pedi! Flashcards

1
Q

conjunctivitis with clear discharge and pruritus?

A

Allergic Conjunctivitis (IgE mediated)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is radial head subluxation?

A
axial traction (pulling up on a kid's arm) causes radial head to slip out of the annular ligament
clinically- kid will keep arm pronated, to the side, and will cry if supination is tried
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is diagnostic and therapeutic for radial head subluxation?

A

diagnostic- an audible click when forearm is HYPERpronated or forearm is supinated and elbow is flexed.
these same moves are also therapeutic/the treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

whats the definition of primary amenorrhea? age + 2ndary sex?

A

no menses and no 2ndary sex >13

no menses but approp 2ndary sex >15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

whats the first step in work up of primary amennorrhea?

A

a pelvic ultrasound to rule out anatomical abnormalities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what are levels of E, FSH, and LH in Turner’s?

A

low E b/c streak ovaries

high FSH and LH bc feedback

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what are the (3) characteristics of McCune Albright Syndrome?

A

(1) precocious puberty
(2) unilateral cafe au lait macules
(3) long bone fractures bc of ployostotic fibrous dysplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

whats the pathophys of McCune Albright?

A
  • mutation in GNAS gene that causes overproduction of pituitary hormone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what does iron poisoning look like

A

iron tablets are radioopaque and can be visualized on xray. they are corosive to gastric mucosa, and cause GI problems like abdominal pain, hematemesis
it can also cause hypotension and metabolic acidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

if you see target sign on US of a baby whats the next step?

A

most likely intusseption

- give air or water soluble contrast enema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Vesicouretral reflux leads to?

A

recurrent UTIs

renal scarring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

medulloblastomas occur mainly in _____

pilocytic astromas occur mainly in _____

A

cerebellar vermis

cerebellar hemispheres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

SCD pts should prophylactically take what med till age 5,why?

A
  • Penicillin
  • to prevent S.Pneumo infection due to functional asplenia (vax prevents most H influ and N Meningitidis but many strains of S Pneumo are not protected against)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

HSV vs Impetigo location?

A
  • Impetigo can be all over face, but HSV is usuallt restricted to orolabial area.
  • both can affect the finger
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

consequences of Mumps

A

Aseptic Meningitis, orchitis, and parotitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

how to differentiate a focal (complex partial) and absence seizure

A

focal - lasts couple minute
absence- last 10-20 sec

focal- cannot be caused by hyperventilation
absence- can be brought on by hyperventilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is an SGA baby?

A

less than 10th percentile of average birth weight.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what are risk factors of SGA babies?

A
  • hypothermia, hypocalcemia, hypoglycemia

- hypoxia, perinatal asphyxia, meconium aspiration, polycythemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

how to tell apart JIA from ARF?

A

JIA: the arthralgia isnt migratory and has to last >6wk
ARF: arthralgia is migratory (fits JONES) and is preceded 2-4 wks by GAS infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

congenital melanocytic nevus vs congenital dermal melanocytosis vs nevus flameus

A

CMN- raised hyperpigmented macule with hair on it
CDM- mongolian spots, bluish grey non raised macules
nevus flameus- port wine stain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

close contacts of pertussis patients?

A

need prophylaxis with macrolides EVEN if immunized!

if under 1 only give azithromycin not erythromycin bc it can cause pyloric stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

treatment for acute croup

A

corticosteroids and nebulized epinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

how do you diagnose pyloric stenosis?

A

abdominal US

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is Wiskott Aldrich Syndrome?

A

eczema
thrombocytopenia
recurrent infections

Xlinked recessive defect in WAS gene which causes abnormal cytoskeleton in WBC and platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

baby who is cyanotic at birth with a single S2 most likely has?

A

Transposition of Great Vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

respiratory distress and fluid in interlobar spaces?

A

Transient Tachypnea of the Newborn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

rotavirus contraindication?

A

personal history of intusseception

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

newborn with conjugated hyperbilirubinemia dn hepatosplenomegaly most likely has

A

biliary atresia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

painless hematochezia in toddler?

A

most likely Meckel’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what is refeeding syndrome

A

aggressive feeding of a malnourished pt, carbs cause a spike in insulin which causes cellular uptake of Phosphorous, potassium, and magnesium. Low levels of these ions cause cardiopulm failure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

whats hyper IgM syndrome?

A

Xlinked deficiency in CD40 which causes impaired class switching, so more IgM and less of all the others. increase risk for infection with encapsulated bacteria and PJP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

In AIS when should you do the gonadectomy?

A

do it after puberty if the gonads are stable, bc the benefits of gonad-dependent growth outweigh the risk of gonadal malignancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

retinal hemorrhage in newborn=

A

child abuse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

scaphoid abdomen=

A

congenital diaphragmatic hernia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

1st step of management of congenital diaphragmatic hernia?

A
  • 1st= endotracheal tube

- then you can place an NG or OG tube to prevent abdominal distension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

imaginary friends in a 6 yo? is it good or bad?

A

its totally normal, and can actually help social relationships by being a form of rehearsal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what is gold standard to diagnose DMD?

A
  • genetic studies which show a deletion of dystrophin gene on Xp21, which is Xlinked recessive
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

whats the causing of non-pitting edema in a baby with turner syndrome

A

lymphatic dygenesis, causes accumulation of lymph with high levels of protein (therefore nonpitting)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

marfanoid habitus (and hyperelasticity) + pale skin + cerebrovascular events

A

homocysteinuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

how to evaluate ICP in a child?

A

CT !

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

how does an osteoid osteoma present

A

a benign tumor of the proximal femur, usually well demarcated on xray.
progressively increasing pain, thats worse and night and relieved by NSAIDS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what is Todd Paralysis?

A

its paralysis of ipsilateral Upper and Lower extremities in the post ictal state (aka following a seizure). it resolved within 36 hours max of a seizure. MRI and CT are negative.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

whats the most common type of nephrotic syndrome in peds?

A

MCD

- normal LM, foot process effacement on EM. usually no biopsy req

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

devpt: age 2 mos

A

language: coos
social: smiles + recog parents
motor: lift head when prone + hands unfisted 1/2 the time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

devpt : 4 mos

A

language: laugh
motor: sits up w support, rolls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

devpt: 6 mos

A

language: babble and respond to name
motor: hand to hand transfer, rake
social: stranger anx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

devpt 9 mos

A

language: dada and mama
motor: cruise, pull to stand
social: waves bye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

devpt: 12 mo

A

language: dada mama + 1 wd
motor: stands well, and walks with support
social: separation anx, simple 1 wd commands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

aplastic anemia vs aplastic crisis

A

aplastic anemia- problem with the bone marrow so PANcytopenic
aplastic crisis- prob with JUST RBC production. usually secondary to infection like parvo and common in SCD.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

tinea versicolor?

A

hypopigmented plaques that are more apparent after sun exposure. doesn’t have to be itchy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

apart from anaphylaxis (duh!) what are contraindications to the pertussis vax?

A
  • encephalopathy within a week

- severe progressive neuro defecits ex: UNCONTROLLED seizure (febrile seizure doesnt count)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

whats the difference between metatarsus adductus and congenital club foot?

A

MA- is common, and usually self resolves. the foot is flexible not rigid, and in neutral position the forefoot deviates medially.
Congenital club foot- needs further workup like karyotype and serial manipulations and casting. the foot is rigid, and both hindfoot and forefoot is deviated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

whats the treatment for impetigo?

A
  • local and nonbullous- MUPIROCIN ( a topical antibiotic)

- widespread or bullous- oral ab like cephelexin or clindamycin, or dicloxacillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

whats selective mutism

A

child’s refusal to speak in social setting for greater than 1 mo. child speaks normally in other settings. this is not to be considered normal and must be worked up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

a maculopapular rash on head and trunk after mmr?

A

infection with measles live but attenuated from vax. much weaker infection but can still be transmitted so do not go near immunocompromised. – reassurance, no need for serology or any treatment, will self resolve.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

if girl has primary amenorrhea, and US shows normal uterus what is the next step in workup? how do the results of this next step affect the differential?

A
  • FSH levels
    if FSH is HIGH its most likely a peripheral cause like Turner’s or an issue with the ovaries
    if FSH is LOW it is most likely a central cause like a prob with the pituitary
    is FSH is NORMAL consider an imperforate hymen
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

most common sequelae of acute bacterial meningitis

A
  • hearing loss
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Minimal change disease work-up

A
  1. renal biopsy not required

2. 85% of cases are responsive to prednisone/ steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

what does mild vs moderate vs severe dehydration look like?

A

mild- asymptomatic on PE, decreased intake or increased output.
moderate: PE shows dry mucous membranes, decreased turgor
severe- tachy, low urine output, clammy/cold, sunken eyes/fontanelle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

whats the follow up for dehydration?

A

mild- oral rehydration

mod/severe- bolus of normal saline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Hep B + nephropathy?

A

Membranous nephropathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

treatment for strabismus (nasal or temporal deviation of one eye)

A

if under 4 mo, no treatment

if over 4mo, use eye patch to cover NORMAL eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

what do you do about vaccines if a baby is preterm?

A

give vaccines by chronological age (normally) not by gestational age if infant is healthy. the exception is hep B, the first shot should be given when the infant in min 2 kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

trauma to posterior oral pharynx followed by hemiplegia is most likely due to what

A

ICA dissection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

how do you work up signs of early puberty?

A
  1. bone scan- to see if its truly precocious puberty or just precious adrenarche and precocious thelarche
  2. then check LH levels to diff btw central and peripheral
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

follow up for cat bite in vaccinated child

A

amoxicillin clavunate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

when is the autism screen

A

18 mo

2 yo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

when does the vision screen start

A

4 yo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

when does depression screen start

A

12 yo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

rotavirus is administered at what age

A

2-8 mo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

when is the meningococcal vax

A

11/12 years and at 16

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

management of newborn with mom who has HBsAg+

A
  • passive immunization with Immunoglobulin against HepB
  • Hep B vax (active imm)
    within 12 hours of birth
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

edwards syndrome trisomy 18

A

microceph, micrognathia, absent palmar creases, rockerbottom ft, and VSD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

how to tell apart thalassemia from iron def?

A

thal has low retic count and high RDW

iron def has high retic count and normal RDW

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

kid with bilateral sensorineural deafness who suddenly drops and has FH of sudden death and

A

Jervell and Lange Neilson syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

whats the treatment for Jervell and Lange Neilson syndrome?

A

beta blocker and pacemaker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

HSP symptoms

A
  1. non blanching palpable purpura on buttocks and thighs
  2. GI symptoms
  3. arthralgia
  4. renal disease- hematuria
    (note there is NO platelet abnormality!!!!)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Tourette’s syndrome is comorbid with what diseases?

A

OCD (can develop 3-6 yrs after first tic) and ADHD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

how is Duchenne’s different from Becker’s muscular dystrophy

A

sign/symptoms such as Gower’s usually seen earlier in DMD (less than 5yo), BMD has a later onset 5-15.
DMD is more severe because there is NO dystrophin, where as BMD has decreased levels of dystrophin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

thrombocytopenia+ anemia + evidence of hemolysis following GI distress is most likely

A

HUS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

what is anemia of prematurity

A

low levels of EPO in premies and frequent blood draws in NICU can cause this–
normocytic normochromic RBC, with normal retic count, and low Hbg levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

what are the 3 broad causes of meningitis and whats in the CSF??

  1. bacterial
  2. viral
  3. TB
A
  1. neutrophil predom, low glucose
  2. lymphocyte predom, normal gluc
  3. lymphocyte predom, low glucose
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

whats a superficial infantile hemangioma?

A

aka strawberry hemangioma

a capillary tumor, should regress, but if it is very disfiguring or harming baby you can given propanalol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

whats the management guideline for UTIs in children

A

if <2 yr need 1-2 wk of antibiotics, and renal ultrasound to work up
if renal scarring seen, if culprit is bug other than EColi, or if under 1 mo, get a voiding cystogram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

how to diagnose ADHD?

A

need evidence of symptoms for >6mo in TWO settings, therefore usually need teacher to complete evaluations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

how can you differentiate between nonclassic CAH and idiopathic precocious puberty?

A

nonclassic CAH is a peripheral defect, so it either has low LH levels and/or doesn’t respond to GnRH stimulation
idiopathic precocious puberty is a central defect, and DOES respond with increase in LH to GnRH stim

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

intraventricular hemorrhage

A

common in underweight neonates and preemies. Can cause decreased absortion from the arachnoid villi causing communicating hydrocephalus. Presents as hypotonia, and acutely increasing HC. Use serial US to diagnose.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

nightly pain in bilateral LE in children 2-12?

A

Growing pains- etiology unknown. Reassure parents, teach stretching, OTC motrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

doll face + lactic acidosis/ hypoglycemia + hepatomegaly?

A

G6PD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

clean catch urine sample vs urine cath for UA? when would you prefer the cath?

A

for kiddos in diapers! bc clean catch will not be TRULY clean

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

systemic onset juvenile idiopathic arthritis

A
  • pink maculopapular rash
  • oligoarthritis
  • worse in morning
  • elevated inflammatory markers, wbc, platelets
  • anemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

when should a child babble and respond to her name by?

A

6 mo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

how can you tell if a rhinosinusitis is viral or bacterial?

A
  • bacterial if it lasts >10 days, if it gets worse after initially getting better, or if its VERY SEVERE for >3 days.
  • if any of these things are true, treat with amoxicillin+ clavunate.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

CMV vs toxo pregnancy exposure?

A

CMV- no hydrocephalus, intra VENTRICULAR calcifications

Toxo- diffuse intracerebral calcifications, hydrocephalus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

most common risk factor for orbital cellulitis ( redness, proptosis, decreased EOM)

A

sinusitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

AUB is what

A

menses in <21 days or >45 days
during adolescence b/c of anovulatory cycles due to immature HPO axis.
can cause painless, heavy bleeding

97
Q

Neimann Pick vs Tay Sachs

A

NP- sphingomyelinase deficiency, + hepatosplenomegaly

TS- B hexaminidase def

98
Q

hydroxyurea side-effects?

A

MYELOSUPPRESSION

99
Q

what can make an HCM murmur louder?

A
  • decreasing preload by Valsalva, NO, or suddenly standing.
100
Q

what constitutes the different severity of TBI and whats the f/u?

A

mild- glagow=15; no loss of consciousness/vomitting, normal exam —> send home w/ f/u instructions
moderate- glasgow=15 but evidence of loss of consciousness/vomitting, abnormalities in exam —-> do a non-contrast CT, or watch in ED for 4-6 hrs
severe- glasgow<13, prolonged loss of consciousness>5 min —-> admit to inpatient with neuro exam every 2 hr

101
Q

cow’s milk: when to introduce and how much?

A

after 1 yo
limit to LESS than 24 oz of milk which is about 3 glasses.
- too much cow’s milk can cause iron deficiency!

102
Q

FT asymptomatic baby with a diffuse blanching rash

A

Erythema Toxicum Neonatum – spontaneously resolved w/in 2 wks of birth

103
Q

what are Howell Jolly bodies?

A

on Wright stain, its a single blue dot in the RBC which is a nuclear remnant. It indicated a splenectomy of functional hyposplenemia

104
Q

neonatal vaginal bleeding and discharge?

A

maternal hormone withdrawal. In utero, baby is getting estrogen and builds endometrial lining, within 2 wks of birth, the lack of estrogen can cause bleeding. This is self-limited, reassurance.

105
Q

scaly erythematous bald spot on AA child’s scalp?

A
  • Tinea Capitus a dermatophyte infection
    confirm with KOH prep of hair stub
    treat with griseofulvin or terbinafine
    give selenium or ketoconazole shampoo to close contacts.
106
Q

whats pressure induced alopecia?

A

after prolonged surgery, pressure on scalp can cause transient hair loss.

107
Q

what is polycythemia of the infant? what causes it? complications?

A

Hematocrit >65%
most common cause- late clamping of umbilical cord
- in utero hypoxia due to maternal htt, db, or IUGR
- increased viscosity can cause poor organ perfusion, ex tachypnea

108
Q

recurrent fractures + joint hypermobilit?

A
OI (type I collagen)
NOT ED (type IV collagen), b/c there are no fractures in ED
109
Q

what are the indications for emergent surgical synovial fluid drainage?

A
  • synovial aspiration shows leukocyte >100,000 with neutrophil >90%
110
Q

what does a FAS baby/kiddo look like?

A
  1. small palpebral fissures
  2. absent philtrum
  3. thin vermillion border.
111
Q

what is cyclic vomitting syndrome?

A

regular, recurrent episodes of self limited vomitting without symptoms between vomits.
often has FH of migraine.

112
Q

treatment for chlamydial conjunctivitis?

A
  • ORAL erythromycin/azithromycin (not topical!!!!)
113
Q

pink stains or brick dust in diaper?

A

uric acid crystals. can be normal in neonates, only concern for dehydration if there are other findings on PE.

114
Q

choleastoma?

A
  • can be congenital or acquired due to recurrent middle ear infections
  • suspicion if new hearing loss or chronic ear discharge
  • skin and debris, retraction pocket in TM.
115
Q

purulent conjunctivitis DOL 2-5 caused by?
watery conjunctivitis DOL 5-12?
which one does topical erythromycin prevent?

A

NG
Chlamydia
erythromycin prophylaxis only prevents NG

116
Q

isolated, painless gross hematuria with no other UA abnormalities?

A

-renal papillary necrosis

117
Q

SSSS vs TEN?

A

TEN involves oral mucosa typically.

118
Q

3 mo - 10 yrs most common cause of meningitis

> 11?

A
  1. S. Pneumo.

2. N. Meningitis (greater than 11, this is the primary cause)

119
Q

<3 mo most common cause of meningitis

A
  1. GBS
  2. EColi
  3. Listeria
  4. HSV
120
Q

subhorreic dermatitis?

A
  • cradle cap + eyebrows, behind ears, nasolabial folds etc.
    caused by malassezia
    tx- nonscented shampoo, emollients
121
Q

measles vs rubella

A
  • measles: high grade, cervical adenopathy, SLOW cephalocaudal spread aka seen on head for several days before spreading to trunk
  • rubella: low grade fever, posterior auricular/suboccipital lymph, arthralgia, RAPID cephalocaudal spread moves to trunk in one day
122
Q

recurrent UTI + constipation?

A
  • severe chronic constipation can cause distension of rectum and block urine flow causing urinary stasis. this urinary stasis increases risk of infection.
123
Q

transient synovitis vs septic arthritis

A
  • to tell the difference see if the kiddo has (1) fever (2) elevated WBC (3) can bear weight or not
    if these are all normal, transient synovitis is more likely and joint aspiration is not needed, just wait and watch with ibuprofen
124
Q

newborn cyanosis worse with feeding, better with crying?

A

choanal atresia

125
Q

scabies treatment?

A
  • 5% topical premethrin

- or oral Ivermectin

126
Q

how to prevent congenital rubella?

A

passed mom–> baby in 1st trimester

therefore only prevented by pre-conception vax of mom

127
Q

most common cause of rabies in US

A

bat

128
Q

Alport Syndrome?

A
  • proteinuria, hematuria
  • alt thin/thick cap loops, splitting of GBM
  • sensorineural deafness
129
Q

DiGeorge Syndrome clinical features?

A
CATCH: 
conotruncal abnormalities 
Abnormal facies 
Thymic aplasia/hypoplasia 
Cleft Palate
HYPOCALCEMIA
130
Q

IVH risk factors?

A

prematurity, low birth weight

131
Q

what are lab findings in JIA?

A

anemia, HYPERferritinemia
hypergammaglobinemia
elevated ESR, and CRP
thrombocytosis

132
Q

1st line NONSTIMULANT treatment for ADHD?

A

Atomoxetine ( NE reuptake inhibitor)

133
Q

Reyes syndrome liver biopsy will show?

A

MICROvesicular fatty changes

134
Q

fever/fatigue + exudative pharyngitis+ cervical lymphadenopathy WITH RASH AFTER AMOXICILLIN OR AMPICILLIN ????

A

EBV, mono

135
Q

slipped capital femoral epiphysis

A

when the femoral head is not in line with the femoral neck. seen in adolescent, obese kiddos.
presents as: hip and knee pain. cannot abduct hip, can not IR hip, cannot ER hip when knee flexed.

136
Q

treatment of SCFE?

A
  • surgical pinning of the femoral head to prevent compications of avascular necrosis and chondrolysis
137
Q

use of dapsone, nitrites, and topical analgesics like lidocaine/benzocaine can cause cyanosis why?

A
  • methemoglobinemia
138
Q

whats a way to differentiate btw Freidrich’s and GBS?

A
  • Freidrich also has loss of position and vibration.

Freidrich is accompanied by scoliosis and changes in spinal cord

139
Q

eye problems in a kiddo with NF1?

A

optic pathway glioma (15% likely in <6 yo)

140
Q

who needs iron supp?

A

premies exclusively breast fed

FT babies, have Fe stores for 4-6 mo regardless of nutrition

141
Q

infant with bloody stools + eczema + throw up after feeds is most likely due to????
whats the treatment?

A

milk protein allergy

- t(x) ask mom to stop having milk/soy and she can continue to BF, switch baby to hydrolyzed formula

142
Q

Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis?

A
  • lytic bone lesions (usually in skull but can also be in long bone)
  • skin lesions/ rash
  • DI (increased urinary freq)
  • pulmonary cysts and nodules
  • lymphadenopathy
143
Q

pyloric stenosis treatment?

A

normalize electrolytes and IV fluids before going into surgery as this can decrease risk of postoperative apnea and improve outcome

144
Q

isolated early pubic hair devpt in normal bone age child?

A
  • premature adrenarche, normal Test and Est levels
145
Q

double bubble=? risk factors?

triple bubble=? risk factors?

A
  • duodenal atresia, Down’s Syndrome

- jejunal atresia, - vasoconstrictive meds/cocaine

146
Q

acute lymphadenitis cause?

A
  • S. Aureus or S.Pyogenes
147
Q

most common cause of hypothyroidism in newborn?

A

thyroid dysgenesis

148
Q

criteria to diagnose Tourette’s

A

(1) multiple motor + atleast one vocal tic
(2) lasts greater than one year
(3) symptoms start under 18

149
Q

treatment for tourette?

A

habit reversal therapy
alpha2agonists like clonidine
antipsychotics like haloperidol and risperidone

150
Q

swallowed battery management?

A
  • if in esophagus, then immediate endoscopic removal

- if distal to esophagus 90% will pass uneventfully

151
Q

conditions seen in sickle cell carrier

A

hematuria

hypoesthenuria

152
Q

Reye Syndrome

A
  • encephalopathy in setting of no fever and normal CSF with increased opening pressure
  • elevated liver enzymes
153
Q

how to treat suspected osteomyelitis in SCD pts?

A
  • do vanc/oxacillin AND ceftriaxone
154
Q

cerebral palsy

A

nonprogressive motor function with uncoordinated or limited movements. can present as
“equinovarus deformity” both feet pointing down and inward. hypertonia and hyperreflexia most common

155
Q

main risk factor for cerebral palsy

A
  • multifactorial

- prematurity

156
Q

kallman syndrome

A
  • anosmia + delayed puberty but normal internal genitalia
  • low FSH and LH
  • normal karyotype
157
Q

streptococcal perianal dermatitis

A

well demarckated, bright red, itchy, painful (esp with stools) rash around anus.
esp in school age child

158
Q

anaphylaxis definition

A
  • involvement of >2 systems

- hypotension following allergen

159
Q

pre-septal vs pre-orbital cellulitis

A

cellulitis often caused by an abrasion

- preseptal does not involve muscles or fat so no proptosis or EOM changes.

160
Q

HSP common complication

A

ileoilial intusseception

161
Q

when is measles vax given?

A

1 yr and 4 yr

if planning to travel internationally GIVE if between 6-11 mo

162
Q

name the Lyme rash

A

Erythema migrans

163
Q

nephroblastoma (Wilms) vs neuroblastoma

A

wilms- doesn’t cross midline, 3-5 yo

neuroblastoma- cross midline <1 yo

164
Q

the growth curve of constitutional growth delay

A

born at a normal ht and wt, btw 6 mo-3 yrs kid falls to lower percentile abruptly. Kid continues to track at that percentile

165
Q

signs of neonatal meningitis

A
fever or hypothermia 
decreased feeds
mild jaundice 
CNS signs of lethargy or irritability 
abnormal wbc count
166
Q

glacactosemia is a defect in _____ which causes what ?

A

galactose 1P uridyl transferase

- hypoglycemia, failure to thrive, jaundice, bilateral cataracts

167
Q

how are galactokinase def, galactosemia (G1P uridyl transferase), and galactose 4 epimerase deficiency different?

A

galactosemia- bilat cataracts, hypoglycemia, jaundice, FTT
galactokinase only has the bilateral cataracts
epimerase def- has symptoms of galactosemia + nerve deafness and hypotonia

168
Q

how to tell apart AML and ALL on smear?

A
  • AML has Auer rods, also has peroxidase + material

- ALL - has peroxidase neg, but PAS pos.

169
Q

what are signs of XLA?

A
  • recurrent sinopulmonary infections
  • GI infections
  • small lymph tissue, like tonsils
  • symptoms after 6 mo old
170
Q

herpangina vs HSV gingivostomatitis

A

herpangina- caused by Cocsackie, posterior oropharynx gray lesions. seasonal
HSV- anterior oropharynx, HSV,

171
Q

emergency oral contraception?

A

levongestrel
ulipristal
- delay ovulation

172
Q

laryngomalacia

A

inspiratory stridor thats worse when supine.

clinical diagnosis with laryngoscopy to confirm

173
Q

scrotum is transilluminated,whats the next step?

A
  • its a hydrocele, not a hernia so just leave it alone, should self resolve in 1 yr.
174
Q

what are the Parinaud symptoms, what tumor is it associated with?

A
  • eye lid retraction
  • limited upward gaze
  • light near dissociation (pupils that respond to accomodation not to light)
    assn with Pineal tumor
175
Q

signs of central precocious puberty, how to evaluate?

A
  • adv bone age + high LH

- evaluate by brain MRI

176
Q

Edwards Syndrome features

A

trisomy 18

- rocker bottom ft, closed fist overlapping digits, microcephaly, micrognathia, prominent occiput, IUGR

177
Q

bed wetting is normal before age??

A

5 yo

178
Q

how to decrease risk of SIDS

A
  • no smoking
  • firm mattress
  • no pacifiers or other things in bed
  • no side or supine sleep
  • no sleep with caretaker
179
Q

what is Legg Calve Perthes syndrome?

A

idiopathic avascular necrosis in boys 5-7

180
Q

what are signs of slipped capital femoral epiphysis

A

an obese boy btw 10-13 who has his hip externally rotated. youll notice the femur shaft and head don’t perfectly line up on XRAY.

181
Q

Fanconi Anemia

A
  • macrocytic anemia
  • due to chromosomal breaks
  • pancytopenia with low platelets so increased bleeding
  • cafe au lait
182
Q

what are the specific and nonspecific signs of congenital syphillis

A

specific : snuffles, long bone lucency, rash on palms and or soles that desquamates/ or bullous
nonspecific: jaundice, blue berry muffin rash

183
Q

most common cause of otitis externa?

A
  • Pseudomonas A.

Staph aureus can also be common

184
Q

in a baby with flaccid paralysis how can you tell apart, Wednig Hoffman, infant botulism, and Guillain Barre

A

werdnig hoffman- mainly LE hypotonia, no eye involvement
infant bot- dont need history of honey spore ingestion**, eye involvement, descending
GB- ascending

185
Q

increased urination in patient with sickle cell trait

A

hyposthenuria = inability of kidneys to concentrate urine, in setting of normal serum sodium

186
Q

cephalohematoma vs caput seccundum

A

cephalo- does not cross suture lines

187
Q

findings of Tricuspid Atresia?

A
  • L axis deviation
  • hypoplastic RV (b/c blood never gets in there)
  • decreased Pulmonary A markings on CXray
  • murmur, in order for kiddo to survive
  • large peaked P waves, bc the RA is working so hard
188
Q

Common Variable Immune deficiency

A

a defect in B cell maturation , which causes recurrent sinusitis, GI , etc, that presents shortly before puberty or in 20’s

189
Q

widened pre-vertebral space + can’t extend neck

A

= RPA

190
Q

why would CF kiddo have increased bleeding?

A

vit K def, so can’t be cofactor for V, VII, IX, X activation

191
Q

ITP vs HUS

A

ITP is isolated thrombocytopenia

HUS- thrombocytopenia, anemia, and renal symptoms

192
Q

RDS risk factors

A
#1. prematurity 
also maternal db, Csection without labor, male sex, perinatal asphysxia
193
Q

treatment of lyme disease for kiddo under 8 yo

A

oral amoxicillin

or oral cefuroxime

194
Q

what kind of alkalosis does pyloric stenosis cause

A

hypochloremic, hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis

195
Q

most common adolescent/adult onset muscular dystrophy?

A

myotonic muscular dystrophy type 1, autosomal dom

196
Q

how to work up increased lead in blood levels

A

get a venous lead level to confirm

start chelation therapy if >45

197
Q

low bicarb, high chlorine, alkalotic urine, acidemia w/FTT

A

RTA

198
Q

how to tell apart pituitary adenoma and craniopharyngioma

A

craniopharyngioma is calcified

199
Q

horner’s syndrome in child with paravertebral mass is ?

A

neuroblastoma

200
Q

hemihyperplegia, macrosomia, reducible umbilical hernia, protruding tongue are concerning for

A

Beckwidth Wiedemann Syndrome

201
Q

appropriate management of Beckwidth Wiedemann syndrome?

A

abdominal US and serum afp every 3 mo from birth to 4 yo
abdominal US every 3 mo from 4-8
renal US 8+

bc of high risk of wilms tumor and hepatoblastoma

202
Q

describe dermatitis herpetiforms, assn?

A

vesicular extensor surface rash

celiac

203
Q

most common cause of bacterial sinusitis

A

viral URI

204
Q

congenital adrenal hyperplasia

A

defect in 21 aOHlase, causes decreased 11BOhlase and therefore low aldosterone– salt wasting, dehydration
- increased 17 hydroxyprog, hypervirilization

205
Q

how to work up parapneumonic pleural effusion

A

sm effusion with no resp distress - oral ab’s

medium/lg effusion or resp distress or hypoxia- IV ab, US, drainage

206
Q

foreign body aspiration, whats next?

A

bronchoscopy

207
Q

what is reactive attachment disorder

A
  • can be related to history of abuse or trauma

- child does not seek comfort, is not comforted, can have flat social affect

208
Q

most common bacterial infection of CF

A

before 20 yo- S.Aureus

after 20 yo- P. Auereginosa

209
Q

how to tell apart croup and HIB epiglottitis?

how does the initial management differ

A

both have the inspiratory stridor
but HIB also has drooling, and tripod positioning (sitting up and leaning forward)

  • croup: corticosteroids or epi neb
  • HIB- ET tube, or tracheostomy
210
Q

how can you tell vascular rings apart from laryngomalacia?

A
  • vasc rings are better with neck extension

- laryngomalacia is better in prone position

211
Q

hints that baby has developmental dysplasia of the hip

A
  • clunk on Ortalani and Barlow maneuvers
  • leg length discrepancy
  • asymmetric skin folds
212
Q

working up developmental dysplasia of the hip

A
  • <4 mo do ultrasound

>4 mo do XRAY

213
Q

how to know if its an exudate

A

(1) fluid protein: serum protein >0.5
(2) fluid LDH: serum LDH >0.6
(3) fluid LDH is upper 2/3 of normal

214
Q

lymphopenia (low Tcells)+ hypogammaglobulinemia (low differentiation from IgG to other Ig’s) is indicative of

A

SCID

215
Q

tinea corporis 1st line tx

A

topical clotrimazole, terbinafine

216
Q

what are breath holding spells

A

(1) cyanotic, cries really hard holds breath, passes out

(2) pallid, gets hurt, hold breath, pass out

217
Q

sunburst pattern

A

osteosarcoma

218
Q

single lucent spot on bone xray

A

osteoid osteoma

219
Q

splenic sequestration, platelet ct ? retic?

A
  • platelets decreased

- retic increased

220
Q

signs of an intentional burn

A
  • clear demarcation
  • same depth of all burn
  • spares flexors areas
221
Q

immune thrombocytopenia treatment

A

if only cutaneous symptoms- watch&wait, should resolve w/in 6 mo
if mucosal bleeding- give corticosteroids and IVIG

222
Q

Angelmann vs PWD

A

Angelman is deletion of maternal gene 15q11q13

PWD is a deletion of paternal gene 15q11q13

223
Q

Down’s Syndrome with UMN findings

A

atlanto-axial instability

224
Q

SCID tx

A

urgent stem cell transplant

225
Q

how to work up bilious emesis

A
  1. get IV fluids, NG tube decompression
  2. get xray
    - if xray shows gasless– get upper GI series
    - if dilated loops of gas noticed, get contrast enema
    - free air– emergency surgery
226
Q

most common cause of lymphadenitis in kiddos

A

staph aureus

gas

227
Q

what is Adam Stokes

A

arrhythmia induced syncope or seizure

228
Q

J -wave (osborn wave)

A

immediately following QRS, caused by hypothermia (can also be caused by hypercalcema, or subarachnoid hemorrhage)

229
Q

GDM + prematurity puts baby at risk for seizure and prolonged QTc why?

A

because more likely to have hypocalcemia which can cause these things

230
Q

if mom is HIV+ how do you manage the newborn?

A

AZT within 12 hours of delivery for 6 wks

231
Q

why would a DM1 patient have hyponatremia?

A

hyperglycemia can cause pseudohyponatremia by shifting H2O out and diluting the Na

232
Q

what is a AE of TMP SMX

A
  • neutropenia
233
Q

new systolic murmur + fever should make you think?

A

endocarditis!

234
Q

when is precocious puberty

A

<8 yo girls

<9 you boys

235
Q

how to tell apart viral meningitis from TB, cryptococcal, and treponema pallidum

A

in viral, the protein and glucose are elevated

in TB, crypto, and Tpallidum, the protein is very very high and glucose very very low

236
Q

whats a “flow” murmur

A

grade 1-II mid systolic murmur

237
Q

trisomy 18

A

microcephaly, micrognathia, prominent occiput
rocker bottom feet
fingers crossing eachother in fist

238
Q

what antibiotic for UTI in child

A

cefexime, 3rd gen cefalosporin

239
Q

cherry red spots are seen in what 2 deficiencies

A
Neimann Pick (sphingomyelin) 
and Tay Sachs (B hexosaminidase)