected in a patient with posterior cervical lymphadenopathy, white exudate on tonsils, and splenomegaly?

A

mononucleosis

139
Q

What is the proper dose of ibuprofen in an infant?

A

10 mg/kg every 6 hours

140
Q

Suspect what if there are many large cafe au lait spots OR if more than 6 spots in a child older than 5 y/o?

A

neurofibromatosis

141
Q

small (<1 cm) lesion filled with serous fluid

A

vesicle

142
Q

When should a child’s first dental visit be?

A

By 1 year of age

143
Q

Which skin condition may show an elevated serum IgE?

A

atopic dermatitis (eczema)

144
Q

Influenza vaccine in children

A

1 dose annually, start at 6 months old. 6-35 months, 0.25 mL IM … 3 y/o, 0.5 mL IM … <9 y/o, 2 doses 1 month apart

145
Q

firm, elevated lump

A

tumor

146
Q

Which vaccinations will help prevent AOM?

A

Hib, PCV13, annual flu

147
Q

What does egophony suggest on lung auscultation?

A

consolidation

148
Q

Consider what if newborn has radio-femoral pulse delay?

A

coarctation of aorta - get pulse ox readings in all 4 extremities

149
Q

What condition are you checking for with a pilocarpine iontophoresis (sweat test)?

A

cystic fibrosis

150
Q

inflammation of the tibial tubercle as a result of repetitive stressors in patients with immature skeletal development. Peak age 11-14 years, associated with rapid growth spurt.

A

Osgood-Schlatter disease

151
Q

infants should be exclusively breast fed for how many months?

A

6 months

152
Q

a neurocutaneous syndrom characterized by numerous cafe-au-lait spots on the body, and nerve tumors on the skin and in the body

A

neurofibromatosis (von Recklinghausen disease)

153
Q

small (<1 cm), elevated, firm lesion

A

papule

154
Q

Which Hepatitis is blood-borne and present in body fluids?

A

Hep. B

155
Q

primary theorist for the cognitive domain

A

Jean Piaget

156
Q

generalized assessment tool, used from birth to 6 years of age. Measures gross & fine motor development, language, & personal-social development

A

Denver 2

157
Q

What condition is associated with a highly contagious virus that affects the salivary glands?

A

mumps

158
Q

What to suspect in a patient with enlarged abdominal mass, FTT, profuse sweating, tachycardia?

A

neuroblastoma

159
Q

Genetic disorder with presence of a third #21 chromosome, hypotonia, Brushfield spots

A

Trisomy 21 (Down Syndrome)

160
Q

Which conjunctivitis is considered an opthalmic emergency?

A

gonococcal

161
Q

Conductive vs. Sensorineural hearing loss: Weber test - sound lateralizes to the unaffected ear

A

sensorineural

162
Q

Which Hepatitis is transmitted via oral-fecal route?

A

Hep. A

163
Q

Term for bulky, foul stool (as seen in malabsorption).

A

steatorrhea

164
Q

What lab test can diagnose fetal alcohol syndrome?

A

none exist; diagnosed through PE

165
Q

most common cause of hypogonadism & infertility in men

A

XXY (Klinefelter’s) syndrome

166
Q

Pyloric stenosis: bilious or non-bilious vomiting?

A

non-bilious vomiting after eating

167
Q

Which skin condition? Hyperproliferative; plaques with silvery scales

A

psoriasis

168
Q

Intussusception: bilious or non-bilious vomiting?

A

bilious

169
Q

Inflammatory vs. Non-Inflammatory: Osgood-Schlatter disease & toxic synovitis

A

inflammatory

170
Q

What is the hallmark treatment for atopic dermatitis (eczema)?

A

dry skin management: moisturizing lotion immediately after bathing; must blot dry

171
Q

What condition is associated with a high fever that abruptly stops when rash develops, and is caused by Herpesvirus 6?

A

Roseola infantum (sixth disease)

172
Q

What is the finding in conductive hearing loss with the Weber test?

A

sound lateralizes to the affected ear

173
Q

What condition is associated with Borrelia Burgdorferi, a spirochete?

A

Lyme disease

174
Q

What is the first line medication for AOM?

A

Amoxicillin 80-90 mg/kg/day, BID x10 days

175
Q

Conductive vs. Sensorineural hearing loss: Rinne test - normal in the affected ear

A

sensorineural

176
Q

acute febrile syndrome causing vasculitis

A

Kawasaki disease

177
Q

Genetic disorder of Ashkenazic Jews; progressive deterioration beginning 3-6 months of age. Often cherry red macula is 1st sign

A

Tay-Sachs disease

178
Q

Which vaccine is contraindicated in pregnant women & immunosuppressed persons, & in those with a streptomycin allergy?

A

Varicella

179
Q

What is Russell’s sign in adolescents?

A

bruised knuckles from self-induced vomiting

180
Q

genu varum: bowleg or knock-knee

A

bowleg

181
Q

What is the finding in sensorineural hearing loss with the Weber test?

A

sound lateralizes to the unaffected ear

182
Q

What would you suspect in infrequent, explosive bowel movements?

A

Hirchsprung’s disease (aganglionic megacolon)

183
Q

phenotype vs. genotype

A

phenotype - presentation specific to a genetic disorder … genotype - diagnostic characteristics

184
Q

Which condition has umbilicated papules with a cheesy core?

A

molluscum contagiosum

185
Q

Which bacteria causes scarlet fever?

A

group A beta-hemolytic streptococci (GAHGS)

186
Q

AKA tinea manuum and tinea pedis

A

athlete’s foot

187
Q

What is the difference between bacterial vs. gonococcal conjunctivitis?

A

Gonococcal will have purulent drainage that is more copious than bacterial. Treatment is with IV Pen G (neonatal) or ceftriaxone IM

188
Q

AKA hordeolum

A

stye

189
Q

Rheumatic fever follows which type of infection?

A

Group A strep infection of the upper respiratory tract

190
Q

Hip dysplasia - what is the difference between Ortolani’s click & Barlow’s maneuver?

A

Ortolani’s click - dislocation is REDUCED

Barlow’s - CAUSED the dislocation

191
Q

Term for BMI greater than the 95th percentile for age/gender

A

obesity

192
Q

most common innocent murmur; musical systolic murmur; due to turbulence in the left ventricular outflow tract

A

Still’s murmur

193
Q

How long should a child with impetigo abstain from school and other community events?

A

until 48 hours of treatment

194
Q

What does MCV measure? and lab values

A

mean corpuscular volume; average volume & size of individual erythrocytes; microcytic = 80, normocytic = 80-100, macrocytic = 100

195
Q

Lab values of MCHC

A

“color”. Hypochromic <32% ; normochromic 32-36%

196
Q

iron deficiency anemia: normal, increased, or decreased RCDW?

A

increased

197
Q

thalassemia: normal, increased, or decreased RCDW?

A

normal or slightly increased

198
Q

anemia of chronic disease: normal, increased, or decreased RCDW?

A

normal

199
Q

number of new, young RBCs in circulation

A

reticulocyte count

200
Q

What is a normal reticulocyte count, and what does it measure?

A

1-2%; index of bone marrow health and response to anemia

201
Q

anemia due to hemorrhage or hemolysis - what will reticulocyte count be?

A

increased, approx. 20%

202
Q

iron deficiency anemia, what will reticulocyte count be?

A

0%

203
Q

iron deficiency anemia - What -cytic and -chromic?

A

microcytic, hypochromic

204
Q

what anemia is pica associated with?

A

iron deficiency anemia

205
Q

Which lab test is diagnostic of thalassemia?

A

hemoglobin electrophoresis

206
Q

What anemia is associated with Howell-Jolly bodies?

A

sickle cell anemia

207
Q

What levels of lead is considered lead poisoning?

A

> 5

208
Q

bluish discoloration of gingival border

A

burtonian lines

209
Q

What condition is associated with Burtonian lines?

A

lead poisoning

210
Q

Describe diagnostic criteria of serum fasting blood sugar for Type 1 DM.

A

> = 126 on 2 separate occasions

211
Q

What is the Somogyi effect in Type 1 DM?

A

nocturnal hypoglycemia, SURGE of hormones that raise blood sugar. Hypoglycemia at 0300 and hyperglycemia at 0700. (Somogyi = tsunami)

212
Q

What is the dawn phenomenon in Type 1 DM?

A

blood sugar slowly rises throughout the night due to tissue desensitization of insulin (“dawn is slowly rising”)

213
Q

Is Metformin okay to use in children?

A

yes

214
Q

What is the treatment for chlamydia?

A

zithromax 1 gram once OR (if not pregnant) doxycycline 100mg BID x7 days

215
Q

Which STD is the leading cause of infertility in females?

A

gonorrhea

216
Q

What culture media is used for gonorrhea?

A

Thayer-Martin or Transgrow media

217
Q

What STD’s are reportable to the health department?

A

GCS (gonorrhea, chlamydia, syphilis)

218
Q

What is the treatment for gonorrhea?

A

ceftriaxone IM single dose & zithromax 1 g once to cover chlamydia

219
Q

What STD shows treponemes?

A

syphilis

220
Q

What screening tests for syphilis?

A

VDRL or rapid plasma reagin

221
Q

What confirmatory test for syphilis?

A

treponemal tests

222
Q

What is the treatment for syphilis?

A

benzathine penicillin G

223
Q

What tests for bacterial vaginosis?

A

wet mount will show clue cells; & positive amine “whiff” test

224
Q

What is the treatment for bacterial vaginosis?

A

metronidazole or clindamycin

225
Q

What tests for herpes?

A

papanicolaou or Tzanck stain; viral culture

226
Q

What is the treatment for herpes?

A

acyclovir or valocyclovir

227
Q

What screening tests for HIV/AIDS?

A

infants - PCR ; older children - ELISA

228
Q

What confirmatory test for HIV/AIDS?

A

Western blot test

FNP Board Exam (3 decks)

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