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GEN 3020 > Pearson Unit 4 Homework > Flashcards

Pearson Unit 4 Homework Flashcards

1
Q

Restriction endonucleases are especially useful if they generate “sticky” ends. What makes an end sticky?

A

single-stranded complementary tails

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2
Q

List two especially useful characteristics of cloning vectors.

A

high copy number and antibiotic resistance gene(s)

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3
Q

One of the primary reasons for generating a large number of clones in a eukaryotic genomic library is that ________.

A

each vector can take up only a relatively small fraction of the eukaryotic DNA

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4
Q

Assume that a plasmid (circular) is 3200 base pairs in length and has restriction sites at the following locations: 400, 700, 1400, 2600. Give the expected sizes of the restriction fragments following complete digestion.

A

300, 700, 1000, 1200

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5
Q

DNA fragments cut by restriction enzymes can form two types of ends. What are these ends called?

A

Sticky and blunt ends

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6
Q

Which features make yeast artificial chromosomes (YACs) an excellent cloning tool?

A

In their linear form, YACs contain telomeres at each end for stability, an origin of replication, and they can be used to clone up to 2-Mb pairs of DNA. A YAC also contains a yeast centromere along with selectable markers and a number of restriction sites. This allows for the insertion of up to 2-Mb pairs of DNA.

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7
Q

Why are filters overlaid with X‑ray film when screening a cDNA library?

A

To visualize probe hybridization events

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8
Q

Chromosome walking is used mainly to isolate a gene when the sequence of the gene is known.

A

False. Chromosome walking is used mainly when the gene of interest has not yet been cloned but its approximate location on a chromosome is known.

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9
Q

What is a probe in molecular biology?

A

a DNA or an RNA molecule used in hybridization reactions

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10
Q

Which type of DNA library represents the genes expressed by a given cell at a certain time?

A

cDNA

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11
Q

The role of the primers in PCR is _______.

A

to define the target region and provide a 3’ end that can be extended by taq polymerase

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12
Q

If there are five molecules of DNA containing the target region at the beginning of a PCR reaction, how many copies of the target will be present after three rounds of amplification?

A

40

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13
Q

Immediately after the primers have annealed to the target sequence, _______.

A

the temperature is raised so that taq polymerase can extend the primers

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14
Q

Northern blots are used to study what type of molecule?

A

RNA

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15
Q

DNA sequencing by the Sanger method employs which of the following for chain termination?

A

Dideoxynucleotides

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16
Q

The study of orthologs would be useful to determine the function of a specific gene in a species.

A

True

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17
Q

Which program in the Human Genome Project was designed to ensure that personal genetic information would not be used in discriminatory ways?

A

ELSI

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18
Q

What is metabolomics?

A

the analysis of proteins and enzymatic pathways involved in cell metabolism

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19
Q

Which of the following statements about genomes is true?

A

The number of genes in eukaryotic genomes is not necessarily correlated with the amount of DNA in the genome.

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20
Q

What is a homology search?

A

A homology search could compare ORF sequences with sequences in the sequence databases.

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21
Q

The study of genomic data collected from environmental samples is called ________.

A

metagenomics

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22
Q

Annotation of the human genome sequence reveals a discrepancy between the number of protein-coding genes and the number of predicted proteins actually expressed by the genome. Proteomic analysis indicates that human cells are capable of synthesizing more than 100,000 different proteins and perhaps three times this number. What is the discrepancy, and how can it be reconciled?

A

Increased protein production from approximately 20,000 genes is probably related to alternative splicing and various posttranslational processing schemes. In addition, a particular DNA segment may be read in a variety of ways and in two directions.

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23
Q

Which of the following statements does not accurately describe gene microarrays?

A

They contain thousands of different spots of protein.

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24
Q

Which one of the following are not hallmarks used to identify genes in an unknown prokaryotic sequence?

A

5’ and 3’ intron splice sites

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25
Q

Which one of the following are not hallmarks used to identify genes in an unknown eukaryotic sequence?

A

operator sequences

26
Q

What are pseudogenes, and how are they produced?

A

Pseudogenes are nonfunctional versions of genes that resemble gene sequences but contain significant nucleotide changes, which prevent their expression. They are formed by gene duplication and subsequent mutation.

27
Q

How do high-throughput techniques such as computer-automated and next-generation sequencing and mass spectrometry facilitate research in genomics and proteomics?

A

by allowing rapid analyses and deployment of genomic information

28
Q

All of the following are reasons to generate transgenic crops EXCEPT __________.

A

decreasing the nutritional value of crops

29
Q

(T/F) An RFLP marker that cosegegrates with a disorder exists in most people who have the disorder and is absent in most people who don’t have the disorder.

A

True

30
Q

A portion of the β‑globin allele responsible for sickle‑cell anemia contains the sequence CCTGTGGAG, whereas the same region of the normal β‑globin allele contains the sequence CCTGAGGAG. Which allele would be cut by the restriction enzyme DdeI, which cuts at the sequence CTNAG, where N is any base?

A

Only the normal allele will be cut.

31
Q

The mutation resulting in the allele for sickle‑cell anemia removes a restriction site from the β‑globin gene such that a specific probe hybridizes to one 1.3‑kb fragment instead of two fragments of 1.1 kb and 0.2 kb. What restriction pattern will be seen in sickle‑cell carriers?

A

Three fragments of 1.3, 1.1, and 0.2 kb

32
Q

(T/F) It is currently possible to sequence the DNA isolated from a single cell.

A

True

33
Q

(T/F) An individual possessing a risk allele for a genetic disease will develop the disease.

A

False

34
Q

(T/F) There are an unlimited number of VNTR alleles for each locus, such that every individual has unique alleles at each VNTR locus.

A

False

35
Q

Why are multiple VNTR probes used in DNA fingerprinting?

A

They increase the probability of producing a DNA fingerprint that is unique to an individual.

36
Q

If four different VNTR alleles have frequencies of 1 in 10, 1 in 20, 1 in 50, and 1 in 500 in a population of 250 million, how many people would have all four alleles?

A

50

37
Q

One of the main safety issues associated with genetically modified crops is the potential for allergenicity caused by introducing an allergen or by changing the level of expression of a host allergen. Based on the observation that common allergenic proteins often contain identical stretches of a few (six or seven) amino acids, researchers developed a method for screening transgenic crops to evaluate potential allergenic properties (Kleter & Peijnenburg, 2002. BMC Struct. Biol. 2: 8).

A

Kleter and Peijnenburg conducted a series of alignment comparisons of transgenic sequences with sequences of known allergenic proteins.

38
Q

What must you consider before using this method to screen a population for this disorder?

A

the possibility of false negative results in persons who carry CF mutations that remain to be identified

the cost-effectiveness of the screening of a population for CF mutations

39
Q

Environmental factors typically influence inheritance of ________.

A

polygenic traits

40
Q

How many gene pairs are involved in generating a typical 1:4:6:4:1 ratio?

A

2 gene pairs

41
Q

What is the difference between an additive allele and a nonadditive allele?

A

Additive alleles contribute a constant amount to the phenotype while nonadditive alleles do not contribute quantitatively to the phenotype.

42
Q

Which term describes the procedure of selecting a specific group of organisms from an initially heterogeneous population for future breeding purposes?

A

Artificial Selection

43
Q

Which of the following statements about twins and twin studies is FALSE?

A

Fraternal twins are as close genetically to each other as are monozygotic twins.

44
Q

Phenotypes that exhibit continuous variation are often the result of ________.

A

multifactorial inheritance

45
Q

is a statistic that varies from -1 to +1 and describes the extent to which variation in one trait is associated with variation in another.

A

Correlation

46
Q

___ are chromosome sequences in which multiple genes contribute to a quantitative trait.

A

QTL

47
Q

___ are involved in determining continuously varying or multiple factor traits.

A

Polygenes

48
Q

Each neuron in the human brain contains an average of __________ synapses.

A

1000

49
Q

Which of the following statements about fragile-X syndrome is NOT true?

A

It affects about 1 in 8000 males.

50
Q

The HD gene, one of the first genes to be mapped in humans by RFLP, is located on the short arm of chromosome 4. It codes for the ________protein.

A

huntingtin

51
Q

Which of the following is NOT a reason why it is difficult to study the genetics of behavior in humans?

A

Many forms of behavior are not affected by environmental factors.

52
Q

Normal alleles of the HD gene carry __________ CAG repeats.

A

7-34

53
Q

Describe studies indicating that the degree of DNA methylation (removal or addition), coupled with changes in trinucleotide repeats, can play a role in mental illness.

A

The degree of DNA methylation and changes in trinucleotide repeats are correlated with the severity of mental disease.

54
Q

How have twin studies aided our understanding of the role of DNA methylation in the study of mental illness?

A

Differences in DNA methylation correlate with mental disease states

55
Q

What term is given to the total genetic information carried by all members of a population?

A

gene pool

56
Q

In small isolated populations, gene frequencies can fluctuate considerably. The term that applies to this circumstance is ________.

A

genetic drift

57
Q

What parts of the genome are reversibly methylated?

How does this affect gene expression?

A

CpG-rich regions
promoter sequences

When a gene is imprinted by methylation, it remains transcriptionally silent

58
Q

Choose the correct description of how reversible chemical changes to histones are linked to chromatin modification.

A

Histone modifications alter the structure of chromatin, making genes on nucleosomes accessible or inaccessible for translation.

59
Q

What is the difference between silencing genes by imprinting and silencing by epigenetic modifications?

A

Imprinted alleles are transcriptionally silent in all cells of the organism, whereas epigenetic modifications can be reactivated by environmental signals.

60
Q

Imprinted alleles are transcriptionally silent in all cells of the organism, whereas epigenetic modifications can be reactivated by environmental signals.

A

Circular RNA soaks up miRNAs and allows expression of miRNA targets.

61
Q

Small interfering RNAs (siRNAs)

A

protect cells from exogenous RNAs.

62
Q

Micro RNAs (miRNAs)

A

are involved in regulating gene expression.

GEN 3020 (5 decks)

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