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NEUR 10 > PDF to Anki > Flashcards

PDF to Anki Flashcards

1
Q

What is neuroscience?

A

The study of the nervous system.

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2
Q

Name two parts of the central nervous system.

A

Cerebrum, cerebellum.

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3
Q

What is necessary to view cell bodies under a

A

Staining.

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4
Q

Name a type of stain used for viewing cell bodies.

A

Nissl Stain.

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5
Q

Who proposed the Reticular Theory?

A

Camillio Golgi.

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6
Q

Who proposed the Neuron Doctrine?

A

Santiago Ramon Y Cajal.

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7
Q

What is the functional unit of the nervous system?

A

Neurons.

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8
Q

How do neurons communicate with each other?

A

Through synapses.

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9
Q

What are the two broad categories of nervous

A

Neurons & glia.

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10
Q

What are the inputs in a neuron called?

A

Dendrites.

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11
Q

What integrates all the inputs from the dendrites?

A

Soma.

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12
Q

What is the output in a neuron?

A

Axon.

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13
Q

How many neurons are there in the human brain?

A

~86 billion.

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14
Q

What is the fluid inside the cell membrane called?

A

Cytosol.

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15
Q

What is the process of mRNA binding to a ribosome

A

Translation.

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16
Q

Where are proteins synthesized that go to the

A

Free ribosomes.

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17
Q

What is the term for the process by which DNA is

A

Transcription.

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18
Q

What are the cellular organelles involved in protein

A

Nucleus, mitochondria, Golgi apparatus, etc.

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19
Q

What determines the differences between cells?

A

Genes that are transcribed and translated

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20
Q

What proportion of the human genome does the

A

About 1/3 of the 20,000 genes.

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21
Q

What is the primary function of mitochondria?

A

To produce ATP (adenosine triphosphate).

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22
Q

What are the components of cellular respiration in

A

Glycolysis, Kreb’s cycle, electron transport.

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23
Q

In the neuro version, what goes in and what comes

A

Oxygen and glucose in, ATP out.

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24
Q

What releases energy in the process of breaking

A

Breaking off one of the phosphates.

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25
Q

What is the primary use of ATP in neurons?

A

To pump ions that generate electrical potentials.

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26
Q

What is the sequence of signals between neurons?

A

Electrical signal within neuron, chemical signal

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27
Q

What is unique to neurons and where do most

A

Dendrites; most synapses end on dendrites.

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28
Q

What allows electrical signals to reach the soma in

A

Ion channels in the membrane.

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29
Q

What are dendritic spines, and what determines

A

They are protrusions on dendrites; shape and

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30
Q

their strength?

A

density determine their strength.

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31
Q

What changes are associated with environmental

A

Dendritic spine changes.

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32
Q

What is the most common genetic cause of autism?

A

Fragile X syndrome.

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33
Q

What is the function of Microtubule Associated

A

Regulate assembly and function of microtubules.

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34
Q

What is the role of tau protein in relation to

A

Tau protein links microtubules.

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35
Q

What are the macro pathology symptoms of

A

Cell death, gyri shrink, sulci expand.

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36
Q

What are the cognitive deficits associated with

A

Memory loss, confusion, difficulty with speech and

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37
Q

Alzheimer’s?

A

navigation.

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38
Q

What are the two key proteins abnormally clumped

A

Tau protein and Beta-amyloid protein.

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39
Q

What forms neurofibrillary tangles inside neurons in

A

Tau protein.

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40
Q

What do plaques made of Beta-amyloid protein do

A

Form outside neurons.

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41
Q

What is the hypothesis of Alzheimer’s progression

A

Beta-amyloid triggers tangle formation, leads to

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42
Q

related to Beta-amyloid?

A

neuron death, and causes spread of abnormal

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43
Q

What is the function of axons in neurons?

A

Critical for electrical conduction of action potentials.

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44
Q

What is the process of transport of organelles and

A

Axoplasmic Transport.

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45
Q

What are the two types of motor proteins used in

A

Kinesin proteins (anterograde) and dynein proteins

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46
Q

axoplasmic transport?

A

(retrograde).

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47
Q

What is the role of ATP in the movement of vesicles

A

Used by motor proteins to move vesicles in 10-20

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48
Q

along axons?

A

nm steps.

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49
Q

How does HSV-1 (herpes simplex virus) cause

A

Enters nerve terminal at broken skin from saliva of

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50
Q

infection?

A

infected person.

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51
Q

What causes blister at times of stress, reduced

A

Recurrence with anterograde transport

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52
Q

What are the symptoms of rabies?

A

Headache, fever, anxiety, confusion, insomnia,

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53
Q

What is the function of astrocytes?

A

Fill spaces between neurons, regulate ion

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54
Q

What is the role of myelinating glia?

A

Electrically insulate axons with myelin (fat), speed

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55
Q

What are the symptoms of a glial tumor?

A

Nausea, headache, vomiting, and functional deficits

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56
Q

What are the two most common CNS tumors?

A

Astrocytoma and glioblastoma

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57
Q

What are the most common roles of glial cells?

A

Electrically insulate neurons, protect neurons from

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58
Q

What is the resting potential?

A

The membrane potential (Vm) when action

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59
Q

What does the resting potential depend on?

A

Relative ion concentrations inside and outside of

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60
Q

What is the function of the sodium-potassium

A

Moves Na+ out of the cell and brings K+ into the

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61
Q

pump?

A

cell.

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62
Q

How do ions cross the cell membrane?

A

Through ion channels.

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63
Q

What are the two forces that govern ion movement

A

Diffusion and Electrical force.

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64
Q

What is Equilibrium Potential?

A

Membrane potential at which diffusion force equals

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65
Q

Define Driving Force in terms of membrane

A

Difference between the current membrane potential

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66
Q

potential and equilibrium potential.

A

and the ion’s equilibrium potential, driving force =

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67
Q

How does the driving force affect the movement of

A

The higher the driving force, the faster ions will

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68
Q

ions across the membrane?

A

move across the membrane (if channels are open).

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69
Q

What is Ion Conductance?

A

Capability of an ion to cross the membrane,

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70
Q

How is ionic current calculated?

A

Ionic current = conductance x driving force =

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71
Q

What does the Goldman Equation determine?

A

Resting potential when the membrane is permeable

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72
Q

What is an action potential?

A

A rapid increase then decrease in membrane

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73
Q

Why are action potentials needed in neurons?

A

Axons are often long, axoplasm is a poor conductor

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74
Q

At what membrane potential does an action

A

Around -40mV.

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75
Q

How does a neuron reach the action potential

A

By being sufficiently depolarized, often through

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76
Q

threshold?

A

sensory input or neurotransmitter from other

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77
Q

What are the three ion channels involved in

A

Potassium, Sodium, and Voltage-gated potassium

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78
Q

generating an action potential?

A

channels.

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79
Q

What is the role of potassium channels in

A

Largely responsible for maintaining resting potential

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80
Q

generating resting potential?

A

by allowing K+ to leak out of axons.

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81
Q

Where is the highest concentration of Nav channels

A

At the axon hillock (spike initiation zone) and at

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82
Q

located?

A

gaps in myelination.

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83
Q

What alters the shape of voltage-gated sodium

A

Membrane depolarization alters channel shape.

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84
Q

What is the function of voltage-gated sodium

A

They open quickly when membrane potential

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85
Q

channels during an action potential?

A

exceeds threshold, leading to a rapid increase in

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86
Q

What causes the falling phase of the action

A

The addition of open Kv channels in addition to K+

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87
Q

potential?

A

leakage channels causes Vm to decrease.

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88
Q

What is the absolute refractory period?

A

The majority of Nav channels are inactivated,

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89
Q

What can result from ion channel mutations that

A

Neurological disorders such as migraine, epilepsy,

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90
Q

affect action potentials?

A

deafness, paralysis, and ataxia.

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91
Q

What are the characteristics of frequent brief

A

They are caused by reduced K+ current due to K+

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92
Q

seizures?

A

channel mutations.

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93
Q

What is the effect of various K+ channel mutations

A

They make neurons hyperexcitable.

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94
Q

What are the symptoms of episodic ataxia?

A

Episodes of poor coordination of movement and

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95
Q

What are the sources of Tetrodotoxin (TTX)?

A

Puffer fish (fugu) ovaries, liver, intestines.

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96
Q

How does Tetrodotoxin (TTX) affect the body?

A

It blocks Na+ channels and stops action potentials.

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97
Q

What is the most widely used local anesthetic?

A

Lidocaine.

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98
Q

How do nerves responsible for pain respond to local

A

They are most affected because more of their Na+

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99
Q

anesthetics?

A

channels must open to assure AP propagation.

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100
Q

What is the purpose of myelination in speeding AP

A

It helps current flow down the axon by blocking

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101
Q

conduction?

A

leakage and lowering axial resistance.

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102
Q

What is Multiple Sclerosis?

A

An autoimmune attack on myelin that degrades AP

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103
Q

At what age does Multiple Sclerosis typically onset?

A

Between 20 and 40 years.

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104
Q

What is the likelihood of women getting Multiple

A

3-4 times more likely.

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105
Q

What is the likelihood of identical twins getting

A

31%.

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106
Q

What are the environmental factors associated with

A

Temperate climate, low vitamin D, smoking.

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107
Q

What are the two types of synapses?

A

Electric and chemical synapses.

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108
Q

What are the three types of synaptic arrangements?

A

Axodendritic, Axosomatic, Axoaxonic.

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109
Q

What is found in the postsynaptic membrane at the

A

Junctional folds with numerous neurotransmitter

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110
Q

neuromuscular junction?

A

receptors.

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111
Q

What is the size of the gap between pre-synaptic

A

20 - 50 nm.

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112
Q

What do synaptic vesicles contain?

A

Neurotransmitters.

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113
Q

Who proved the existence of chemical

A

Otto Loewi (1921 Nobel).

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114
Q

What is the process of releasing the contents of

A

Exocytosis.

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115
Q

What protein is responsible for sensing calcium in

A

Synaptotagmin

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116
Q

What are the three categories based on the speed

A

Rapid (millisecond), intermediate (sec), slow

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117
Q

of receptor action?

A

(sec/min)

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118
Q

What are the effects of Na+ on the post-synaptic

A

Depolarization

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119
Q

What are the effects of Cl- on the post-synaptic

A

Hyperpolarization

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120
Q

What are the effects of K+ on the post-synaptic

A

Hyperpolarization

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121
Q

What are the effects of Ca+ on the post-synaptic

A

Depolarization

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122
Q

According to Dale’s Principle, how many types of

A

One type

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123
Q

What is the function of ventricles in the brain?

A

Filled with cerebrospinal fluid

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124
Q

Where is the cortex located in the brain?

A

Wrinkled outside of the brain

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125
Q

What are the four lobes of the brain?

A

Frontal, Occipital, Parietal, Temporal

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126
Q

What does the term ‘dorsal’ refer to in relation to the

A

Back (above neuraxis).

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127
Q

What does the term ‘ventral’ refer to in relation to

A

Stomach (below neuraxis).

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128
Q

What is the function of the corpus callosum?

A

To facilitate communication between the brain

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129
Q

Where are the spinal nerves located in relation to

A

Run between vertebrae.

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130
Q

What is the function of the hypothalamus?

A

Controls the pituitary gland.

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131
Q

What is the role of the subarachnoid space?

A

Contains cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) and a network of

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132
Q

What is the definitive diagnostic method for

A

Spinal tap, because CSF contains pus.

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133
Q

What are the two vesicles of the forebrain?

A

Diencephalon and Telencephalon.

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134
Q

Which part of the brain contains the basal ganglia?

A

Basal telencephalon (basal ganglia).

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135
Q

What are the two main parts of the forebrain?

A

Diencephalon and Telencephalon.

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136
Q

Name the areas where new neurons are generated

A

The hippocampus and the olfactory system.

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137
Q

What factors promote neurogenesis in the brain?

A

Physical exercise and learning.

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138
Q

What factors impair neurogenesis in the brain?

A

Stress and aging.

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139
Q

What are the two main divisions of the hindbrain?

A

Cerebellum and Pons.

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140
Q

What are the two main divisions of the midbrain?

A

Tectum and Tegmentum.

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141
Q

From where do all cells originate in the brain?

A

From the border with ventricles.

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142
Q

What are the components of the midbrain?

A

Tectum, Cerebral aqueduct, Tegmentum.

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143
Q

What are the components of the rostral hindbrain?

A

Cerebellum, Fourth Ventricle, Pons, Rhombic Lips

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144
Q

What are the components of the caudal hindbrain?

A

Fourth Ventricle, Medulla, Medullary Pyramids.

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145
Q

What are the components of the spinal cord?

A

White Matter Columns, Spinal Canal, Spinal Gray

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146
Q

What is the flow of cerebrospinal fluid?

A

Lateral ventricle -> third ventricle -> cerebral

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147
Q

What is the solution for hydrocephalus?

A

Drain cerebrospinal fluid with a shunt.

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148
Q

What does the term ‘Transduction’ refer to?

A

Converting a physical force into a neural response.

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149
Q

What is the primary visual pathway?

A

The pathway for visual information processing.

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150
Q

What is the pathway of vision from the eye to the

A

Eye -> Optic Nerve -> Optic Tract -> Lateral

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151
Q

brain?

A

Geniculate Nucleus (LGN) -> Optic Radiation ->

152
Q

What are the areas associated with the ‘where’ and

A

Dorsal Visual Cortex Areas (‘where’ pathway) and

153
Q

what’ pathways in the visual cortex?

A

Ventral Visual Cortex Areas (‘what’ pathway)

154
Q

What is the range of the electromagnetic spectrum

A

400-700nm

155
Q

What are the three light interactions?

A

Reflection, Absorption, Refraction

156
Q

What are the main components of the human eye?

A

Pupil, Iris, Sclera, Eyelid, Cornea, Anterior

157
Q

What is the solution to the image formation problem

A

Focus the light coming through a large lens with

158
Q

in the eye?

A

refraction

159
Q

How can captured air be utilized to heighten the

A

By wearing a swim mask.

160
Q

What changes the refraction for near and far objects

A

The lens.

161
Q

How can myopia (near-sightedness) be corrected?

A

By reducing refraction with a concave lens.

162
Q

How can hyperopia (far-sightedness) be corrected?

A

By increasing refraction with a convex lens.

163
Q

What is the purpose of the tapetum lucidum in some

A

To increase light sensitivity by reflecting light back

164
Q

animals’ eyes?

A

onto photoreceptors.

165
Q

What are the two types of photoreceptors?

A

Rods and cones.

166
Q

What type of light are rods useful in?

A

Low (scotopic) light.

167
Q

How many types of cones give color vision?

A

3 types.

168
Q

What is the function of photopigment in

A

Transducing light into a change in membrane

169
Q

photoreceptors?

A

potential.

170
Q

What causes the closure of Na+ channels in

A

Less cGMP (2nd messenger).

171
Q

What is the term for our eyes’ ability to perceive

A

Trichromatic vision.

172
Q

Where are the red and green pigments responsible

A

On the X chromosome.

173
Q

What is the function of amacrine cells in the retina?

A

To alter interactions between bipolar and ganglion

174
Q

What mechanism changes the amount of light

A

Pupil constriction or dilation.

175
Q

What is the primary visual pathway responsible for?

A

Transmitting visual information from the retina to the

176
Q

What is the range over which Cone Vm changes

A

10^3 range.

177
Q

How do cones adapt to a wider range of light

A

By ‘adapting’ through changes in ion channel

178
Q

levels?

A

activity.

179
Q

What inhibits guanylyl cyclase in cone adaptation?

A

Ca++ (Calcium).

180
Q

Where is the fixation point imaged in the visual

A

On the fovea.

181
Q

What is the specialization of the fovea in the visual

A

High acuity vision.

182
Q

How is visual acuity usually measured?

A

With foveal vision.

183
Q

What are some examples of vision issues that can

A

Myopia, hyperopia, astigmatism

184
Q

How many rods are present in the eye?

A

92 million

185
Q

How many cones are present in the eye?

A

5 million

186
Q

How many axons leave the eye?

A

1.5 million

187
Q

What is the consequence of retinal circuits shaping

A

Blind spot, color vision

188
Q

Where is color vision best?

A

Fovea

189
Q

Where is acuity best with photopic light?

A

Fovea

190
Q

Where is acuity best with scotopic light?

A

Periphery

191
Q

What do photoreceptors release when depolarized?

A

Glutamate

192
Q

What kind of bipolar cell is activated by light?

A

On bipolar

193
Q

What kind of bipolar cell is inhibited by light?

A

Off bipolar

194
Q

What is the role of horizontal cells in vision?

A

Inhibit neighboring cones through lateral inhibition

195
Q

What is the relationship between off bipolar cells

A

Off bipolar cells lead to the firing of off ganglion

196
Q

and off ganglion cells?

A

cells.

197
Q

What type of stimulus produces a change in the

A

A small spot of dark or light.

198
Q

What is the best stimulus for the primary visual

A

A bar of light with a particular orientation.

199
Q

What are the physiological properties of Magno (M)

A

They have larger receptive fields than other

200
Q

ganglion cells?

A

ganglion cells and are not color-sensitive.

201
Q

Where do ganglion cell axons project to?

A

To the Lateral Geniculate Nucleus (LGN) of the

202
Q

How much of the input to the LGN is from the eyes?

A

Only about 20%.

203
Q

What are the two firing modes of LGN cells and

A

Spiking mode (following ganglion cell input) and

204
Q

when does the intrinsic burst mode occur?

A

intrinsic burst mode (bursts of spikes unrelated to

205
Q

What is the role of LGN in visual processing?

A

LGN may gate input to the visual cortex.

206
Q

What happens to the activity in the LGN and visual

A

It increases.

207
Q

What is the consequence of damage in the parietal

A

Blindness in the lower contra visual field.

208
Q

What happens when there is damage in the

A

Blindness in the upper contra visual field.

209
Q

What is the result of damage in the occipital lobe?

A

Blindness in the entire contra visual field (upper and

210
Q

What is the primary visual cortex also known as?

A

V1, striate cortex, area 17.

211
Q

Which layers in the primary visual cortex label

A

Layers 4 & 6.

212
Q

What type of input do layers 4 & 6 of the primary

A

Input from LGN.

213
Q

What is the main feature of V1 retinotopic

A

Projections preserve spatial relationships.

214
Q

How is the fovea represented in V1?

A

It is greatly ‘magnified’ in V1.

215
Q

What is the consequence of more cones in the

A

Larger V1 area ‘sees’ what is imaged on the fovea.

216
Q

What is the main feature of the receptive fields in

A

Center/surround antagonistic RFs.

217
Q

What are some cues for depth perception?

A

Size, texture, perspective.

218
Q

What is an important cue for depth perception in

A

Stereo depth (stereopsis) where information from

219
Q

humans?

A

the two eyes is combined.

220
Q

What may be responsible for stereopsis in the

A

Some of the binocular V1 neurons.

221
Q

What do neurons in columns (layer 1 to 6) have in

A

Similar orientation preference (orientation columns).

222
Q

What does V1 extract form based on?

A

Orientation of local light/dark and color boundaries.

223
Q

What is the perceived orientation based on in V1?

A

Relative activation of cells with different orientation

224
Q

What are some neurons in V1 also direction

A

Motion direction.

225
Q

What do parallel streams beyond V1 process?

A

Parvo & Konio process form and color (ventral),

226
Q

What does area MT (V5) in the dorsal visual area

A

Motion in a wide variety of stimuli.

227
Q

What is pareidolia?

A

Seeing faces everywhere.

228
Q

What is prosopagnosia?

A

Face blindness.

229
Q

Where does the lesion occur in case of

A

In the infero-temporal cortex.

230
Q

What does the auditory system help in?

A

Locating predator/prey, orienting attention,

231
Q

What are the physical dimensions of sound?

A

Amplitude or intensity, frequency, and speed of

232
Q

How is intensity of sounds measured?

A

In decibels.

233
Q

What is the perceptual dimension of sound based

A

Loudness.

234
Q

What is the perceptual dimension of sound based

A

Pitch.

235
Q

What determines the unique qualities of a sound

A

Harmonics and their timing.

236
Q

What is the function of the pinna in the ear?

A

It collects and funnels sound into the ear.

237
Q

What are the three smallest bones in the body?

A

Malleus (hammer), incus (anvil), stapes (stirrup).

238
Q

What is the function of the Eustachian tube?

A

Equalizes pressure on the two sides of the tympanic

239
Q

What muscles are involved in the Attenuation

A

Tensor tympani muscle and Stapedius muscle.

240
Q

What is the function of the Attenuation Reflex?

A

To protect the inner ear from loud sounds.

241
Q

What is the function of the Oval Window?

A

Transforms large amplitude, low-pressure

242
Q

What is the role of the Basilar Membrane?

A

It is a place code in which sound frequency is

243
Q

What is the role of tip links in hair cells?

A

Tip links connect hair cells and are responsible for

244
Q

What neurotransmitter is released onto auditory

A

Glutamate.

245
Q

How does bending of cilia in one direction affect the

A

It causes more K+ channels to open, leading to

246
Q

potential difference across hair cells?

A

depolarization.

247
Q

How does bending of cilia in the other direction

A

It causes K+ channels to close, leading to

248
Q

affect the potential difference across hair cells?

A

hyperpolarization.

249
Q

What triggers the opening of Ca++ channels and

A

Depolarization.

250
Q

What is the role of the spiral ganglion neuron in

A

It fires action potentials proportional to the amount

251
Q

auditory transduction?

A

of depolarization/hyperpolarization.

252
Q

What is the mechanism for sound localization at low

A

Direction is determined by the time (or phase)

253
Q

frequencies?

A

difference between sound waves reaching two ears.

254
Q

What is the function of the cochlea?

A

It separates frequency into a place code.

255
Q

What is tonotopy?

A

Arrangement where each auditory nerve fiber is

256
Q

What does phase locking indicate in auditory nerve

A

It indicates sound frequency.

257
Q

What is the volley principle in frequency coding?

A

Counting spikes gives frequency.

258
Q

What is the Cocktail Party Effect in auditory

A

The ability to focus attention on one stimulus and

259
Q

processing?

A

filter out others.

260
Q

Where are the multiple sudatory areas located in

A

Below the sylvian fissure (lateral sulcus) in the

261
Q

the auditory complex?

A

temporal lobe.

262
Q

What happens when there are lesions to the

A

Impairment of both sound identification and

263
Q

auditory complex areas?

A

localization.

264
Q

What type of stimuli does A1 in the auditory cortex

A

Pure tones.

265
Q

What is the function of the rostral areas below A1 in

A

Processing spatial location of sound.

266
Q

What type of stimuli do the caudal areas below A1

A

Complex sounds including monkey vocalizations.

267
Q

What two streams have been proposed in auditory

A

Dorsal ‘where’ and ventral ‘what’ streams.

268
Q

In which lobe is there higher activity during a

A

Higher parietal lobe activity.

269
Q

In which lobe is there higher activity during a

A

Higher temporal lobe activity.

270
Q

What are some causes of congenital deafness?

A

Genetic causes, infections to mother or fetus,

271
Q

What is one of the most common genes involved in

A

GJB2 that codes for a connexin protein.

272
Q

Where are connexins and gap junctions found in the

A

In the stria terminalis and the supporting cells

273
Q

auditory system?

A

around the hair cells.

274
Q

What are some factors that can cause acquired

A

Loud sounds, infection, autoimmune disease, aging,

275
Q

hearing loss?

A

ototoxins.

276
Q

What are some pathologies associated with

A

Problems with the inner ear and hair cells, tip link

277
Q

acquired hearing loss?

A

breakage, hair cell distortion/swelling, loss of

278
Q

What percentage of hair cells can be lost before it is

A

~50%

279
Q

Which type of hair cells are more vulnerable, outer

A

Outer hair cells.

280
Q

Which type of hair cells responding to frequencies

A

High frequencies.

281
Q

What is the cause of otitis media in children?

A

Bacteria or virus entering the middle ear via the

282
Q

What is otosclerosis?

A

Abnormal bone growth in the middle ear in adults.

283
Q

According to CDC, what environmental noise level

A

Below 60 dB.

284
Q

What is the maximum safe exposure to noise at

A

90 minutes.

285
Q

What is tinnitus?

A

Sound perception in the absence of a stimulus.

286
Q

What is the treatment for tinnitus?

A

White noise or sound masking machines, possible

287
Q

What is amusia?

A

Problems perceiving, memorizing, and producing

288
Q

How do hearing aids work?

A

Sound from a microphone is amplified and delivered

289
Q

What is the purpose of a cochlear implant?

A

To bypass damaged hair cells and electrically

290
Q

How does a cochlear implant take advantage of the

A

By stimulating different places on the basilar

291
Q

tonotopy of the cochlea?

A

membrane to evoke different sensations of pitch.

292
Q

How many electrodes does a cochlear prosthesis

A

About 22 electrodes.

293
Q

What are the different modes for which frequencies

A

Quiet conversation vs noisy background.

294
Q

What is the function of the mechanoreception in the

A

Pressing on skin activates mechanically gated

295
Q

skin?

A

channels, leading to depolarization.

296
Q

What is the function of the thermoreception in the

A

Detecting temperature.

297
Q

What is the function of the nociception in the skin?

A

Activation of action potentials in neurons due to

298
Q

What are the different types of sensory pathways

A

Epicritic (DCML pathway) and Protopathic (spinal)

299
Q

involved in epicritic and protopathic sensation?

A

sensory pathways.

300
Q

What is the sequence of processing for somatic

A

Skin -> brainstem -> thalamus -> S1 ->

301
Q

sensory receptors in the skin?

A

consciousness.

302
Q

What are the different types of somatic sensory

A

Hairy skin receptors, glabrous skin receptors

303
Q

receptors in the skin?

A

including Merkel’s disk, Meissner’s corpuscle, hair

304
Q

What are the characteristics of Piezo 1 and 2

A

Mechanically gated cation channels, extremely

305
Q

Mechanoreceptors?

A

sensitive to the slightest pressure, essential for

306
Q

What are the classes of Mechanoreceptors and

A

Meissner’s corpuscle: small receptive field size, fast

307
Q

their characteristics?

A

adapting. Pacinian corpuscle: large receptive field

308
Q

What are the mechanisms for adaptation in the

A

Mechanical (capsule around axon), muscle reflex

309
Q

nervous system?

A

(attenuation reflex in auditory system adapts to loud

310
Q

How does varying textures result in varying degrees

A

Varying textures induce varying degrees of friction,

311
Q

of vibration which activates different

A

which induces varying degrees of vibration,

312
Q

mechanoreceptors?

A

differentially activating Pacinian and Meissner’s

313
Q

What is Two Point Discrimination?

A

Forced choice paradigm to distinguish between two

314
Q

How does receptive field size relate to

A

Larger arborizations yield larger receptive field

315
Q

arborizations?

A

sizes.

316
Q

What is the Coverage Factor in the sensory

A

It indicates how many sensory receptive fields

317
Q

system?

A

overlap a point on the sensory surface.

318
Q

What does a Cutaneous Field (CF) of 1 ensure?

A

No dead spots where stimuli is not sensed.

319
Q

What determines the conduction velocity of sensory

A

Axon diameter and thickness of myelin.

320
Q

What can the first infection of herpes zoster cause?

A

Chicken pox.

321
Q

Where does the virus lie dormant after the first

A

Dorsal root ganglia neurons.

322
Q

What sensations can phantom limb sensations

A

Tactile, tingling, hot and cold, pain, itch, and

323
Q

include?

A

pleasure.

324
Q

What reveals existing lateral connections in the

A

Amputation and loss of primary input to sensory

325
Q

cortex and drives activity in neighboring cortex?

A

areas.

326
Q

What is the role of the Posterior Parietal Cortex?

A

Bringing multiple aspects of a stimulus together into

327
Q

What are the classic examples of association cortex

A

Areas 5 & 7.

328
Q

What can damage to the Posterior Parietal Cortex

A

Inability to recognize objects (agnosia) and neglect

329
Q

result in?

A

syndrome.

330
Q

What is the role of the Spinothalamic Pathway?

A

Transmission of protopathic sensations such as

331
Q

Where is the first synapse in the Spinothalamic

A

In the spinal cord at the entry level.

332
Q

What are the nociceptor subtypes?

A

Mechanical, Thermal, Chemical, and Polymodal.

333
Q

What causes hyperalgesia?

A

Increased sensitivity to pain after tissue damage.

334
Q

What are the characteristics of fast pain?

A

Sharp, stinging, local, and transient.

335
Q

What are the characteristics of slow pain?

A

Dull, aching, poorly localized, and enduring.

336
Q

What is the role of endogenous opiates in the

A

They are released from interneurons and bind to

337
Q

regulation of pain?

A

opioid receptors to regulate pain.

338
Q

What genetic mutation causes insensitivity to pain?

A

Genetic mutation in the gene that codes for Nav1.7

339
Q

What are some examples of opioid drugs?

A

Morphine, heroin, fentanyl.

340
Q

What is the antagonist for opioid receptors, used to

A

Naloxone.

341
Q

What are some examples of pain conditions without

A

Central pain, phantom limb, neuropathy.

342
Q

What are the major receptors of the

A

CB1 in the CNS, CB2 in the periphery.

343
Q

What are the endogenous ligands for CB1 and CB2

A

Anandamide for CB1, 2-AG for CB2.

344
Q

What type of neurons control the force of muscle

A

Alpha motor neurons.

345
Q

What type of receptors are involved in

A

Stretch receptors.

346
Q

What are the reflexes associated with the motor

A

Stretch reflex, flexor crossed extensor reflex.

347
Q

Besides the arm muscles, where else can motor

A

New motor areas on either side of the brain.

348
Q

What is megalographia?

A

Writing becomes larger as untrained areas are

349
Q

Name the components of the motor system.

A

Cortex, Basal ganglia, Cerebellum, Brainstem,

350
Q

What type of muscle is involved in the motor

A

Skeletal muscle (not smooth or cardiac muscle).

351
Q

What is the role of muscles in relation to tendons

A

Muscles pull against tendons, which pull bones.

352
Q

How do opposing muscles act at the fulcrum of the

A

As some muscles contract, opposing muscles often

353
Q

elbow during arm flexion?

A

relax.

354
Q

What is the neurotransmitter at the neuromuscular

A

Acetylcholine (nicotinic).

355
Q

What are the characteristics of ‘fast twitch’ skeletal

A

Fast contraction & relaxation, stronger, fatigue

356
Q

muscles?

A

rapidly, and have much stored energy.

357
Q

What are the characteristics of ‘Slow Twitch’ muscle

A

Slow contraction & relaxation, weaker, fatigue

358
Q

fibers?

A

slowly, little stored energy, many mitochondria, and

359
Q

What is the function of the Soleus muscle?

A

For posture and endurance.

360
Q

What are the characteristics of the spinal cord?

A

It is an extension of the brain, has 30 segments

361
Q

What is the function of alpha motor neurons?

A

Each muscle fiber receives synaptic input from only

362
Q

What is the term for the process of increasing the

A

Recruitment

363
Q

What is the term for the spontaneous firing of

A

Fasciculations

364
Q

What disease is associated with a high frequency of

A

ALS

365
Q

What type of motor neurons regulate the sensitivity

A

Gamma motor neurons

366
Q

What type of muscle fibers are innervated by alpha

A

Extrafusal muscle fibers

367
Q

What type of muscle fibers are innervated by

A

Intrafusal muscle fibers

368
Q

What reflex causes compensatory shifting of weight,

A

Crossed Extensor reflex

369
Q

Which part of the brain is involved in the control of

A

Motor Cortex

370
Q

What is the function of the premotor area (PMA)?

A

Important for the planning of movements,

371
Q

What is the primary function of the primary motor

A

Important for the execution of movements (tactics).

372
Q

What is the role of the middle cerebral artery in the brain?

A

Supplies blood to many cortical areas critical for sensation and movement.

373
Q

What are the signs of damage to the motor cortex?

A

Weakness (Paresis), Paralysis (Plegia), Spasticity,

374
Q

What is the significance of the Babinski sign?

A

Response to stimulus on feet, used to test for

375
Q

What is the role of the cerebellum in motor control?

A

Critical for controlling precise timing and metrics of

NEUR 10 (5 decks)

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