PCAR PART 7 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

What is the title of PCAR Part 7?
a. Aircraft Registration and Marking
b. Airworthiness
c. Instruments and Equipment
d. Operations

A

c. Instruments and Equipment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which of the following statements is not true?
a. All aircraft shall be equipped with flight and navigational instruments,
which will enable the flight crew to control the flight path of the
aircraft, carry out any required procedural manoeuvres, and observe the
operating limitations of the aircraft in the expected operating conditions.
b. In the event of the failure of one item of equipment at any stage of the
flight, the flight crew must be able operate the aircraft with the
remaining navigation equipment in accordance with its operational flight
plan and the requirements of ATS.
c. When a means is provided for transferring an instrument from its primary
operating system to an alternative system, there is no need for a positive
positioning control and marking to indicate clearly which system is being
used as long as the system is working.
d. Those instruments that are used by any one flight crew member shall be so
arranged as to permit the flight crew member to see the indications readily
from his station, with the minimum practicable deviation from the position
and line of vision which he normally assumes when looking forward along the
flight path.

A

c. When a means is provided for transferring an instrument from its primary
operating system to an alternative system, there is no need for a positive
positioning control and marking to indicate clearly which system is being
used as long as the system is working.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Per PCAR Part 7, which of the following flight and navigational instruments is
not required for aircraft operation?
a. Attitude Indicator/Artificial Horizon
b. Direction Indicator/Directional Gyro/DG/Heading Indicator
c. Turn-and-Slip Indicator/Turn Coordinator
d. Airspeed Indicator
e. Sensitive Pressure Altimeter, adjustable for any barometric pressure likely
to be set during flight
f. Vertical Speed Indicator/Variometer/Rate of Climb Indicator
g. Magnetic Compass
h. Timepiece indicating the time in hours, minutes and seconds

A

a. Attitude Indicator/Artificial Horizon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which of the following requires a single standby attitude indicator for
operation?
a. Airplane with a maximum certified take-off mass exceeding 5,700 kg
b. Aircraft having a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more
than 9 seats
c. All helicopters when operating in accordance with IFR
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which among the following statements regarding a standby attitude indicator is
true?
a. A single standby attitude indicator operates dependently on other attitude
indicating system.
b. It is not powered during normal operation.
c. When the standby attitude indicator is being operated by emergency power,
it shall be clearly evident to the flight crew.
d. After a total failure of the normal electrical generating system, it is
automatically powered for the purpose of operating and illuminating for a
minimum of 30 minutes.

A

c. When the standby attitude indicator is being operated by emergency power,
it shall be clearly evident to the flight crew.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the aeronautic emergency frequency?
a. 400 Hz
b. 2.5000 MHz
c. 290 Mhz
d. 121.5 Mhz

A

d. 121.5 Mhz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

When will crew member interphone system necessary for operation?
1: If flightcrew of more than one is required;
2: If the airplane’s maximum certified take-
off mass exceeds 15,000 kg;
3: If the airplane’s maximum approved passenger seating configuration is more than 19.

A

g. 1, 2, and 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

At what altitude are (pressure) Altitude Reporting Transponders required?
a. As soon as the aircraft is above the ground
b. 25,000 feet
c. FL 290
d. FL 1215

A

c. FL 290

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which of the following is not necessary for an aircraft operated at night?
a. Landing light, anti-collision light system, navigation/position lights
b. Lights to conform to the International regulations for preventing
collisions at sea if the aircraft is a seaplane or an amphibian aircraft
c. Illumination for all flight instruments and equipment that are essential
for the safe operation of the aircraft
d. Lights in all passenger compartments
e. A flashlight for each crew member station
f. A heated pitot tube
g. Windshield wipers

A

g. Windshield wipers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Flights at and above what altitude is loss of pressurization indicator required?
a. As soon as the aircraft is above the ground
b. 25,000 feet
c. FL 290
d. FL 1215

A

b. 25,000 fee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Landing gear aural warning device is needed by _____.
a. helicopter with landing skid
b. airplanes with retractable landing gear
c. airplanes with fixed landing gear
d. all aircraft with landing gear

A

b. airplanes with retractable landing gear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which of the following warning instrument/system is not dependent on the maximum
certificated take-off mass or approved passenger seating configuration?
a. Altitude alerting system
b. Ground proximity warning system
c. Airborne collision avoidance system II
d. Forward looking wind shear warning system
e. Mach number indicator
f. Loss of pressurization indicator
g. Landing gear aural warning device
h. Weather radar

A

e. Mach number indicator
f. Loss of pressurization indicator
g. Landing gear aural warning device
h. Weather radar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Altitude alerting system and forward looking wind shear warning system are
obligatory for turbine-powered airplane having a maximum approved passenger
seating configuration of _____.
a. more than 9 seats
b. less than 9 seats
c. more than 19 seats
d. less than 19 seats

A

a. more than 9 seats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Altitude alerting system, ground proximity warning system, airborne collision
avoidance system II, and forward looking wind shear warning system are obligatory
for turbine-powered airplane with a maximum certificated take-off mass _____.
a. exceeding 5,700 kg
b. exceeding 5,700 lb
c. less than 5,700 kg
d. less than 5,700 lb

A

a. exceeding 5,700 kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Regarding construction and location of FDR and CVR, which among the following
statements is not true?
a. The cockpit voice recorder shall have an approved underwater locating
device.
b. Flight recorders shall meet the prescribed crashworthiness and fire
protection specifications.
c. The color of the cockpit voice recorder shall either be green or blue.
d. The cockpit voice recorder shall have reflective tape affixed to the
external surface to facilitate its location under water.

A

c. The color of the cockpit voice recorder shall either be green or blue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How many FDR/CVR combination/s is/are required for airplanes having a
certificated takeoff mass of over 5,700kg?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

A

b. 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How many FDR/CVR combination/s is/are required for multi-engined turbine powered
airplane of less than 5 700kg?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

A

a. 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The FDR system shall be recalibrated at least every _____ year/s to determine any
discrepancies in the engineering conversion routines for the mandatory
parameters, in accordance with the requirements of the aircraft manufacturer to
ensure that the parameters are being recorded within the calibration tolerances.
a. one
b. two
c. three
d. five

A

d. five

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

When sensors that are dedicated to the FDR system provide the parameters of
altitude and airspeed, there shall be a recalibration performed as recommended by
the sensor manufacturer, or at least every _____ year/s.
a. one
b. two
c. three
d. five

A

b. two

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What type of flight recorder is capable of retaining information recorded during
the last 25 hours of operation?
a. I and II
b. IIA
c. III
d. IV and V

A

a. I and II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
  1. What type of flight recorder is capable of retaining information recorded during
    the last 30 minutes of operation?
    a. I and II
    b. IIA
    c. III
    d. IV and V
A

b. IIA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What type of flight recorder is capable of retaining information recorded during
the last 10 hours of operation?
a. I and II
b. IIA
c. III
d. IV and V

A

d. IV and V

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Flight data recorder media acceptable for use in aircraft registered in the
Republic of the Philippines is/are _____.
a. engraving metal foil
b. photographic film
c. analogue data using frequency modulation
d. engraving metal foil, photographic film, and analogue data using frequency
modulation
e. none of the above

A

e. none of the above

23
Q

For helicopters not equipped with an FDR, at least _____ shall be recorded on one
track of the CVR.
a. main rotor speed
b. N1
c. N2
d. tail rotor speed

A

a. main rotor speed

24
Q

Which of the following statements regarding cockpit voice recorder is not true?
a. No person may operate the aircraft unless it is equipped with a cockpit
voice recorder capable of recording the aural environment of the flight
deck during flight time.
b. A CVR shall be capable of retaining the information recorded during at
least the last 30 minutes of its operation.
c. No person shall turn on a CVR during flight time.
d. A CVR shall be capable of retaining the information recorded during at
least the last 2 hours, for airplanes of a maximum certificated take-off
mass of over 5,700 kg or helicopters that receive type certification after
1 January 2003.

A

c. No person shall turn on a CVR during flight time.

25
Q

Each passenger-carrying land plane emergency exit (other than over-the-wing) that
is more than _____ feet from the ground with the airplane on the ground and the
landing gear extended shall have an approved means to assist the occupants in
descending to the ground.
a. 2
b. 6
c. 30
d. 45

A

b. 6

26
Q

Each passenger emergency exit shall have a _____ colored band outlining the
opening on the outer edge of the door or on the side of the fuselage.
a. 2-inch
b. 6-inch
c. 30-inch
d. 45-inch

A

a. 2-inch

27
Q

Which PCAR Part presents standards and recommended practices as regulatory
requirements for instruments and equipment on aircraft expected to operate in the Republic of the Philippines?
a. 4
b. 5
c. 7
d. 8

A

c. 7

28
Q

If you are in a life raft, how many pyrotechnic signaling device/s will you find?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

A

a. 1

29
Q

Which among these aircrafts are can be operated without survival equipment?

A

a. Balloon
b. Glider
c. Hang glider
d. Gyroplane
e. Ultra-light airplane

30
Q

All aircraft, except a glider, balloon, airship, ultra-light airplane, gyroplane,
restricted or non-type certificated aircraft, on all flights shall be equipped
with a _____ MHz ELT.
a. 25
b. 121.5
c. 290
d. 406

A

d. 406

31
Q

An aircraft that is operated within _____ nautical miles of the aerodrome of
departure is not required to have survival equipment and emergency local
transmitter.
a. 25
b. 121.5
c. 290
d. 406

A

a. 25

32
Q

Which of the following statements regarding ELT is not true?
a. An aircraft engaged in a test flight is not required to have an ELT.
b. Batteries used in ELTs shall be replaced when the transmitter has been in
use for more than one cumulative hour.
c. If 50 percent of batteries’ useful life has expired, it should be replaced.
d. All statements are true.

A

d. All statements are true.

33
Q

Which among the following statements regarding portable fire extinguisher is
correct?
a. At least one portable fire extinguisher shall be provided and conveniently
located for use in each Class E cargo compartment.
b. At least one portable fire extinguisher shall be conveniently located on
the flight deck for use by the flight crew.
c. At least one portable fire extinguisher shall be conveniently located in
the passenger compartment of airplanes having a passenger seating capacity
of 30 or less.
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

34
Q

Bombardier Q400 NextGen can carry 90 passengers. How many portable fire
extinguishers should be present in the airplane?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
e. 6
f. 7
g. 8

A

b. 3

35
Q

No person may operate a passenger-carrying transport category airplane unless
each lavatory in the airplane is equipped with _____.
a. A built-in fire extinguisher
b. a smoke detector system
c. both the built-in fire extinguisher and smoke detector system
d. nothing

A

c. both the built-in fire extinguisher and smoke detector system

35
Q

Considering a large airplane, which of the following statements regarding crash
axe is not true?
a. A crash axe is not needed.
b. A crash axe is needed only if the number of passengers exceeds 30.
c. A crash axe is needed and should be stored in a place easily seen by
passengers.
d. A crash axe is needed and should be stored in a place not visible to
passengers.

A

d. A crash axe is needed and should be stored in a place not visible to
passengers.

36
Q

Per Part 7, on what factor does the number of first-aid kits to be carried on an
aircraft rely?
a. Aircraft certificated take-off weight
b. Distance to be covered during flight
c. International regulation. Fixed number of first-aid kit per aircraft is 1.
d. Number of passenger seats installed

A

d. Number of passenger seats installed

37
Q

No person may operate an aircraft at altitudes above _____ unless it is equipped
with oxygen masks, located so as to be within the immediate reach of flight crew
members while at their assigned duty station.
a. 10,000 ft
b. 15,000 ft
c. 20,000 ft
d. 25,000 ft

A

a. 10,000 ft

38
Q

No person may operate a pressurized aircraft at altitudes above _____ unless
flight crew member oxygen masks are of a quick donning type.
a. 10,000 ft
b. 15,000 ft
c. 20,000 ft
d. 25,000 ft

A

d. 25,000 ft

39
Q

The total number of dispensing units and outlets shall exceed the number of seats
by at least _____. The extra units are to be evenly distributed throughout the
cabin.
a. 10%
b. 15%
c. 20%
d. 25%

A

a. 10%

40
Q

No person may operate an airplane with a maximum certified takeoff mass exceeding
5,700 kg. or having a maximum approved seating configuration of more than 19
seats unless it has protective breathing equipment to protect the eyes, nose, and
mouth of each flight crew member and all required cabin crew members and to
provide oxygen/breathing gas for a period of not less than _____ minutes.
a. 10
b. 15
c. 20
d. 25

A

b. 15

41
Q

On airplanes with a seating capacity of more than 60 and less than 100
passengers, _____ megaphone/s shall be located at the place readily accessible to
a normal flight attendant seat.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

A

a. 1

42
Q

On airplanes with a seating capacity of more than 99 passengers, _____
megaphone/s shall be located at the place readily accessible to a normal flight
attendant seat.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

A

b. 2

43
Q

Which of the following requires life saving rafts in sufficient numbers to carry
all persons on board?
a. All airplanes when operating in extended over-water operations.
b. Class 1 and 2 helicopters when they are operated over water at a distance
from land corresponding to more than 10 minutes at normal cruise speed.
c. Class 3 helicopters when they are operated over water beyond autorotational
or safe forced landing distance from land.
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

44
Q

What is the minimum number of independent static pressure system for aircraft
operation?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

A

b. 2

45
Q

Which of the following statements regarding seats, safety belts, and should
harnesses is true?
a. The safety harness for each pilot seat shall incorporate a device, which
will automatically restrain the pilot’s torso in the event of rapid
deceleration.
b. A seat with safety belt for each person over the age of two (2) years old
is required.
c. The cabin crewmember’s seats shall be located near floor level and other
emergency exits for emergency evacuation.
d. The safety harness for each pilot seat, which includes shoulder straps and
a seat belt, should incorporate a device to prevent a suddenly
incapacitated pilot from interfering with the flight controls.
e. All of the above.
f. None of the above.

A

e. All of the above.

46
Q

Which among the following statements regarding passenger and pilot compartment
doors is not correct?
a. All passenger-carrying aircraft of a maximum certificated take-off mass in
excess of 45,500 kg shall be equipped with an approved flight crew
compartment door.
b. All passenger-carrying aircraft with a passenger seating capacity greater
than 60 shall be equipped with an approved flight crew compartment door.
c. Flight crew compartment doors are designed to resist penetration of small
firearms and grenade shrapnel and forcible intrusions of unauthorized
persons.
d. This door shall be capable of being locked and unlocked from either pilot’s
station.
e. All of the above.
f. None of the above.

A

f. None of the above.

47
Q

Per Part 7, which is not a mandatory passenger information sign?
a. Sign when to fasten the seat belt
b. Sign when the lavatory is free
c. Sign that prohibits smoking
d. “Fasten seat belt while seated”
e. “Philippine law provides for a penalty for tampering with the smoke
detector installed in this lavatory”

A

b. Sign when the lavatory is free

48
Q

Public address system is required for airplanes carrying _____ passengers.
a. more than 19
b. more than 25
c. more than 30
d. more than 51

A

a. more than 19

49
Q

Spare fuses available for use in flight _____
a. Must be equal to at least 5% of the number of fuses of each rating or three
of each rating, whichever is greater.
b. Must be equal to at least 5% of the number of fuses of each rating or three
of each rating whichever, is lesser.
c. Must be equal to at least 10% of the number of fuses of each rating or
three of each rating, whichever is greater.
d. Must be equal to at least 10% of the number of fuses of each rating or
three of each rating, whichever is lesser.

A

c. Must be equal to at least 10% of the number of fuses of each rating or
three of each rating, whichever is greater.

50
Q

Which among the following statements is not true?
a. Airplane with a maximum certified take-off mass of more than 5,700 lb
should be equipped with a windshield wiper or equivalent means to maintain
a clear portion of the windshield during precipitation.
b. An aircraft can be operated even without a chart holder.
c. Airplane in commercial air transport operations intended to be operated
below 15,000 meters must be equipped with cosmic radio detection equipment.
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

A

d. All of the above

51
Q

Which should be installed or readily available on all seaplanes for flight?
a. Anchor
b. Drogue
c. Maritime sound signaling device
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

52
Q

Which PCAR Part prescribes the minimum instrument and equipment requirements for all aircraft in all operations?
a. 4
b. 5
c. 7
d. 8

A

c. 7

53
Q

Which PCAR part discusses survival equipment requirements that may apply to the
Republic of the Philippines?
a. 4
b. 5
c. 7

A

c. 7

54
Q

Number of passenger seats installed -Number of first- aid kits required

0-50 —–1
51-150—–2
151-250 —–3
>250——4

A

Passenger Seating Capacity Minimum –Number of Hand Fire Extinguishers

<30 —1
30-60—2
61-200—3
201-300— 4
301-400— 5
401-500 —6
501-600 —7
>601 —8