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ped/ger 107 final Flashcards

1
Q

pharmacology definition

A

“The science concerned with the origin,

nature, effects, and uses of drugs”.

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2
Q

drugs definition

A

“Any chemical substance that produces

a biologic response in a living system”.

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3
Q

reasons of Uses of drugs:

A

> Aid in diagnosis of diseases
> Treatment of diseases
> Prevention of diseases

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4
Q

Chemical Name

first manufactured

A

Identifies the actual chemical structure of
the drug

Example: 2-(diphenylmethoxy)-N,N-dimethylethanamine

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5
Q

Sources of Drugs

A

Synthesized in a laboratory – epinephrine

From Mineral - iodine, zinc oxide, magnesium
sulfide

From Plant - digitalis, morphine

From Animal – hormones

From Microorganisms (fungi, molds & bacteria) penicillin, tetracycline, vaccines

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6
Q

Generic Name

A

Given to the drug when it becomes commercially available

Example:  Diphenhydramine
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7
Q

Brand Name (Trademark, Trade Name, Proprietary Name)

A

Brand Name (Trademark, Trade Name, Proprietary Name)

The name given to a drug by the first company that manufactured it.

Example: Benadryl
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8
Q

Drugs are classified by

A

(1) their action or (2) by their legal classification

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9
Q

Oral / Peroral (PO - by mouth)

A

Swallowed

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10
Q

Sublingual =

buccal=

A

=under the tongue

=in the pocket between cheek and gums

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11
Q

topical

A 
superficies
 ex: Transdermal (skin surface)
       Conjunctival (conjunctiva) or Intraocular (eye)
        Intranasal (nose)
      Aural (ear)
      Rectal
      Vaginal
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12
Q

Routes of Drug Administration

determined by:

A

Disease being treated
Area of the body being treated
Chemical composition of the drug
Each drug has its own characteristics

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13
Q

Enteric coated

A

prevents absorption in stomach before it gets in small intestine

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14
Q

parenteral

A 
blood stream, muscle, fat
The four most common:
Intravenous (vein)
Intradermal
Subcutaneous (beneath the skin)
Intramuscular (muscle)
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15
Q

enteral

A

direct to stomach

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16
Q

Contraindication

A

Any condition that renders the administration of some drug or treatment improper or undesirable.

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17
Q

Bolus Injection

A

A certain amount of a contrast media injected intravenously over a short period of time.

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18
Q

Bolus

A

An amount of a pharmaceutical preparation.

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19
Q

tablet scored

A

prepared to be cut in half or quarters

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20
Q

SUSPENSION

A

Administered orally, never intravenously!!

should be shaken

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21
Q

Infiltration

A

Diffusion of fluid into a tissue

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22
Q

Extravasation

A

Discharge or escape of fluid from a vessel into the surrounding tissue.

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23
Q

Edema

A

An abnormally large amount of fluid in

the tissues of the body. Swelling.

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24
Q

Ampule

A

Small, sealed glass container that holds a single dose of a parenteral solution in a sterile condition.

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25
Q

Vial

A

A small glass bottle (container) containing many doses of a

drug.

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26
Q

Anaphylaxis

A

Allergic shock.

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27
Q

PHARMACOKINETICS

A

The study of how a drug is absorbed into the
body, circulates within the body, and exits
the body (what the drug does to the body).
4 processes :
absorption (how enters the blood)
distribution (circulatory lymphatic system)
metabolism (how body transform drug, liver)
excretion (out, kidneys)

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28
Q

PHARMACODYNAMICS

A

The study of the effect of the drugs on the body.

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29
Q

Receptor sites

A

a protein molecule located on the cell’s surface or within the cell’s cytoplasm that binds to a specific factor such as a hormone, antigen, or neurotransmitter.
most common drugs, blinds to receptor sites on cells.

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30
Q

epinephrine is an emergency drug commonly found on a cart. Which of the following is an indication for its use?

A

cardiac arrest and anaphylaxis

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31
Q

most common unit of measurement

A

mL = 1/1000

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32
Q

subcutaneous

A

drug placed under skin into the tissue that lies beneath the epidermal layers

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33
Q

means that the drug is administered by a route other than the gastrointestinal tract

A

parenteral

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34
Q

Antagonist

A

A drug that is designed to inhibit or counteract
effects produced by other drugs or desired effects
caused by cellular components during illness.

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35
Q

Agonist

A

A drug that produces a specific action and promotes the desired result.

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36
Q 
QOD
QD
BID
TID
QID
PO
NPO
A 
EVERY OTHER DAY
EVERYDAY
TWO TIMES A DAY
THREE TIMES A DAY
FOUR TIMES A DAY
BY MOUTH
NOTHING BY MOUTH
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37
Q

contrast media purpose

A

enhance the low subject contrast of anatomic structures

To visualize anatomic structures that are not normally seen on a diagnostic medical image.

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38
Q

if barium sulfate is administered by a patient with perforation of the colon, will cause

A

peritonitis

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39
Q

who discovered air can be used as contrast agent

A

Walter dandy

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40
Q

credited for discovering the disease of the GI tract

A

Walter cannon

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41
Q

general term for the material to be visualize anatomic structures that are not normally seem on x-rays

A

contrast media

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42
Q

all show radiographic densities on x-rays except

A

sulphur

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43
Q

lowest contrast among the 5 densities are water and..

A

fat

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44
Q

contrast media are generally classified as

A

negative and positive

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45
Q

weak x-ray photons are easily absorb by __ contrast media

A

radiopaque

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46
Q

flow rate of barium through a tubing and also influences the mucosal coating of intestinal lumen?

A

viscosity

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47
Q

a complication related to the administration of barium sulfate during GI examination is__ of the colon

A

perforation

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48
Q

anatomic structures are filled with __ contrast agents appears dark (increase density on radiographs, they are also called?

A

radiolucent, negative

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49
Q

radiopaque contrast agents are composed of elements with __ atomics numbers

A

high

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50
Q

correct order scheduling patient types

A

elderly and debilitated, diabetics, children, relatively healthy adults.

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51
Q

contrast exam that is time sequenced procedures

A

biliary and IVP/IVU

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52
Q

what radiographic exams of the esophagus, stomach, and small intestines have in common?

A

they are all administered orally

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53
Q

CT studies of GI tract should be perform before other exams requiring the use of barium sulfate

A

true

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54
Q

when scheduling multiple exams, contrast exam are

A

last

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55
Q

appropriate patient preparation for contrast enema

A

take a laxative or cleansing enema
consume large amounts of fluids
maintain a fluid diet prior the examination

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56
Q

patient preparation for Upper Gastrointestinal (UG) exam

A

patient should consume nothing by mouth on the night prior to procedure

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57
Q

preparation having esophagram

A

no preparation for this procedure

58
Q

preparation for CT scan of the stomach

A

patient should not consume nothing by mouth on the night prior to procedure

59
Q

preparation on small bowel series (small intestine)

A

low residue diet eaten for 2 days before procedure

60
Q

Photoelectric Interaction

A

result in the x-ray photon being totally absorbed and not striking the image receptor

61
Q

Negative contrast

A

Composed of low–atomic number elements

Appears radiolucent on image

62
Q

Positive contrast

A

Composed of higher–atomic number elements

Appears radiopaque on image

63
Q

Specialty Contrast Agents for:

A 
Specialty Contrast Agents for:
Ultrasound
Microbubbles
MR Scanning
Gadolinium diethylenetriaminepentaacetic acid (Gadolinium-DTPA)
64
Q

Why Is Air Not Used More Often as a Contrast Material?

A

low persistent

65
Q

Characteristics of aPerfect Contrast Material

A 
Very high-contrast visualization
Extremely low toxicity to patient
Persistence in patient anatomy until imaging is completed
Low cost
Minimal or no side effects
No residual effects within patient
66
Q

Ionic Contrast Agents

A

Uses iodine as the contrast material
Dissociates into two ions:
Anion
Cation

Ionic media dissociate into two molecular particles in water or blood plasma.
Three iodine atoms are attached to a benzene ring.
R2 and R3 increase solubility and excretion by kidneys.
Methylglucamine increases osmolality.

67
Q

osmolality

A

The measure of the total number of particles in solution per kilogram of water
Ionic contrast agents are HOCM.
Nonionic contrast agents are typically LOCM, as they do not dissociate into cation and anion.

68
Q

Nonionic Contrast Agents

A

Do not dissociate into anions and cations
Water soluble
Six iodine atoms per molecule
Increased solubility in plasma

69
Q

advantages of nonionic

low osmolality

A

No ionic breakdown and less toxic at cellular level
More water soluble in blood plasma
Warmed to increase viscosity
Less likely to cause patient reaction
More tolerable by patients
High contrast effect resulting from number of iodine atoms per molecule (concentration)
Reduced injection volumes

70
Q

Anaphylactoid Reactions

A 
Urticaria
Wheezing
Throat swelling (edema)
Bronchospasm
Nausea
Vomiting
Cardiac arrest
71
Q

Normal levels are:

A

BUN: 8 – 25 mg/dl
Creatinine: 0.6 – 1.5 mg/dl
Levels above the normal indicate renal disease

72
Q

GFR – Glomerular Filtration Rate

A

used to evaluate renal function.
Normal level range – 120 to 125 mL/min
90 mL/min or less indicates renal dysfunction

73
Q

Radiopharmaceuticals

A 
Not contrast agents
Radioactive material chemically attached
Biodistribution is important.
Typically emit gamma radiation
Detected by gamma camera in nuclear department
74
Q

5 radiographic densities

A 
Air (gas)
Fat
Water
Mineral 
Metal
75
Q

Radiographic Procedures Using Water Soluble Contrast Media

A 
Joints
  Arthrography
  Knee
  Wrist
Urinary system 
  Kidneys
  Ureters
Salivary Glands
  Sailography
ducts
lymph nodes 
Biliary system
Reproductive system (female) 
     Hysterosalpingography
Lower Limbs 
Venography
Spinal Canal 
 Myelography
Heart & Coronary Arteries
Cardiac Catherization
76
Q

Arthrography

A

radiographic examination of the soft tissue structures of joints after the injection of contrast media

77
Q

Cystography

A

general term for examination of the bladder

78
Q

Cystoureterography

A

–examines the bladder and lower ureters

79
Q

Cystourethrography

A

examines bladder and ureters.

80
Q

Chain Cystogram

A

Examines the female urinary system exam

81
Q

Excretory/Intravenous Urography

A

Studies the function of the urinary system.
Bolus injection into a vein.
Drip infusion – slower than bolus; more comfortable; least likely to cause reaction.

82
Q

Pyelography

A

the term pyelography refers to radiographic demonstration of the renal pelves and calyces.

83
Q

Cholecyst

cholecystogram

A

gallbladder

examination of gallbladder with contrast agent

84
Q

Percutaneous Transhepatic Cholangiography (PTC)

A

Done to check for stones post cholecystectomy

85
Q

Endoscopic Retrograde Cholangiopancreatography (ERCP)

A

Fiberoptic camera threaded through mouth, down to duodenum, to ampulla of Vater to evaluate bile duct and pancreas

86
Q

Myelography

A

General term applied to the radiologic examination of the CNS structures situated in the vertebral canal
Contrast introduction intrathecally into the subarachnoid space by spinal puncture
Puncture made at L2-L3 or L3-L4 space
Postprocedure monitoring required
Head and shoulders elevated 30 to 45 degrees

87
Q

metformin ( glucophage) is a drug used to

A

treat type 2 diabetes

88
Q

analgesic drugs

A

relieve pain

89
Q

company assign a name

A

brand name

90
Q

experienced by patients who abruptly discontinue of an antidepressant

A

withdrawal effects

91
Q

elevated levels of BUN and creatinine (waste product of metabolism)

A

renal disease

92
Q

before administering

A

check label 3 times

93
Q

upper GI series, lumbar spine x-ray, and IVU order

A

lumbar spine
IVU
GI series

94
Q

a possible complication to injection of contrast media include

A

extravasation and embolus

95
Q

when an injection is given in the upper arm or buttocks its is administer via the

A

IM route

96
Q

contrast media that dissociate into 2 molecular particles are known as

A

ionic agents

97
Q

adverse reactions from barium sulfate are very rare, however one such reaction may be in the form of

A

peritonitis

98
Q

equipment usually found in cart

A

blood pressure cuff
ambu bag
epinephrine

99
Q

medication for vomiting

A

antiemetic

100
Q

should not be performed immediately after a contrast enema exam
study of female reproductive system, involves water soluble into falopian tubes

A

hysterosalpingogram

101
Q

radiolucent contrast appears dark is also called

A

negative

102
Q

radio-opacity of the contrast media depends on

A

the percentage of iodine in the molecule

the concentration of the contrast media

103
Q

professional licensed to prepare and dispense drugs

A

pharmacist

104
Q

what to do if bronchospasm

A

suspend and use epinephrine

105
Q

creatinine

A

nitrogenous waste metabolism excreted by the kidneys filtration system

106
Q

opacifying element in water soluble contrast media

A

iodine

107
Q

pyelogram

A

visualizing the collecting system of the kidneys

108
Q

myelogram

A

exam which the contrast agent is administer into the lumbar subarachnoid space

109
Q

rights of drug administration

A 
The Right Drug
The Right Amount (Dosage/Strength)
The Right Patient
The Right Time
The Right Route
The right Documentation
The Right Reason
The Right Response
110
Q

contraindications to an IVU exam

A

renal failure

elevated creatinine levels

111
Q

solution

A

is a dosage form in which one or more drugs are dissolved in a liquid carrier

112
Q

BUN blood urea nitrogen

A

to determine whether the kidneys or liver are functioning properly

113
Q

distractions techniques for pediatrics

A 
books
songs
favorite interest
counting
nursery rhymes
relaxation techniques such as deep breathing
114
Q

ewing sarcoma

A

second most common malignant tumor in children

115
Q

which age group uses a blanket or towel to make more manageable

A

0 to 2 years

116
Q

by 12 months the child

A

develop memories ideas and feelings

117
Q

2 main problems for radiographers confidence are

A

communication and immobilization

118
Q

unexplained drooling or inability to swallow

A

ingestion of a foreign body

119
Q

legg calve perthes disease and congenital dislocation

A 
hip 
characterized by
no blood supply to joint
necrosis
weakened bone
fracture
120
Q

short stature, triangular shaped face, breathing problems, brittle teeth and hearing loss, blue sclera of the eye, bone deformities

A

osteogenesis imperfecta

121
Q

upper limb of preschooler best examined

A

patient seated in parents lap

122
Q

used to evaluate skeletal maturation in pediatric

A

bone age

PA hand and wrist

123
Q

most common location of foreign body

A

right side of the bronchial tree

124
Q

must be perform while child is awake

A

chest x-rays

125
Q

infant age group

A

1 to 12 months

126
Q

toddler age group

A

1 to 3 years

127
Q

adolescent age group

A

12 to 18 years

128
Q

classic indicators of child abuse

A

greenstick fractures

129
Q

ideal age for unexperienced radiographers

A

6 to 8

130
Q

childhood pathologies

A 
osteogenesis imperfecta
osteochondroma
osteoid osteoma
scoliosis
aneurysmal bone cyst
131
Q

Physical Effects geriatric

A

Reduction in balance, strength, and reaction time.

Decline in sight, hearing, taste, and smell.

132
Q

Cognitive Effects

A

Cognitive Effects

133
Q

Dementia

A

progressive, cognitive impairment that interferes with daily function.
Alzheimer’s disease – most common form.

134
Q

Most common skin diseases

geriatric

A

Herpes zoster (shingles)
Malignant tumors
Decubitus ulcers

135
Q

Hysposmia

A

loss of the ability to smell

Decreased appetite & irregular eating habits

136
Q

Osteoporosis

A

Reduction in bone mass and density

Bone becomes porous and spongy

137
Q

Osteoarthritis (OA)

A

The second most common cause of
disability in the US
Symptoms – pain; swelling; decreased
range of motion in joints

138
Q

Cardiovascular diseases

A

the most common cause of death worldwide

139
Q

Atherosclerosis

A

fatty plaque in arterial walls; predominant change in blood vessels

140
Q

Diabetes mellitus

A

The most common age-related endocrine system disease

141
Q

Prostate ca

A

3rd most common ca in men

80% of tumors are found after age 65

Duncan (3 decks)

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