PDX Flashcards

(96 cards)

1
Q

do no harm, never want to give a patient information that you dont is true, dont avoid relevant topics

A

Nonmaleficence

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2
Q

Your actions need to be motivated by what is in the patients best interest

A

Beneficence

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3
Q

Korotkoff Sounds

A

Normally patients blood flow through an artery produces no audible sounds
When a pressure cuff is applied and inflated above the systolic pressure in the artery the collapse stops flow and also produces no audible sounds
as the pressure in the cuff is reduced, the external pressure surrounding the artery becomes less than systolic allowing blood to rush into the artery and produce korotkoff sounds

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4
Q

Blood pressure ranges

A

Normal: <120 / <80
Prehypertension: 120-139/ 80-89
Hypertension 1: 140-159 / 90-99
Hypertension 2: >=160 / >=100

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5
Q

A fall in systolic pressure of 20mmHg or more after standing, especially when accompanied by symptoms and tachycardia
Diastolic fall of > 10

A

Orthostatic hypotension

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6
Q

Causes of Orthostatic Hypotension

A

Drugs, moderare or severe blood loss
prolonged bed rest
diseases of the ANS

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7
Q

Technique for orthostatic hypotension

A

Measure BP/HR with patient supine after patient is resting up to ten min, wait 3 min
Repeat measurements with patient standing

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8
Q

Do you use the bell or diaphragm to measure ausculatory pressure

A

BELL

inflate 30 above

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9
Q

White coat hypertension

A

> 140/90

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10
Q

Pyrexia Fever temp

A

greater than 98.6

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11
Q

Hyperpyrexia fever temp

A

> 106 F

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12
Q

Hypothermia Fever Temp

A

< 95 F

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13
Q

slowed breathing, caused by diabetic coma, drugs, and increased intracranial pressure

A

BRADYPNEA

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14
Q

breathing with freq. sighs caused by hyperventilation syndrome

A

Sighing respiration

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15
Q

rapid shallow breathing caused by restrictive lung disease, pleuritic chest pain, and elevated diaphragm

A

Tachypnea

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16
Q

periods of deep breathing (hyperpnea) followed by periods of apnea (no breathing), may be in children and elederly while sleeping, alo caused by heart failure, uremia, drugs and brain damage

A

Cheyne-Stokes breathing

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17
Q

prolonged expiration b/c narrowed airways, increased resistance to airflow, caused by asthma, chronic bronchitis and COPD

A

Obstructive breathing

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18
Q

hyperventilation = rapid deep breathing, caused by exercise, anxiety, and metabolic acidosis

A

Hyperpnea

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19
Q

= always deep breathing, but can be fast, normal or sloq

A

Kussmaul breathing

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20
Q

(biots breating) = unpredicatble irregularity – may be shallow or deep and stop for short periods, caused by respiratory depression and brain damage

A

Ataxic breathing

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21
Q

= pain is linked to tissue damage to the skin, musculoskeltal system or viscera but the sensory system is intact

A

Nociceptive Pain (somatic)

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22
Q

= is a direct consequence of a lesion or disease affecting the esomatosensory system

A

Neuropathic Pain

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23
Q

= there is alteration of central nervous system processing of sensation, leading to amplification of pain signals

A

Central sensitization pain

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24
Q

This pigment is golden yellow in subcutaneous fat and heavily keratinzed areas (palms/soles)

A

Carotene

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25
Short, fine, nonpigmented hair
Vellus
26
Coarser, thicker, conspicous, usually pigmented hair
Terminal
27
White free edge of nail plate
Lanula
28
Seal between proximal nail fold and nail plate
Cuticle
29
this type of sweat gland is everywhere and regulates body temp
ECCRINE
30
This type of sweat gland is found in the axillary and genital areas, stress stench comes from bacterial decomposition
Apocrine
31
Sebaceous glands produce their fatty substance through
Hair follicles everywhere but palms and soles
32
red, swollen, and tender nail folds
Paronochia
33
enlarged nail free edge
Oncholysis
34
ground glass appearance, distal band of reddish brown, obliteration of lunula (nails)
Terrys Nails
35
white spots on nails
Leukoychia
36
Traverse white bands on nails
Mees Lines
37
Transverse linear depressions on nails
Beaus Lines
38
bulbous swelling of the soft tissue at the nail base, with loss of the normal angle between the nail and proximal nail fold vasodilation congenital heart disease
Nail Clubbing
39
Difference between plaque and papule
Both are elevated superficial lesions Plaque = 1cm or larger Papule = 1cm or lesss
40
Difference between vesicle and bulla
Both are fluid filled cavities Vesicle is 1cm or less Bulla is 1cm or more
41
AKA hives, a raised, itchy wheal that is usually a sign of an allergic reaction
URTICARIA
42
somewhat irregular, relatively transient, superficial area of localized skin edema
Wheal
43
red or purple disclorations on the skin that do not blanch on applying pressure
Purpura
44
visible and palpable leathery induration and thickening of the epidermis , often from chronic rubbing
lichenification
45
blanchable lesions
erythema spider angioma spider vein cherry angioma
46
non blanchable lesions
petechia/purpura ecchymosis
47
Which side of the chest wall is best to hear all the lobes of the lungs
LATERAL SIDE
48
Tracheal Position the trachea bifurcates into its mainstem bronchi at the levels of:
sternal angle anteriorly and T4 spinous process posteriorly
49
funnel chest is characterized by a depression in the lower portion of the sternum, compression of the heart and great vessels may cause murmurs
Pectus Excavatum
50
this chest has an increased anteroposterior diameter This shape is normal during infancy and often accompanies normal aging and COPD
Barrel Chest
51
nonpainful uncomfortable awareness of breathing that is inappropriate to the level of exertion (SOB)
Dyspnea
52
May show this breathing pattern while sleeping
Cheyne-Stokes Breathing
53
diphragmatic excursion length usually
5-6cm
54
Causes of when FREMITUS is decreased or absent:
Very thick chest wall Obstructed bronchus COPD seperation of the pleural surfaces by fluid (pleural effusion) neoplasms
55
What increases fremitus
UNILATERAL pnemonia
56
Abnormally high level for diphragmatic excursion is indicative of
Pleural effusion high diaphragm from atelectasis diaphragmatic paralysis
57
Positive tests of egophony, whispered pectoriloquy, bronchophony indicate
pleural effisions and pneumonia
58
discontinous, intermittent brief, like dots in time
CRACKLES
59
Late Inspiratory Crackles
Interstital lung disease, early CHF
60
Early Inspiratory Crackles
Chronic bronchitis, asthma
61
Midinspiratory and expiratory crackles
Bronchiectasis
62
precordial crackles synchronous with heartbeat, not respiration Best heard in left lateral position due to mediastinal emphysema
Mediastinal Crunch Hammans Sign
63
Continous, relatively high-pitched with hissing or shrill quality Musical, often audible at mouth and through chest wall Narrow airways, astma, COPD, chronic bronchitis, CHF
WHEEZES
64
airway is narrowed so much that wheezing cant be produced
Silent Chest found in severe obstructive pulmonary
65
Wheeze is entirely or predominantly inspiratory Partial obstruction of larynx or trachea
Stridor
66
Continous, musical, low-pitched with snoring quality Secretions in large airways
Rhonchi
67
During diastole there is contraction of and during systole there is contraction of
ATRIA Ventricles -- systole
68
What valves are open during DIASTOLE
TRICUSPID and MITRAL valves (aortic and pulmonic are closed = S2)
69
During SYSTOLE what valbes are closed
TRICUSPID and MITRAL = S1 sound lub
70
The systolic murmur occurs between what
S1 and S2 ASsociated with ventricular ejection
71
Diastolic murmurs occur between
S2 and S1 associated with ventricular relaxing and filling
72
What sound is the atrial sound or atrial gallop
S4
73
JVP reflects pressue in what part
RIGHT ATRIUM elevated JVP -- right side CHF
74
Positive Rovsings Palpation of the LLQ increases the pain felt in the RLQ
APPENDICITIS
75
Positive murphys sign indicates Patient places hand below right anterior costal margin midclavicular and the patient is told to inspire
Cholecytitis
76
sloshing sound when patient moves from side to side
Succussion Splash
77
this can be heard in patients with high blood pressure
BRUITS | if heard in systolic/diastole -- arterial occulusion/insufficency
78
Rebound tenderness suggests
Peritoneal inflammation that can come with appendicitis
79
Positive iliopsoas and obturator test indicate what diagnostically
APPENDICTIS
80
during bowel movements, an intense urge with straining but little or no result
TENESMUS
81
red blood in the stool
Hematochoezia
82
black tarry stools
Melena
83
Smooth large tender liver suggests
Inflammation if NONtender = cirrhosis
84
Kidney enlargement indicates
hydronephrosis, cysts and tumors Bilateral enlargements -- polycystic kidney disease
85
Pyelonephritis is an infection of what
Kidney and ureters
86
indicators of oropharyngeal dysphagia include
Drooling, naopharyngeal regurgitation and cough
87
Odynophagia = pain on swallowing Consider what
esophageal ulceration from radiation
88
an increased hydrostatic pressure in cirrhosis can cause
ASCITES
89
a periumblical or upper abdominal mass with expansile pulsations that are 3cm or more wide would suggest
Abdominal Aortic aneurysm pain may signal a rupture
90
T5-9 Left
Stomach
91
T7-T9 Left
Spleen/Pancreas
92
T6/7-T9
Liver/Gallbladder
93
T9-10
Small Intestine
94
T10-L1
Kidney
95
T10-T11 Right
Right Colon
96
T12-L2 Left
Left Colon