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M2M Unit III > PDF's > Flashcards

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1
Q

Cytogenetic analysis of cells from retinoblastomas showed that the region around
chromosome _____ often had an abnormal structure

A

13q14

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2
Q

The Rb protein is ______ in rapidly proliferating cells at S or
G2 of the cell cycle, but is _________ in non-proliferating cells in G0 of G1 of the cell
cycle.
b

A

hyperphosphorylated

hypophosphorylated

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3
Q

The hypophosyphorylated form of the RB protein functions to ____

A

repress cells into the S phase

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4
Q

RB protein is an oncogene or tumor suppressor?

A

TS

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5
Q

What phosphorylates the RB protein?

A

CDKs

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6
Q

The RB protein is a target for many animal tumor viruses such as

A

SV40 and HPV
viruses drive a quiescent cell into the S phase
of the cell cycle and to proliferate by producing a viral protein(s), SV40 T antigen (T stands for
transforming) or HPV E7 protein, that binds to and inactivate the RB protein.

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7
Q

The ____ gene is a tumor surpessor in Familial Adenomatous Polyposis (FAP)

A

APC

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8
Q

Incidence of FAP

A

1/10,000

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9
Q

The APC gene is on chromosome ___

A

5q

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10
Q

The APC gene encodes a cytoplasmic protein that regulates the localization of ____-

A

beta catenin

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11
Q

beta catenin is kept at the plasma membrane by being bound to ___ in normal cells

A

E-cadherin

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12
Q

When the APC is lost in FAP patients, ________________.

A

Beta-catenin goes to the

nucleus to produce transcription of oncogenes like c-myc

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13
Q

ICF and ECF: Na+

A

ICF: 14 mM
ECF: 140 mM

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14
Q

ICF and ECF: K+

A

ICF: 145 mM
ECF: 5 mM

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15
Q

ICF and ECF: Cl-

A

ICF: 5 mM
ECF: 145 mM

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16
Q

ICF and ECF: A-n

A

ICF: 126
ECF: 0

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17
Q

ICF and ECF: H20

A

ICF and ECF: 55,000 mM

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18
Q

Osmolarity

A

the total concentration of solute particles: for example, a 1 M solution of CaCl2 gives a 3 osM solution (3 solute particles/molecule dissolved).

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19
Q

Nernst equation

A

E=-60/(valence elections)*log([ ]o/[ ]i)

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20
Q

Driving force of an ion

A

difference between Vm and Eion

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21
Q

3 SNARE proteins

A

VAMPs
Syntaxin
SNAP25

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22
Q

Structure of VAMPs

A

transmembrane domain at one end with a helical domain in it

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23
Q

Structure of Syntaxin

A

transmembrane domain with helical domain

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24
Q

Structure of SNAP25

A

No TM domain, two helical domain, fatty acid binding region that acts like a membrane binding domain

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25
Q

All vesicles contain _____, while all target membranes contain _______ and ______.

A

VAMPs

Syntaxin and SNAP25

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26
Q

Enzyme that regulates dissociation of SNARE proteins

A

NSF protein (hexamer that uses 6 ATP to for a barrel and twist)

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27
Q

Refolding of syntaxin is mediated by ____

A

Sec1

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28
Q

Main primary active transporters

A

NA/K
CA++
H+

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29
Q

Two basic types of secondary active transporters

A

Cotransporters- same direction

Antiport or exchange- opposite direction

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30
Q

Examples of cancers inherited in autosomal dominant fashion

A

Familial adenomatous polyposis
familial retinoblastoma
Familial breast and ovarian cancer
Wilms tumor syndromes

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31
Q

Examples of cancers inherited in autosomal recessive fashion

A

xeroderma pigmentosa
ataxia-telangiectasia
bloom’s syndrome
Fanconi’s anemia

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32
Q

Function of HPV E7 protein

A

bind and inactivate the RB protein

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33
Q

Sporadic cases of retinoblastoma are usually ______

A

unilateral

unlikely to occur in both retinas

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34
Q

BRCA2 is allelic with _____

A

the Fanconi’s anemia D1 gene, FANCD1

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35
Q

“Hotspots” in p53 mutations

A

Certain p53 point mutations are found more frequently than others in human cancers. These mutations are called “hotspots

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36
Q

Viruses that inactivate p53 (and also Rb)

A

Adenovirus E1B

HPV E6

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37
Q

The retroviral RNA genome consists of ______

A

two identical strands held together by a tRNA molecule

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38
Q 
In a retrovirus:
gag encodes for \_\_\_
env for \_\_\_\_
pol for \_\_\_\_\_
v-onc
A

internal virion proteins
virus membrane glycoproteins
virus polymerase
v-onc gives ability ro rapidly proliferate and form tumors

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39
Q

4 examples of v-onc’s

A

v-src: rous sarcoma virus
v-erb: avian erythroblastosis virus
v-abl: Abelson leukemia virus
v-myc: usually fused to gag gene, neoplastic transformation of cells

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40
Q

The products of oncogenes typically mimic

A

hormones or growth stimulating factor

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41
Q

The proto-onc or c-onc genes are involved in _______. What type of changes are responsible for these effects?

A

The proto-onc or c-onc genes are involved in spontaneous malignancies that have nothing to do with a retrovirus.

Either quantitative changes (too much protein) or qualitative changes (overactive or unregulated protein) in the proto-oncogene are responsible for these effects.

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42
Q

Difference between c-src and v-src

A

c-src has a different carboxy-terminal amino acid sequence that v-src and has numerous introns that do not exist in v-src

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43
Q

Difference between c-myc and v-myc

A

c-myc also has many introns not present in v-myc, although the coding sequences are nearly identical (7 amino acid changes

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44
Q

Human bladder cancer mutation

A

c-ras

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45
Q

Oncogene found in neuroblastomas

A

N-myc

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46
Q

Oncogene that codes for an integral membrane protein kinase that is amplified in about 20% of breast cancers

A

erbBw or HER2/neu

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47
Q

monoclonal antibodies specific for the protein product of the HER2/neu/erbB2 oncogene

A

Herceptin

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48
Q

Why do drugs that inhibit “normal” cellular proteins (c-myc, c-abl, etc.) kill only the cancer cells?

A

cancer cells but not normal cells have become dependent or “addicted” to the overexpressed oncogene. This referred to as “oncogene addiction

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49
Q

Diagnostic criteria for LFS (3)

A
  • A probandwith a sarcoma diagnosed before 45 years of age AND
  • A first-degree relative with any cancer under 45 years of age AND
  • A first-or second-degree relative with any cancer under 45 years of age or a sarcoma at any age
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50
Q

How do you test for LFS?

A

Direct sequencing of p53 (either only hotspots or entire gene)

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51
Q

The major causes of death in patients with VHL are_______ and________

A

Metastatic RCC

CNS hemangioblastomas

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52
Q

Von Hippel-Lindau disease is classified based on presence or absence of _________ and type of ___________.

A

Pheochromocytoma (adrenal gland tumor)

VHL mutation

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53
Q

Type 1 VHL disease is due to ____

A

total or partial loss of VHL

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54
Q

Type II VHL disease is due to

A

VHL missense mutation

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55
Q

VHL chromosomal location

A

short arm of chromosome 3

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56
Q

Actions of VHL protein

A

Regulation of HIF
suppression of aneuploidy
maintenance of primary cilia
stabilization of macrotubules

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57
Q

HIF-alpha is hydroxylated by

A

proline and asparagine hydroxlase

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58
Q

Hydroxylated HIF-alpha is___

A

ubiquinated by WT VHL and undergoes proteosomal degredation

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59
Q

When VHL is mutated HIF ____ and activates ____ (4)

A

accumulates

VEGF, PDGF, TGF alpha and Beta

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60
Q

3 classes of lipids in a membrane

A

phospholipids
sphingolipids
cholesterol

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61
Q

Two important properties of channels

A
  1. most are selective

2. some channels contain molecular gates

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62
Q

The “patch clamp” technique is used to _____

A

see individual ion channels at work

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63
Q

molecules can cross membranes through _____ or ______

A

channels or transporters

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64
Q

3 mechanisms to solve problem of volume contro (due to movement of water)

A
  1. make cell impermeable to water
  2. build a strong wall around cell
  3. balance the osmotic force osmotically
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65
Q

What does the Van’t Hoff equation tell you?

A

quantitative relationship between osmotic suction and the pressure one has to exert in order to balance it

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66
Q

Solution that makes a cell shrink

A

hypertonic

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67
Q

Solution that makes a cell swell

A

hypotonic

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68
Q

Time course of volume change when immersed in 600 mosM glycerol (+) with 300 Anion in cell

A

Cell will initially shrink but will later fill with water and burst

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69
Q

What does the Nernst equation tell you?

A

Equilibrium potential

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70
Q

What does the membrane potential depend on?

A

Relative permeability

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71
Q

What is the driving force of a cell?

A

the difference between Vm and Eion

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72
Q

Causes of hyperkalemia

A

Injuries that disrpt cell membranes

attack of red blood cells

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73
Q

Diagnosis of hyperkalemia

A

EKG to detect arrhythmias

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74
Q

Treatment of acute hyperkalemia

A

C BIG K

Calcium, Bicarbonate, Insulin + Glucose, Kayexalate

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75
Q

What does Kayexalate do?

A

Ion exchanger- gives up sodium for potassium ions

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76
Q

In regards to Inflammatory Bowel disease, smokers are at increased risk for ______

A

Crohn’s disease

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77
Q

In regards to IBD, former smokers and nonsmokers are at increased risk for_____

A

ulcerative colitis

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78
Q

Fistulas are ____ in Crohns but ____ in UC

A

common

rare

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79
Q

Inflammation is _____ in Crohn’s and _____ in UC

A

transmural

mucosal

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80
Q

Pattern in Crohn’s vs. UC

A

discontinuous vs continuous

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81
Q

Hematochezia (blood in stool) is ____ in Crohn’s but ____ in UC

A

rare

common

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82
Q

Location of Crohn’s vs. UC

A

Ileum vs Rectum

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83
Q

Mechanism of insulin release

A

: glucose enters the cell through the GLUT2 transporter, undergoes glycolysis, leading to an increase in the intracellular ATP to ADP ratio. This change closes the ATP-sensitive potassium channel, preventing outward leak of potassium ions. The resultant buildup of intracellular potassium (because there are other sodium/potassium channels actively antiporting against the gradient) depolarizes the membrane, activating a voltage-gated calcium channel and leading to calcium influx. The increased intracellular calcium ion concentration leads to exocytosis of preformed insulin-containing secretory granules

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84
Q

Half life of insulin

A

5 minutes

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85
Q

Two cardinal sins of DKA management

A

Prematurely stopping insulin infusion

Failing to use enough dextrose

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86
Q

How does dehydration occur in DKA?

A

Excess glucose in filtrate-> kidney cannot absorb as much water

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87
Q

Mechanism of potassium depletion in DKA

A

aldosterone released in response to dehydration-> sodium is retained at the expense of potassium ions

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88
Q

Despite the fact that a DKA patient may present with hyperkalemia, they will have _____.

A

low potassium levels in cells and have greater potassium needs

89
Q

Cerebral edema in DKA clinical manifestations

A

mental status changes; headache; Cushing’s triad (hypertension, bradycardia, irregular respirations); or fixed, dilated pupils

90
Q

Treatment of cerebral edema in DKA

A

elevate head of bed
hyperventilating the patient
giving IV mannitol (not metabolized) or hyertonic saline

91
Q

Glucose transporter

A

Example of facilitated diffusion
transport glucose in either direction while burning no energy
Once in the cell, glucose in phosphorylated to G-6-P

92
Q

What pump is responsible for moving calcium out of the cell

A

Na/Ca pump

93
Q

Digitalis

A

extract that can help the heart beat stronger by blocking the Na/K pump and indirectly inhibitinf the Na/Ca exchanger

94
Q

Na/H exchange carrier

A

secondary active transport system, in which the inward leak of Na+ drives the outward pumping of H+.

95
Q

What pump bring chloride ions to the ICF?

A

Na/K/2Cl

96
Q

While certain studies suggest the existence of a _____ pump, it likely does not exist.

A

H/K

97
Q

Voltage gated channels of the KV, NaV and CaV families have______ membrane-spanning domains, each of which contains _________

A

4

6 alpha helices (S1 through S6)

98
Q

_____ helices have ______ at every ______ position that sense voltage

A

S4
positively charged residues (lys or arg)
third position

99
Q

The “P loop” between ____ and ____ helices forms the _____

A

S5 and S6

ion conducting pathway

100
Q

Neurotransmitter receptors directly coupled to ion channels

A

Ionotropic

101
Q

Examples of an ionotropic receptors (2)

A

pentameric ligand gated channels

Ionotropic glutamate receptor

102
Q

Pantameric ligand gated channels are _____ and contain _____. _____ is the alpha helix that assembles around the central ion conducting pathway.

A

heteropentameric
4 transmembrane alpha helices (M1-M4)
M2

103
Q

Ionotropic glutamate receptors are ____

A

tetrameric ligand gated channels

NMDA receptors

104
Q

NMDA receptors bind:

A

two of the four subunits bind glutamate and the other two bind glycine.

105
Q

Chloride channels (CLC family)

A

dimer- each su has an ion permeation pathways

106
Q

Aquaporin water channel

A

tetramer w 4 water pores and a central pore

107
Q

Rank selectivity between the following channels: Na, K, Ca, nicotinic AChR

A

K > Na > Ca > nicotinic

108
Q

In regards to epithelial cells, the Na/K pump is ALWAYS located on the _____ membrane and is the driving force for nearly all transport

A

basolateral

109
Q

The apical membrane is ______ to sodium

A

highly permeable

110
Q

TransPD = Vm (_____) – Vm (______)

A

basolateral

apical

111
Q

The key to understanding epithelial secretion in general and the main defect in those diseases is a _______ channel in the ________ membrane. in a resting cell this channel is _____

A

chloride
apical
closed

112
Q

What activates the Cl channel on the apical membrane of epithelia?

A

in GI tract- digestion

Pathogens (cholera)

113
Q

Most important chloride channel on the apical membrane of epithelia

A

Cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR)

114
Q

Most important function of the kidney

A

get rid of non-volatile wastes

115
Q

How does the kidney get rid of extra water?

A

hypothalamus stops secreting vasopressin-> removes aquaporins from apical membranes

116
Q

What determines the threshold voltage in an action potential?

A

The point at which sodium and potassium CURRENTS are exactly equal and opposite

117
Q

What is gained by having voltage-gated potassium channels?

A

Faster repolarization

118
Q

Two types of refractory periods

A

Absolute

Relative

119
Q

What is accommodation mean in regards to action potentials?

A

If an axon is depolarized slowly, it may fail to generate an action potential, even if depolarized beyond what had been threshold for a rapid depolarization. In other words, the axon accommodates to the slow, steady stimulus

120
Q

What is the safety factor in regards to action potentials and why is it important?

A

axons have more than enough Na channels to do the job; their safety factor of transmission is 5-10 times the minimum required for successful propagation.
Important for: branching of axons, speed of transmission

121
Q

small diameter fibers have ____ threshold to external stimulation, conduct action potentials at ____ velocities, and have ____ safety factor for conduction.

A

High
lower velocities
low

122
Q

Pain fibers have ____ diameters

A

small

123
Q

Strongly associate allele in MS

A

HLA-DRB1

124
Q

Virus and MS

A

EBV- infection late in life is bad

125
Q

Drug that improves walking in MS patients

A

Dalfampridine

126
Q

The typs of Nups

A

membrane anchored
scaffolding
barrier

127
Q

Barrier Nups contain regions enriched in _____

A

phenylalanine/glycine repeats

128
Q

NLS

A

rich in lysine

129
Q

NES

A

Rich in leucine

130
Q

NTF2

A

specific transporter for Ran GDP

131
Q

NXF1/NXT1

A

transporters for mRNA and Ribosomal RNA

132
Q

Low Ran GTP levels in ____

A

Cytoplasm

133
Q

High Ran GTP levels in _____

A

nucleus

134
Q

Six major functions of the ER

A

(1) synthesis of lipids (phospholipid, ceramide, and cholesterol; primarily in the smooth ER), (2) control of cholesterol homeostasis (cholesterol sensor and synthesis), (3) storage of Ca+2 (rapid uptake and release), (4) synthesis of proteins on membrane bound ribosomes (rough ER), (5) co-translational folding of proteins and early posttranslational modifications, and (6) quality control.

135
Q

Protein that recognizes ER signal sequence

A

Signal recognition particle (SRP)

136
Q

Chaperone protein involved in ER lumen

A

BiP

137
Q

Type I membrane protein

A

amino terminal in ER lumen

138
Q

Importance of N linked glycosylation

A
  1. keeps proteins from aggregating

1. monitor unfolded proteins

139
Q

Major functions of Golgi (4)

A

(1) Synthesis of complex sphingolipids from the ceramide backbone, (2) Additional post-translational modifications of proteins and lipids (most notably, glycosylation and sulfation), (3) Proteolytic processing, (4) Sorting of proteins and lipids for post-Golgi compartments.

140
Q

Sulfation occurs where in the Golgi?

A

trans Golgi and trans Golgi network

141
Q

Two major routes of endocytosis

A
  1. phagocytosis

2. pinocytosis

142
Q

Phagocytosis is carried out by ____ and _____

A

macrophages and neutrophils

143
Q

Pinocytosis is usually associated with specific uptake of ____ and _____

A

ligands and receptors

144
Q

Vesicles involved in endocytosis are typically formed by ____ or _____

A

clathrin coat proteins or caveolae

145
Q

LDLRs are clustered on the membrane because ___

A

an adaptor protein complex AP2 binds the receptor and also binds clathrin

146
Q

Caveolae are small endocytic vesicles that form ______

A

without coat proteins

147
Q

Caveloae are especially important for membrane domains know as ____

A

Lipid rafts

148
Q

Protein for caveolae formation

A

Caveolin

149
Q

Each caveolae structure contains how many caveolin

A

144

150
Q

The UPS is responsible for ____ degradation

A

rapid

151
Q

Autophagy is mainly involved in degradation of _____ protein

A

long-lived

152
Q

Enzyme in ER that allows formation of disulphide bonds

A

ERp57

thiol oxidoreductase

153
Q

Proteins in the ER involved in holding misfolded proteins there until they are properly folded

A

calnexin (TM) and calrericulin (Soluble protein in ER lumen)

154
Q

Calnexin and calreticulin bind proteins if there is a ___ attached

A

Glucose

155
Q

After one round of calnexin/calreticulin, glucose is removed. If not correctly folded ___ adds glucose back on

A

glucosyltransferase

156
Q

The proteasome cuts up polypeptides into ____ AA segments

A

short 7-9 AA

157
Q

the _____ of the proteasome is where proteolytic cleavage takes place

A

central cylinder

158
Q

Th two caps of the proteasome recognizes ____ and uses ____ to unfold the protein

A

Polyubiquitin

ATP

159
Q

Three ligase enzymes involved in ubiquination

A

E1. E2, and E3

160
Q

A chain of ___ ubiquitins is needed for proteosomal degradation

A

4

161
Q

Interferon gamma induces transcription of

A

three novel beta subunits for proteasome (form immunoproteosome)

162
Q

pH of lysosome

A

5

163
Q

___________ plasma membrane proteins are targeted for endocytosis and are transferred via the late endosome/multivesicular body to the lysosome for degradation.

A

monoubiquinated

164
Q

Necrosis

A

Mitochondria swell-> starve cell of ATP-> plasma membrane’s opn pumps fail-> water fills cell-> cell bursts

Intensely proinflammatory

165
Q

Defining morphologica feature of apoptosis

A

Collapse of nucleus
Chromatin becomes super condensed
Cells shrink

166
Q

An apoptotic cell tears itself apart into ____

A

apoptotic bodies

167
Q

Cell that eats apoptotic bodies

A

phagocyte

168
Q

Why is a phagocyte important?

A

ensure that the apoptotic cell gets taken up by a healthy cell, before it has had a chance to spill its dangerous, proinflammatory contents.

169
Q

Apoptosis in cells is accompanied by changes in which phospholipid in the plasma membrane?

A

PS

170
Q

What happens to PS in an apoptotic cell?

A

Scramblase exposes it on the cell exterior

171
Q

What happens when PS is exposed on the cells exterior?

A

Phagocytic cells recognize and digest cell

172
Q

A macrophage recognizes an apoptotic cell and releases ____, which is anti-inflammatory. Thus, removal of apoptotic cells is ___

A

TGFB

silent

173
Q

low-dose radiation _____ lymphocytes; rather, it ______

A

does not kill

induces them to kill themselves

174
Q

Normally the mitochondrial membrane is guarded by

A

Bcl-2 and Bcl-Xl

175
Q

When a cell receives an apoptotic signal ___ and ____ make the mitochondrial membrane permeable to _____

A

Bax and Bak

cytochrome C

176
Q

Proteins that replace Bcl-2 and Bcl-Xl during apoptosis

A

Bim and PUMA

177
Q

Cytochrome C activates ____, which activates _____, which activates ______

A

Apaf-1
Caspase 9
Caspase 3

178
Q

Caspase 9 is a ___ caspase, while caspase 3 is an ___

A

signal

executioner

179
Q

_____ are responsible for surveillance of the surfaces of all body cells.

A

Cytotoxic (killer) T cells (CTL)

180
Q

CTL-> ___-> which then_____-> ______-> ____-> ____

A 
upregulates FasL
engages and cross links with Fas or CD95
CD95 activates FADD
Caspase 8
Caspase 3
181
Q

autoimmune lymphoproliferative syndrome (ALPS) mutation

A

Fas or FasL

182
Q

Protein related to Caspase 8 that competes with FADD and inhibits apoptosis

A

FLIP

viral form in herpes

183
Q

In the other CTL mechanism, the killer cell secretes ____ and a _______ that together deliver apoptosis-inducing molecules to its intended target

A

granzymes

pore making protein (perforin)

184
Q

Why are lymphocytes so susceptible to radiation?

A

a damage lymphocyte can lead to autoimmunity or lymphoma

185
Q

Example of receptor family karyopherins

A

karyopherin beta

interacts directly with cargo and FG Nups

186
Q

Example of adapter Karyopherins

A

karyopherin alpha

have specific binding sites for specific cargos and receptor family karyopherins

187
Q

Specific transporter for Ran GDP

A

NTF2

188
Q

Transporters for mRNA and rRNA

A

NXF1/NXT1

189
Q

____ relieves binding affinity for Ran-GTP/Karyopherin binding, allowing _____ to activate Ran’s intrinsic GTPase

A

Ran BP1

RanGAP1

190
Q

Durin RanGTP facilitated export ____ exchanges GTP for GDP

A

NTF2

191
Q

Cholera exhibits >____ serogroups including ____

A

> 200

O-specific polysaccharide (OPS) of LPS

192
Q

The ___ of cholera supports colonization.

A

Pili (TCP)

193
Q

The cholera toxin subunits

A

1 alpha

5 beta

194
Q

Receptor of cholera toxin

A

ganglioside GM1

195
Q

Cholera toxin increases ____ production, which induces the ____ to secrete ____

A

cAMP
CFTR
Cl-

196
Q

Patients with blood group ____ are more susceptible to severe cholera infections

A

Blood group O

197
Q

3 main types of autophagy

A
  1. macroautophagy
  2. microautophagy
  3. chaperone mediated autophagy
198
Q

Autophagy is induced during times of ____

A

nutrient stress

199
Q

You can monitor autophagy by attaching GFP to ____

A

LC3

200
Q

Genes that regulate autophagy

A

Atg

Very “druggable”

201
Q

Why can you not always be certain that an observed effect was autophagy related when you knockout an ATg gene?

A

All known autophagy regulators also do other things independent of autophagy

202
Q

Autophagic process

A
  1. induction
  2. vesicle nucleation (phagophore)
  3. V expan (omegasome)
  4. cargo transporting (LC3 and p62)
  5. vesicle closure (autophagosome)
  6. V fusion with endosome (amphisome)
  7. V fusion with lysosome (autolysosome)
203
Q

If Beclin 1 binds to Bcl-2/Bcl-Xl->

A

No autophagy

204
Q

Beclin-1 interacts with BCL-xl via a ___ domain

A

BH3

205
Q

BH3 mimetic that disrupts Beclin-1-Bcl-xl interaction

A

ABT 737

206
Q

Rapamycin ____ autophagy

A

increases

207
Q

AA recognition sequence in chaperone mediated autophagy

A

KFERQ

208
Q

Describe rationale behind autophagy’s protective action against neurodegeneration

A

Autophagy degrades the aggregate-prone proteins (perhaps after they have started to form small aggregates).

209
Q

IV insulin 2 purposes in treatment of DKA

A 
decrease blood glucose
halting ketoacidosis (takes longer)
210
Q

Insulin actions in liver (4)

A

+ glucose uptake, glycogen synthesis 
- gluconeogenesis 
- ketogenesis 
+lipogenesis

211
Q

Insulin actions in muscle (2)

A

+ glucose uptake, glycogen synthesis 

+ protein synthesis

212
Q

Insuliin actions in adipose tissue (3)

A

+ glucose uptake 
+ triglyceride uptake 
+ lipid synthesis

213
Q

3 types of cytoskeleton fibers

A

microtubules
actin
intermediate filaments

214
Q

Domains in microtubules

A

alpha, beta, and gamma

215
Q

2 steps in microtubule formation

A
  1. Heterodimer formation

2. protofilaments binding to one another

216
Q

Polymerization of microtubules is on the ____ end

A

plus

217
Q

The ___ cap on the plus end of microtubules stabilizes them

A

GTP

218
Q

Microtubule severing protein mechanisms (2)

A

GTP-> GDP

or cut them

M2M Unit III (3 decks)

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