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FNP Board Exam > Adult > Flashcards

Adult Flashcards

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Family Nurse Practitioner (FNP) flashcards
1
Q

What do cotton wool spots on eye exam indicate?

A

hypertension

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2
Q

What is the most & second most frequently used topical antibiotic for acne?

A

Clindamycin & Erythromycin

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3
Q

What is the most common skin cancer?

A

basal cell carcinoma

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4
Q

yellow plaques as a result of fat build up under the skin, usually near the inner canthus of the eye; hyperlipidemia is the underlying cause

A

Xanthelasma

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5
Q

What condition? Wickham’s striae with purplish flat bumps, painful sores in & around the mouth or on the genitals, itching

A

lichen planus

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6
Q

What antibiotics for anthrax?

A

penicillin, cipro, or doxycycline

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7
Q

4 labs diagnostic of DM

A

fasting sugar >=126 ; random sugar >= 200 w/ signs of hyperglycemia ; sugar >= 200 2 hours after glucose load ; HgbA1C >= 6.5

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8
Q

Hyper- or Hypothyroidism? Grave’s disease

A

Hyperthyroidism

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9
Q

Hyper- or Hypothyroidism? Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

A

Hypothyroidism

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10
Q

What condition? “Fast” ; “Overdrive” ; “keep your foot on the gas pedal, go to your grave”

A

hyperthyroidism (Grave’s disease)

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11
Q

Hyper- or Hypothyroidism? Thyroid crisis

A

hyperthyroidism

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12
Q

Hyper- or Hypothyroidism? Myxedema coma

A

hypothyroidism

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13
Q

What medication is important to avoid in a thyroid crisis?

A

ASA - can exacerbate problem

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14
Q

What is the cure for hyperparathyroidism?

A

parathyroidectomy

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15
Q

Hyper- or Hypoparathyroidism? Increased calcium, Decreased phosphorus

A

hyperparathyroidism

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16
Q

Hyper- or Hypoparathyroidism? Decreased calcium, Increased phosphorus

A

hypoparathyroidism

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17
Q

What is the management for hypoparathyroidism?

A

calcium carbonate ; Vitamin D ; daily PTH hormone in severe cases

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18
Q

Cushing’s or Addison’s? too much steroids

A

Cushing’s

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19
Q

Cushing’s or Addison’s? not enough steroids

A

Addison’s

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20
Q

Cushing’s or Addison’s? hyperglycemia, hypernatremia, hypokalemia

A

Cushing’s

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21
Q

Cushing’s or Addison’s? hypoglycemia, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia

A

Addison’s

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22
Q

Duodenal or Gastric ulcer? relief of pain with eating

A

duodenal

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23
Q

Duodenal or Gastric ulcer? pain worsens with eating

A

gastric

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24
Q

3 steps of management of PUD

A

H2 receptor antagonist at bedtime –> H2 BID –> PPI

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25
Q

What is the therapy for H. Pylori eradication?

A

2 antibiotics plus either a PPI or bismuth

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26
Q

What does IgM and IgG mean in hepatitis?

A

IgM = “immediate” or active disease ; IgG = “gone” or recovered/chronic disease

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27
Q

Acute vs. Chronic Hep C, serology will be the same, so what test differentiates between the 2?

A

PCR testing. PCR + for acute and - for chronic

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28
Q

Diverticulitis - where will the abdominal pain be?

A

LLQ

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29
Q

deep pain on inspiration while fingers are placed under the right rib cage

A

Murphy’s sign

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30
Q

What does positive Murphy’s sign mean?

A

cholecystitis

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31
Q

Gold standard test for cholecystitis

A

ultrasound

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32
Q

What condition? high pitched, tinkling bowel sounds

A

bowel obstruction

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33
Q

Ulcerative colitis: what is the hallmark symptom, what test is diagnostic, and what is the management?

A

bloody diarrhea ; sigmoidoscopy ; Mesalamine (Canasa) suppositories or enemas for 3-12 weeks & hydrocortisone suppositories and enemas

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34
Q

Thin, “ribbon” stools sign of what?

A

late sign of colon cancer

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35
Q

RLQ pain when pressure is applied to the LLQ

A

Rovsing’s sign

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36
Q

What medication is the mainstay of treatment for chronic bronchitis and emphysema?

A

inhaled ipratropium bromide (Atrovent) or sympathomimetics

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37
Q

Pregnant women with pertussis should get what and when to prevent transmission?

A

Tdap in 3rd trimester

38
Q

What condition? frothy yellowish-green discharge, “strawberry patches” on cervix and vagina

A

trichomonas

39
Q

Which condition? normal saline mixture shows clue cells

A

bacterial vaginosis

40
Q

Which condition? KOH mixture shows pseudo hyphae

A

candidiasis

41
Q

What is a primary cause of dysmenorrhea?

A

high levels of prostaglandin

42
Q

What is the treatment for dysmenorrhea?

A

prostaglandin synthetase inhibitors (PGSIs) - ibuprofen, naproxen, indomethacin

43
Q

Abnormal uterine bleeding is usually the result of what?

A

endocrine dysfunction

44
Q

Name the PALM-COEIN mnemonic for evaluation of abnormal uterine bleeding.

A

Polyps, Adenomyosis, Leiomyoma, Malignancy and hyperplasia, Coagulopathy, Ovulatory dysfunction, Endometrial causes, Iatrogenic causes, Not yet classified

45
Q

What is the hormonal therapy for patients with menopause with and without a uterus?

A

No uterus = estrogen therapy ; With uterus = estrogen + progestogen (to protect against endometrial cancer)

46
Q

___ score is number of standard deviations around the mean bone density for race and gender

A

T score

47
Q

____ score compares the patient with the population adjusted for gender, age, and race

A

Z score

48
Q

DEXA scan results for normal, osteopenia (low bone mass), and osteoporosis

A

T score - normal (> -1.0), osteopenia (-1.0 to -2.5), osteoporosis (below - 2.5)

49
Q

What media is used for a cervical culture of N. gonorrhoeae?

A

Thayer-Martin

50
Q

What condition uses a papnicolaou or Tzanck stain?

A

herpes

51
Q

What medication can be used for herpes prophylaxis/suppression therapy, such as to help decrease transmission to partner?

A

valacyclovir

52
Q

Is lymphogranuloma venereum associated with painful or painless vesicles/ulcers?

A

painless

53
Q

What condition? shiny flesh-colored to pearly-white papules

A

molluscum contagiosum

54
Q

What is the treatment for molluscum contagiosum?

A

“wait & see” or cyroanesthesia with liquid nitrogen

55
Q

What stage of syphilis? painless chancre, indurated ulcer

A

primary

56
Q

What stage of syphilis? flu-like symptoms, skin rash on palmar/plantar surfaces

A

secondary

57
Q

What stage of syphilis? seropositive, but asymptomatic

A

latent

58
Q

What stage of syphilis? multi-system involvement

A

tertiary

59
Q

What serological tests for syphilis?

A

VDRL/RPR or treponemal tests

60
Q

What conditions are reportable to the health department?

A

HIV, TB, GCS (Gonorrhea, Chlamydia, Syphilis)

61
Q

What is the treatment for syphilis?

A

benzathine penicillin G

62
Q

Low MCV, High MCV, or Normocytic? iron deficiency anemia & thalassemia

A

low MCV (microcytic)

63
Q

Low MCV, High MCV, or Normocytic? B12 or folate deficiency, alcoholism, liver failure, and drug effects

A

high MCV (macrocytic)

64
Q

Low MCV, High MCV, or Normocytic? anemia of chronic disease, sickle cell disease, renal failure, blood loss, and hemolysis

A

normocytic

65
Q

What lab value is normocytic?

A

mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 80-100

66
Q

What lab value is normochromic?

A

mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC) 32%-36%

67
Q

What lab tests can distinguish between iron deficiency anemia and thalassemia?

A

TIBC and ferritin - IDA will have low ferritin and high TIBC (TIBC is high b/c ferritin is low) ; thalassemia is normal TIBC and ferritin

68
Q

What is the treatment for thalassemia?

A

none for mild/moderate ; for severe forms RBC transfusion/splenectomy

69
Q

What is the management for polycythemia?

A

phlebotomy, aspirin, referral

70
Q

What condition? excessive levels of iron, joint pain, pain in knuckles of pointer & middle fingers

A

hemochromatosis

71
Q

What condition? pancytopenia with circulating blasts

A

acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)

72
Q

What is the most common leukemia in adults?

A

chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)

73
Q

What condition is lymphocytosis the hallmark sign of?

A

chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)

74
Q

What condition? philadelphia chromosome seen in leukemic cells

A

chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML)

75
Q

What is required to confirm the diagnosis of leukemia?

A

bone marrow aspiration

76
Q

How is Hodgkin’s disease differentiated from non-Hodgkin’s disease?

A

presence of Reed-Sternberg cells

77
Q

What condition? Reed-Sternberg cells

A

Hodgkin’s disease

78
Q

What is used to confirm diagnosis of lymphoma?

A

biopsy & histopathologic examination

79
Q

Knee “locking” is usually indicative of what?

A

meniscal tear or loose bodies

80
Q

What condition? positive McMurray’s test

A

medial meniscal injuries

81
Q

positive McMurrary (M&M) equals what?

A

medial meniscal (M&M) injury

82
Q

an audible click when the knee is raised slowly with one foot externally rotated (knee is flexed and then quickly straightened)

A

McMurray’s test (positive = medial meniscal injury)

83
Q

What condition? positive Lachman’s test

A

ACL or PCL tear

84
Q

What does “LL” mean for the Lachman test?

A

“Lachman Ligament” - meaning Lachman tests for ACL or PCL tears

85
Q

What condition? Apley’s grind test

A

medial or lateral collateral ligament damage and/or meniscus injury

86
Q

Sprain: ligaments or tendons?

A

ligaments

87
Q

Strain: ligaments or tendons?

A

tendons

88
Q

What condition? positive Tinel’s sign and Phalen’s test

A

carpal tunnel

89
Q

chronic memory impairment due to severe vitamin B deficiency (due to alcohol abuse)

A

Korsakoff syndrome

90
Q

What valvular disease? radiates to base or left axilla

A

mitral regurgitation

91
Q

What valvular disease? radiates to the neck

A

aortic stenosis

92
Q

“Ms. Ard and Mr. Ass”

A

Mitral Stenosis/Aortic Regurgitation = Diastolic murmur … Mitral Regurgitation/Aortic Stenosis = Systolic murmur

FNP Board Exam (3 decks)

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