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Systems 1 > PC-21 Aircraft Introduction > Flashcards

PC-21 Aircraft Introduction Flashcards

1
Q

What type of structure is the PC-21 fuselage?

A

Semi-monocoque.

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2
Q

What material is the canopy made from? Are the front and rear canopies of different thickness?

A

Acrylic. Yes.

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3
Q

What is the front canopy transparency designed to withstand?

A

Bird of 1 kg at a speed of 300 kt.

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4
Q

What make and model are the ejection seats?

A

Martin Baker 0-0 ejection seats

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5
Q

What does the Canopy Fracturing System consist of?

A

Minature Detonating Cord (MDC) and an initiation mechanism.

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6
Q

What materials are the PC-21 primary structure made from?

A

Aluminum, steel and titanium

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7
Q

What aircraft components are made from carbon fibre?

A

1) Spinner
2) Winglets
3) Cowlings

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8
Q

What engine does the PC-21 have?

A

Pratt & Whitney PT6-68B turboprop engine.

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9
Q

What is the rated engine power of the engine?

A

1600 SHP

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10
Q

What are the details of the propeller?

A

Hartzell, constant speed, variable pitch propeller with 5 graphite composite blades.

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11
Q

What direction does the propeller rotate in and what keeps it at a constant speed of 2000 RPM?

A

Clockwise, Propeller Interface Unit (PIU) maintains the constant RPM.

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12
Q

What does the trim aid device do?

A

Compensated for torque and slipstream effects arising from the propeller.

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13
Q

What is the internal usable fuel capacity and where are the wing tanks located?

A
  • 1200 lb
  • Located in the structure of the left and right wing.
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14
Q

What is the aerobatic tank and what is is capacity and purpose?

A

Secondary fuel storage that ensures a continuous supply of fuel to the engine under negative g conditions for a max of 45s.

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15
Q

What are the sections of the general cockpit layout?

A
  1. Glare Shield
  2. Instrument panel
  3. Left/right console
  4. Pedestal
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16
Q

What is red used for in the cockpit?

A

Used for warnings and indicates danger or a hazardous situation or range. It requires immediation action to ensure the safety of the aircraft and aircrew.

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17
Q

What is amber used for in the cockpit?

A

Cautions which may need future correction action

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18
Q

What is green used for in the cockpit?

A

Positive or normal indication as well as VOR related indications

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19
Q

What is white used for in the cockpit?

A

Denotes titles, display segregation or panel markings.

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20
Q

What is magenta used for in the cockpit?

A

Displays calculated data, auto data or information regarding the ILS

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21
Q

What is cyan used for in the cockpit?

A

Denotes crew entered data, through soft keys or crew selected state of a system.

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22
Q

What is yellow used for in the cockpit?

A

Fixed reference point on all display scales.

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23
Q

What is the aircraft length?

A

11.2 m

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24
Q

What is the aircraft height?

A

3.75 m

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25
Q

What is the aircraft wingspan?

A

9.11 m

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26
Q

What is the prop diameter?

A

2.39 m

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27
Q

How is directional control of the aircraft on the ground achieved?

A

Through differential braking or nose wheel steering or both.

28
Q

Can the aircraft be turned on a locked main wheel? If so, how? Is it recommended.

A

Yes. Through moderate braking and engine power. Not recommended due to excessive engine wear.

29
Q

Which direction is turning radius larger and why is that the case?

A

Larger to the right due to propeller slipstream and torque effects.

30
Q

What is the Maximum Ramp Weight (MRW)?

A

3120 kg

31
Q

What is the Max Take Off Weight (MTOW)?

A

3100 kg

32
Q

What is the minimum flying weight?

A

2330 kg

33
Q

What is the Max Landing Weight?

A

3100 kg

34
Q

What is the Max Zero Fuel Weight?

A

2750 kg

35
Q

What is the max weight of baggage comparment?

A

25 kg.

36
Q

What is the Max Operating Speed (Vmo) and Max Operating Mach Number (Mmo)

A
  • 370 KIAS
  • 0.72 M
37
Q

What is the max maneuvering speed(Vo) for ailerons?

A

370 KIAS

38
Q

What is the max maneuvering speed for rudder and elevator? What does this mean?

A

220 KIAS
Do no make abrupt control movements above this speed.

39
Q

What is max speed with flaps/landing gear/in transit extended? (Vle, Vfe, Vlo)

A

180 KIAS

40
Q

What is the stall speed in clean configuration (Vs) at idle power and 0 angle of bank?

A

92 KIAS

41
Q

What is the stall speed in landing configuration (Vso) at idle power and 0 angle of bank?

A

81 KIAS

42
Q

What are load factor limits with flaps and landing gear retracted?

A

+8 and -4 g

43
Q

What are load factor limits with flaps not retracted?

A

+4 g and 0 g

44
Q

What are the load factor limits with landing gear in transition?

A

+2 g and 0 g.

45
Q

What is not allowed at load factors > +5 g or lower than -1 g?

A

Abrupt movement (less than 1 second) of the aileron from neutral to full deflection

46
Q

What is the maximum flight time below 0 g?

A

45 seconds.

47
Q

What is the maximum operating altitude for the PC-21?

A

25,000 ft

48
Q

What is the temperature limit for operating the aircraft?

A
  • 55 C to + 55 C
49
Q

Assuming standing start, brakes released at full power, flaps in T/O position, no wind and OAT of +30 C, what is take off run distance?

A

2000 ft.

50
Q

Assuming ISA conditions at fuel reserve of 200 lb at destination, what is max range of the aircraft?

A

500 NM at 10,000 ft
620 NM at 20,000 ft
660 NM at 25000 ft

51
Q

When should the seat pin only be removed?

A

After the aircrew is correctly strapped in and the canopy is closed and latched.

52
Q

How is the ejection seat made live?

A

By removing the pin, which is then inserted into the stowage in the left hand side of the glare shield.

53
Q

What must the flight crew observed before closing the canopy with the CFS pin removed?

A
  1. Visually verify that the CFS striker plate is unobstructed, and the MDC trip lever has no yellow area visible.
    2 Wear gloves, helmet and mask with at least one visor lowered.
  2. There are no personnel within CFS blast area
54
Q

What is the CFS blast area?

A

10 meters radius forward to the wing trailing edge.

55
Q

What is the prop danger area?

A

3 m radius from the propeller

56
Q

What is the hot exhaust area?

A

25 to the rear of the wing

57
Q

What is the prop/exhaust back wash area?

A

40 m back from the A/C.

58
Q

What safety precaution should be taken before establishing electrical power on the A/C?

A

Ares near flight controls, flaps and airbrake are clear of any personnel.

59
Q

What is caution advised in the handling of the following areas after engine shutdown?

A
  • AOA vane
  • Exhaust outlets
  • Prop de-icing strips
  • Pitot Tube
  • Left and right-hand static ports
  • Landing and taxi lights
60
Q

What does Volume 1 of the Flight Manual contain?

A

Aircraft Systems and Operation.

61
Q

What does Volume 2 of the FM contain?

A

Mission Systems, Nav and Comms

62
Q

What are BOLDFACE items?

A

Items that must be performed immediately in the event of an emergency to avoid aggravating the system.

63
Q

What is contained in FM Volume 1, Section 5?

A

PC-21 Operating Limitations including speed, weight and balance limits

64
Q

What does FM Volume 1, Appendix 1 - Performance Data contain?

A

Charts and information to determine take-off, cruise control, fuel planning, approach and landing data necessary to complete the flight.

65
Q

What air inlet is at the top of the nose cowl?

A

OBOGS and generators cooling air inlet

Systems 1 (12 decks)

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