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PCOL Cardio Questions > PCOL Chronic Heart Disease > Flashcards

PCOL Chronic Heart Disease Flashcards

1
Q

All of the following drugs are positive inotropic agents except:

A. Digoxin

B. Dopamine

C. Metoprolol tartrate

D. Dobutamine

E. Milrinone

A

C

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2
Q

Heart failure is a complex clinical syndrome that results in the ventrical failing to ____ or ____ blood.

A. Retain, Metabolize

B. Fill, Eject

A

B

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3
Q

When the body senses a decrease in cardiac output (SVxHR) there will be a(n)____ baroreceptor firing, increased ______ activity a reflex increase in _____.

A. Increase, PNS, TPR

B. Decrease, PNS, HR

C. Decrease, SNS, HR

D. Increase, PNS, HR

A

C

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4
Q

Engorgement of the venous system can result from _____ ventricular failure and engorgement of the pulmonaries can result from _____ ventricular failure.

A. Left, Right

B. Right, Left

A

B

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5
Q

Wich of the following are causes of heart failure? (select all)

A. Loss of viable myocytes (cardiomyopathy)

B. Excessive resistance to cardiac output

C. Valve defects

D. Low normal afterload

E. Abnormal cardiac rhythm

F. Congenital deformities of the heart

A

A, B, C, E, F

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6
Q

A decrease in stroke volume will result in: (Select All)

A. Increased SNS activation

B. Decrease in RAAS activity

C. Decreased workload of the heart

D. Increased heart workload

E. Increased chances of ischemia

F. Increased water and sodium retention by kidneys

A

A, D, E, F

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7
Q

Left heart failure results in congestion in the _____ veins and capillaries. Right heart failure results in congestion in the ______ veins and capillaries.

A. Pulmonary, Systemic

B. Systemic, Pulmonary

C. Systemic, Systemic

D. Pulmonary, Pulmonary

A

A

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8
Q

Left ventricular heart failure is associated with systolic or diastolic heart failure. Which of these statments is true about these two types of levt ventricular heart failure? (Select All)

A. Systolic: Contractility and Ejection Fraction are reduced

B. Diastolic: Contractility and Ejection fraction are reduced

C. Systolic: Stiffening and loss of adequate relaxation

D. Diastolic: Stiffening and loss of adequate relaxation

A

A, D

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9
Q

Systolic heart failure is known to have an ejection fraction (EF) of ____ and Diastolic heart failure is known to have an EF of ____.

A. EF<40%, EF>40%

B. EF>40%, EF<40%

C. EF=40%,EF>40%

A

A

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10
Q

When heart failure occurs what will happen with cardiac output?

A. Increase

B. Decrease

C. Remain Unchanged

A

B

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11
Q

When heart failure occurs what will happen to SNS input?

A. Increase

B. Decrease

C. Remain Unchanged

A

A

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12
Q

What happens to Vasoconstriction, Preload and After-load as a response to heart failure?

A. Increase

B. Decrease

C. Remain Unchanged

A

A

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13
Q

In the case of heart failure what will happen to heart workload and cardiac remodeling?

A. Increase

B. Decrease

C. Remain unchanged

A

A

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14
Q

In the case of heart failure what will happen to levels of Congestion and Na/H2O Retention?

A. Increase

B. Decrease

C. Remain Unchanged

A

A

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15
Q

In the case of heart failure what happens to the levels of tissue perfusion and blood pressure?

A. Increase

B. Decrease

C. Remain Unchanged

A

B

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16
Q

In the case of heart failure what happens to the activation of the RAAS system?

A. Increase

B. Decrease

C. Remain Unchanged

A

A

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17
Q

Which of these will cause increased cardiac workload and remodeling of the heart? (Select All)

A. Norepinephrine

B. Aldosterone

C. Angiotensin I-7

D. Angiotensinogen

E. Angiotensin II

A

A, B, E

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18
Q

Which of these statements is true about beta blockers (Select All)

A. Positive inotropic agent

B. Increases Mortality

C. Decreases Mortality

D. Decrease Morbidity

E. Must start low and go slow

A

C, D, E

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19
Q

Which of these statments is true regarding Carvedilol?

A. B1 selective beta blocker

B. Reduces preload, afterload and heart rate

C. Does not affect contractility

D. Has worst side effects with initial doses in comparison to metoprolol succinate

A

B

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20
Q

Which of these statments is true about hydrazaline?

A. Low doses will effect preload

B. Affects ONLY preload

C. Affects ONLY afterload

D. Affects preload and afterload equally

A

C

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21
Q

Which of these statments is true regarding Nitroglycerin?

A. Low doses affect preload and high doses affect afterload

B. Low doses affect preload and afterload equally

C. High doses affect preload and afterload equally

D. High doses affect preload only

A

A

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22
Q

What effects will be seen when giving lisinopril?

A. Increased HR

B. Decreased levels of Aldosterone production

C. Increased levels of Ang 1-7 production

D. Increased levels of Angiotensinogen

E. Increased AT1 receptor activation

F. Increased AT2 receptor activation

A

B, C, D

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23
Q

What effects will be seen when giving Losartan or Lisinopril?

A. Vasodilation

B. Decreased remodeling

C. Decreased Aldosterone production

D. All of the above

A

D

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24
Q

T/F Thiazide diuretics are more preferred than loop diuretics in the treatment of Heart Failure

A

F

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25
Q

Aldosterone Antagonists such as spironolactone are primarily used for their:

A. Diuretic properties

B. Vasodilatory properties

C. Decreased cardiac remodeling properties

D. None of the above

A

C

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26
Q

Cardiac index consists of Cardiac Factors and Coupling Factors as shown. Which drugs affect the cardiac factors directly? (Select All)

A. Beta Blockers

B. ACE-I

C. Non-dihydropyradines

D. ARBs

E. Alpha 1 antagonists

A

A, C

WE DO NOT use nondihydropyradines in patients with CHF

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27
Q

Which of these drugs affects coupling factors directly? (Select All)

A. Beta Blockers

B. ACE-I

C. ARBs

D. Alpha 1 antagonists

E. Non-dihydropyradines

A

B, C, D

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28
Q

What factors does Circulatory Homeostasis consist of?

A. Forward Cardiac Output (CO)

B. MAP

C. Perfusion of Tissues

D. All of the above

A

D

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29
Q

Stroke volume is _____ proportional to afterload.

A. Directly

B. Inversely

C. Indirectly

A

B

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30
Q

What symptom would be most common in a person with right ventricular failure?

A. Pulmonary Edema

B. Peripheral Edema

A

B

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31
Q

What is the correct term for the contraction of the heart muscle without the ejection of blood?

A. Contraction

B. Isometric contraction

C. Stroke Volume

D. Preload

A

B

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32
Q

End diastolic volume (EDV) is the same thing as saying ______

A Preload

B. Afterload

C. Stroke Volume

D. End systolic volume

A

A

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33
Q

Increasing preload wil ______ Actin-Myosin interactions of the heart and influence contractile strength and stroke volume.

A. Decrease

B. Increase

C. Increase or decrease depending on the amount of preload in the heart

A

C

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34
Q

When looking at the frank-starling curve increasing preload will_____ stroke volume under normal conditions

A. Increase

B. Decrease

C. Remain unchanged

A

A

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35
Q

When reaching preload volumes greater than 15mmhg the stroke volume will _____

A. Increase at a constant rate

B. Decrease

C. Begin to plateau

A

C

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36
Q

In a patient with Heart Failure increasing pre load will_____ stroke volume

A. Consistently increase

B. Decrease stroke volume

C. Produce little to no increase in stroke volume

A

C

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37
Q

Patients with Heart Failure will experience a faster _____ in stroke volume

A. Increase

B. Decrease

C. Plateau

A

C

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38
Q

For heart failure and non-heart failure patients what can you expect to see at preloads exceeding 20-25 mmHg? (select all)

A. Proportional increase in SV

B. Continued plateau effect of SV

C. Possibliity of edema

D. Increased Cardiac Output

A

B,C

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39
Q

What drugs will cause you to move vertically on this chart? (select all)

A. Drugs that affect Preload

B. Drugs that affect afterload

C. Drugs that affect EDV

D. Drugs that affect contractility

A

B,D

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40
Q

What type of drug produces this type of movement on the chart?

A. Vasodilator

B. Beta blocker

C. Diuretic

D. Inotropic agent

A

D

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41
Q

What type of drug produces this type of response on the chart?

A. Diuretic

B. Beta blocker

C. Inotropic agent

D. Vasodilator

A

A

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42
Q

What type of drug produces this type of movement on the chart?

A. Vasodilator

B. Vasodilator + Diuretic

C. Inotropic agent + Diuretic

D. Vasodilator + Diuretic

E. Vasodilator + Inotropic agent

A

E

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43
Q

What type of drug produces this type of movmenton the chart?

A. Inotropic Agent

B. Vasodilator

C. Vasodilator + Diuretic

D. Inotropic Agent + Vasodilator + Diuretic

A

B

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44
Q

What type of drug produces this type of movement on the chart? (Select All)

A. Inotropic Agent

B. Beta blocker

C. Diuretic

D. Vasodilator

A

A,C,D

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45
Q

Diuretics are commonly used in patients that fall within the quadrant(s)____

A. I

B. II

C. III

D IV

A

B, D

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46
Q

Diuretics are primarily used in patients with: (Select All)

A. Afterload Issues

B. Edema

C. Preload issues

D. The need to move from quadrant IV to II

A

B, C

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47
Q

Which of these statements is true about diuretics?

A. Used in patients with edema

B. Decreases ventricular filling pressure (preload) and VWT

C. Not expected to produce an effect on stroke output.

D. Decreases extracellular fluid volume

E. All of the above

A

E

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48
Q

Which of the following drugs are Loop Diuretics? (Select All)

A. Furosemide (Lasix)

B. Bumetamide (Bumex)

C. Torsemide (Demadex)

D. Milrinone (Primacor)

E. Metoprolol succinate

F. Ethacrynic Acid (Edecrin)

A

A, B, C, F

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49
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Loop Diuretics?

A. Blocks aldosterone receptors in the nucleus

B. Acts in the thick ascending limb and inhibits Na/K/2Cl- symporter.

C. Acts in the DCT by decreasing expression of Na/K ATPase pumps

D. Acts in the collecting duct to fine tune the absorption of sodium.

A

B

50
Q

When giving furosemide what movement can you expect to occur in the chart?

A. Red

B. Orange

C. Blue

D. Purple

E. Green

A

C

51
Q

What class of drugs produces these effects? (Note the +++ and — does NOT mean increase and decrease. + means it produces an effect on this particular component and - means it does not produce an effect.)

A. PDE-3 inhibitors

B. Beta blockers

C. Loop diuretics

E. Vasodilators

A

C

52
Q

Based on the picture shown what will happen by blocking this channel when giving a loop diuretic?

A. Electrical gradient will not be established

B. Reduced movment of Na, K, Ca and Mg across the cell

C. Hypokalemia

D. Hypomagnesemia

E. All of the above

A

D

53
Q

Loop diruetics tend to produce a ___ onset of action

A. Fast

B. Slow

A

A

54
Q

All of the follwing are reflexes that can be seen when giving furosemid EXCEPT:

A. Increased levels of Renin

B. Increased levels of Ang II

C. Increased levels of Aldosterone

D. Decreased vasoconstriction

E. Increased vasoconstriction

F. Macula Densa response to low Na and Cl

A

D

55
Q

What is it called when a patient no longer responds to the initial dosage of a loop diuretic?

A. Diuretic Adherance

B. Diuretic Adaptation

C. Diuretic Non-compliance

D. Diuretic Failure

A

B

56
Q

When given with loop diuretics NSAIDS will produce a ____ in diuretic repsonse. Why?

A. Increase

B. Decrease

A

B

NSAIDs will cause a decrease in prostaglandin synthesis and leads to more vasoconstriction of the renal arteries. This lowers kidney perfusion and keeps the loop diuretics from reaching their site of action.

57
Q

Giving a loop diuretic with digoxin will ____ the activity and potency of digoxin and lead to an increase in _____. Why?

A. Decrease, Arrhythmias

B. Increase, Stroke volume

C. Increase, Arrhythmias

D. Decrease, Stroke volume

A

C

Loop diuretics cause potassium wasting. Digoxin will compete with K at Na/K channels in smooth muscle and if the patient becomes hypokalemic with loop diuretics digoxin will have nothing to compete with. This makes it more potent. Since it will be more potent it will prevent calcium from leaving the cell to a larger extent and this will cause more contractions of cardiac muscle (arrhythmias)

58
Q

What are the biggest adverse drug reactions associated with loop diuretics? (Select All)

A. Dehydration

B. Hypokalemia

C. Hypercalcemia

D. Hypermagnesemia

E. Hypernatremia

A

A, B

59
Q

All of the following are thiazide diuretics except:

A. Chlorthalidone (Thalitone)

B. Hydrochlorothiazide (Microzide)

C. Indapamide (Lozol)

D. Metolazone (Zaroxolyn)

E. Chlorothiazide (Diuril)

F. Furosemide (Lasix)

A

F

60
Q

What role do thiazides have in the treatment of CHF? (Select all that apply)

A. First line agent for volume overload (edema)

B. Can be used in further reducing patient edema

C. Can be used in conjunction with Loop diuretics to produce a synergistic effect

D. Can completely replace a loop diuretic in cases of diuretic adaptation

E. Can be given with a loop diuretic in cases of diuretic adaptation.

A

B, C, E

61
Q

Which of the following are common side effects of Thiazides?

A. Hypertension

B. Hypotension and Hypokalemia

C. Dehydration

D. Edema

E. B and C only

A

E

62
Q

What is the MOA of Thiazide Diuretics?

A. Blocks aldosterone at the nucleus

B. Blocks the Na/Cl cotransporter at the DCT

C. Blocks the Na/Cl Cotransporter at the PCT

D. Blocks the Na/Cl Cotransporter at the CD

A

B

63
Q

When giving a potassium sparing diuretic such as spironolactone the primary goal of therapy is to ____

A. Reduce preload

B. Reduce afterload

C. Decrease aldosterone binding and lower remodeling

D. Lower edema

A

C

64
Q

Spironolactone will: (select all)

A. Increase mortality

B. Decrease mortality

C. Reduce hospitalizations

D. Shift someone from quadrant IV to quadrant II

E. Reduce remodeling

A

B, C, E

65
Q

Since spironolactone blocks aldosterone what key effects can be seen when taking this medication?

A. Decreases Na+ and H2O retention

B. Increased retention of sodium

C. Decrease in myocardial fibrosis (remodeling)

D. A and C

A

D

66
Q

The main side effects associated with spironolactone include:

A. Increased potassium secretion

B. Hyperkalemia

C. Gynecomastia

D. Impotence

E. Reflex edema

A

B, C, D

67
Q

When is it a “go” to use Loop diuretics in patietns with CHF?

A. When the patient is in quadrant II

B. When the patient is in quadrant IV

C. When the patient has hypokalemia

D. When the patient is dry

E. A, B

A

E

68
Q

When is it a “Go” to use spironolactone in patients with CHF? (Select All)

A. Patients with Hypokalemia

B. Patients with Hyperkalemia

C. Patients with Low aldosterone Levels

D. Patients with high aldosterone levels

E. When needed in conjunction with ACE-I

A

A, D, E

69
Q

When giving Nitrovasodilators at normal doses what kinds of effects will be seen? (select all)

A. Low doses will affect the afterload first by dilaing the arteries

B. Low doses will affect the preload first by dilating the arteries

C. Low doses will affect the preload first by dilating the veins

D. High doses will affect ehe preload first by dilating the veins only

E. Decrease in ventricular wall tension

A

C, E

70
Q

Nitrovasodilators are known as NO____

A. Receivers

B. Donors

A

B

71
Q

What effects can be seen when giving a large dose of nitrovasodilators such as NTG? (Select All)

A. Decreased preload

B. Decreased afterload

C. Reflex tachycardia

D. Increase baroreceptor firing

E. Decreased baroreceptor firing

F. Decreased heart workload by decreasing SNS activation

A

A, B, C, E

72
Q

If I give NTG at a low dose what movement will you expect to see on the chart?

A. Orange

B. Purple

C. Blue

D. Red

E. Green

A

C

73
Q

If I give NTG at a HIGH dose what kind of effect will you see on the graph?

A. Orange

B. Purple

C. Red

D. Blue

E. Green

A

B

74
Q

Which of these statments regarding hydralazine is true? (Select All)

A. Unknown MOA

B. Decreases pulmonary and systemic vascular resistance (SVR)

C. Decreases Afterload and renal vasulcar resistance, increasing Renal Blood Flow

D. Primarily affects venous smooth muscle

E. Minimal to no effect on venous smooth muscle.

F. Decreases VWT and ventricular wall stress

A

A, B, C, E, F

75
Q

T/F Hydralazine has a DIRECT effect on the heart. by affecting cardiac factors

A

F

76
Q

T/F Hydralazine has an INDIRECT effect on the heart by affecting coupling factors

A

T

77
Q

When giving hydralazine what type of movement will you see on the chart?

A. Orange

B. Purple

C. Red

D. Green

E. Blue

A

A

According to Dr. Gottleib hydralazine primarliy affects afterload only with minimal to no effects on preload so there will be slight or no movement from right to left. There will only be movment upwards (He stated this in his lecture capture and showed his chart and said he would make it obvious on a chart which movment hydralazine would be)

78
Q

Bidil is a combination of Isosorbide Dinitrate and Hydralazine. Which of these statements is true regarding this drug? (Select All)

A. Isosorbide dinitrate will primarily lower the afterload

B. Isosorbide dinitrate will primarily lower the preload

C. Hydralazine will primarily lower the afterload

D. Hydralazine will primarily lower the preload

A

B, C

79
Q

When giving the vasodilator BiDil what movement would you expect to see on this chart?

A. Orange

B. Purple

C. Red

D. Green

E. Blue

A

B

It will shift to the left because the isosorbide dinitrate portion of the drug reduces preload. it will shift upwards because the hydralazine portion of the drug will decrease afterload. As a result the net effect is purple.

80
Q

What are the primary side effects of hydralazine?

A. Hypotension

B. Reflex tachycardia

C. Reflex salt retention

D. Angina

E. All of the above

A

E

81
Q

All of these drugs affects a component of the RAAS system except: (Explain which drugs affect which components)

A. Captopril

B. Losartan

C, Aiskerin

E. Metoprolol

D. Spironolactone

F. Hydralazine

A

F

Captopril- ACE-I

Losartan- Blocks AT1 receptor

Aliskerin- Inhibits Renin

Metoprolol- Blocks B1 receptors on JG cells reducing renin secretion

Spironolactone- Blocks mineralocorticoid receptors, thus decreases aldosterone synthesis

82
Q

What are the effects you can expect to see with ACE-I? (Select All)

A. Decrease SNS activity

B. Venous and arterial dilation

C. Decreased production of bradykinin

D. Decrease in preload and afterload

E. Increase in aldosterone production

F. Decrease in remodeling

A

A, B, D,F

83
Q

All of the folliwing are ADRs of ACE-I except:

A. Angioedema

B. Dry cough

C. Hypotension

D. Hypertension

E. Progressive renal insufficiency

A

D

84
Q

What movement do you expect to see when giving an ACE-I or an ARB?

A. Orange

B. Purple

C. Red

D. Green

E. Blue

A

B

85
Q

What kind of effects can you expect to see when giving an ARB? (select all)

A. Decreased Preload

B. Decreased Afterload

C. Decreased Remodeling

D. Increased Alodsterone production

E. Hypertension

A

A, B, C

86
Q

If a patient were to recieve Losartan and furosemid what would you expect to see on the chart?

A. Yellow

B. Brown

C. Purple

D. Green

E. Grey

F. Blue

A

E

87
Q

The hallmark signs of heart failure is a _____ in stroke volume and ejection fraction and is associated with _____.

A. Increase, Venous congestion

B. Decrease, Venous congestion

A

B

88
Q

T/F Sympathomemetic drugs are drugs that mimic the sympathetic nervous system.

A

T

89
Q

Sympathomemetic drugs will do all of the following except:

A. Decrease Heart Rate

B. Increase Heart Rate (chronotropy)

C. Increase Contractility (Inotropy)

D. Increase ventricular relaxation and filling (Lusitropy)

A

A

90
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding Positive Inotropic agents? (select all)

A. Increase CO

B. Are good for long term therapy

C. Decrease mortality

D. Increase mortality

E. Increase cardiac workload

A

A, D, E

91
Q

All of the following statements are true about beta blockers except:

A. Decrease heart rate

B. Initial doses and beginning therapy largely decrease cardiac output.

C. Can decrease ischemia by lowering oxygen demand.

D. Lower morbidity without a significan decrease in mortality

E. Decrease SNS influence on the heart rate and contractility

F. Lowers remodeling

A

D

92
Q

In the long term what are the benefits of using a beta-blocker?

A. Less need for transplantation

B. Improves ejection fraction (CO)

C. Exercise tolerance

D. Improved quality of life

E. All of the above

A

E

93
Q

Which of these beta blockers is B1 selective and poses little to no risk to Asthmatic patients?

A. Propranolol

B. Metoprolol succinate

C. Carvedilol

D. Labetalol

A

B

94
Q

When comparing Metoprolol and Carvedilol which initially makes the patient feel worst at first? Why?

A

Metoprolol. It is B1 selective so the heart will lose cardiac output with decreased HR and contractility. Carvedilol on the other hand will also block A1 receptors and lower TPR and preload. This will allow blood to flow from the heart a and put it under less workload in comparison to initial therapy with metoprolol.

95
Q

Above what dosage of metoprolol will it begin blocking B2 receptors?

A. 50mg

B. 100 mg

C. 150 mg

D. 200mg

A

D

96
Q

T/F Patients should be started on a beta blocker when they are in a cold and wet state (Quadrant IV)

A

F

97
Q

What do the Atrial natriuretic Peptide and Brain natriuretic peptides do in the body?

A. Promote Sodium and water retention

B. Promote natruesis in order to decrease Na and H2O retention.

A

B

98
Q

What factors increase the secretion of ANP and BNP?

A. Volume expansion in the atria

B. Increase in SNS activity

C. Glucocorticoids and AVP (vasopressin/ADH)

D. All of the above

A

D

99
Q

T/F Heart Failure can increase the levels of ANP and BNP in the blood, allowing it to show up as a possible marker for HF patients.

A

T

100
Q

T/F AVP (ADH) can cause a reflex increase in ANP and BNP by increasing the blood volume due to water retention

A

T

101
Q

What receptor does ANP bind to?

A. ANPA

B. ANPG

C. ANPL

D. ANPP

A

A

102
Q

What are the Effects of ANP and BNP?

A. Increase in glomerular filtration rate

B. Decrease in PCT sodium reabsorption

C. Inhibition of renin, Aldosterone and AVP release

D. Acts as a vasodilator

E. All of the above

A

E

103
Q

What is the MOA of Entresto?

A. Blocks the endopeptidase enzyme (NEP)

B. Keeps ANP levels elevated.

C. Promotes the activity of Neprilysin

D. Promote Natruesis and vasodilation

E. Blocks AT2 receptors

F. Lowers production of aldosterone

A

A, B, D, F

104
Q

What is the MOA of Entresto at the cellular level?

A. Sacubitril will block NEP (NEP inhibitor)

B. Valsartan blocks the AT1 receptor and promotes vasoconstriction

C. Sacubitril increases the half-life of ANP and BNP allowing it to increas cGMP levels, promoting vasodilation

D. Sacubitril will increase PDE activity

E. Sacubitril will allow soluble adenylate cyclase (sGC) to be activated more frequently since ANP will not be broken down as easily.

A

A, C, E

105
Q

What movement do you expect to see when giving entresto?

A. Brown

B. Yellow

C. Purple

D. Green

E. Grey

F. Blue

A

Green

106
Q

What is the MOA of Ivabradine (Corlanor)?

A. If channel (If channel anagonist)

B. Increases Cardiac Output by increasing HR

C. Increases action potential rate in the SA node

D. Blocks Ca++ L-type channels

A

A

107
Q

What statemtns are true about Ivabradine (Corlanor)? (Select all)

A. Drug blocks the If channel and slows the heart rate.

B. Drug blocks the If channel and lowers contractility

C. Drug primarily blocks the If in the SA node

D. Used to allow more time for ventricular filling and helps with diastolic dysfunction

E. Drug has little to no effect on contractility

A

A, C, D, E

108
Q

What is contraindicated with Ivabradine?

A. B-Blockers

B. HR<60 bpm

C. BP <90/50 mmHg

D. All of the above

A

D

109
Q

Which of the following classes are Positive Inotropic agents? (Select All)

A. Cardiac Glycosides

B. Beta blockers

C. Beta adrenergic agonists

D. Alpha 1 Antagonists

E. PDE inhibitors

F. Dopaminergic agonists

A

A, C, E, F

110
Q

Which of the following drugs is a PDE inhibitor?

A. Metoprolol succinate

B. Milrinone

C. Prazosin

D. Ivabradine (Corlanor)

E. Entresto

A

B

111
Q

What effects will be seen when taking Milrinone?

A. Increase cAMP levels

B. Increase CO

C. Decrease preload and afterload

D. Increase contractile force

E. All of the above

A

D

112
Q

What will milrinone cause when blocking PDE in the heart? (select all)

A. Increase cAMP levels and decreasing heart rate

B. Increase cAMP

C. Increases intracellular Ca+ levels

D. increase MLCK interaction and promotes contractions.

E. Increases PDE levels

A

B, C, D

113
Q

What will milrinone cause in Arterial and Venous smooth muscle? (Select All)

A. Vasodilation of areteries and veins

B. Vasoconstricts arteries and veins

C. Decreases MLCK interactions causing vasodilation

D. Increases MLCK interactions causing vasodilation

A

A, C

114
Q

When are positive inotropic agents used?

A. Chronic therapy

B. Long term use

C. Short term use

D. As first line agetns in CHF

A

C

115
Q

T/F Positive inotropic agents can improve quality of life but does not decrease mortality.

A

A

116
Q

What is the mecahnism of action for cardiac glycosides?

A. Blocks the 3Na/2K pump by competing with potassium

B. Stops sodium gradient from being formed.

C. Causes Ca+ to remain in the cell by preventing the exchange of Na with Ca+ at the 3Na/Ca+ pump

D. All of the above

A

D

117
Q

Which statements are true regarding Digoxin

A. Increased contractility

B. Increased Heart Rate

C. Used in patients with LV systolic dysfunction and Afib

D. Increased activity when given with spironolactone

E. Increased activity when given with thiazides / loop diuretics

A

A, C, E

118
Q

Which of these agents is used for digoxin overdose?

A. NAC

B. Digibind

C. Potassium

D. Protamine sulfate

A

B

119
Q

What is the MOA of Dobutamine and Dopamine?

A. stimulates D1 and D2 receptors and activates the Gs adenylate cyclase-cAMP PKA pathway.

B. Decreases heart rate and rate of relaxation

C. Negative inotropic agent that blocks D1 and D2 receptors and inactivates the adenylate cyclase-cAMP PKA pathway

D. Primarily simtulates B1 and A1 receptors to achieve an increase in Heart Rate and Contractility.

A

A

120
Q

When dopamine is given at a low dose it primarily agonizes _____ receptors.

A. D1 and D2 receptors

B. A1

C. B1

D B2

A

A

121
Q

Dopamine given at moderate doses wil activate ____

A

PCOL Cardio Questions (4 decks)

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