PBL 1 Flashcards

1
Q

where does the arterial supply to the upper ib begin?

A

subclavian atyeru

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2
Q

when does the subclavian artery become the axillary artery?

A

at the lateral border of the first rib

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3
Q

what are the 6 branches of the axillary artery?

A
superior thoracic artery
thoracoacromial artery
lateral thoracic artery
subscapular artery (Branches for circumflex scapular ans thoracodorsal)
anterior circumflex humeral
Posterior circumflex humeral

SOMETIMES LIFE SEEMS A PAIN

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4
Q

when does the axillary artery become the brachial artery?

A

at the lower border of the teres major muscle

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5
Q

distal to the teres major, what does the brachial artery give rise to?

A

the produnda brachii (deep brachial artery) - this travels within the the radial groove of the humerus with the radial nerve

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6
Q

what does the profunda brachii artery give rise to?

A

medial collateral and radial collateral arteries

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7
Q

what does the medial collateral artery anastamose with?

A

recurrent interosseous artery

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8
Q

what does the radial collateral artery anastamose with?

A

radial recurrent artery

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9
Q

what does the brachial artery give rise to?

A
Profunda Brachii
Superior Ulnar Collateral Artery
Inferior Ulnar Collateral Artery
Ulnar Artery
Radial Artery
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10
Q

what does the infeiror ulnar collateral artery anastamose with?

A

the anterior ulnar recurrent and medial collateral arteries

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11
Q

what does the superior ulnar collateral artery anastamose with?

A

posterior ulnar recurrent artery

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12
Q

what does the thoracoacromial artery supply?

A

pectoralis major and minor, part of deltoid, skin over clavipectoral fascia

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13
Q

what does the lateral thoracic artery supply?

A

lateral structures of the thorax and breast

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14
Q

what do the anterior and posterior circumflex humeral artery supply?

A

teres major ad inor, deltoid, long head of tricep brachii

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15
Q

what does the subscapular artery supply?

A

muscles and skin of the shoulder, upper extremities and thoracic wall

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16
Q

what does the circumflex scapular artery supply?

A

deltoid, teres minor, tricep brachii, glenoid labrum, skin over lateral scapula

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17
Q

what does the medial collateral atery supply?

A

triceps

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18
Q

what does the inferior ulna collteral artery supply?

A

brachialis, biceps brachii, coracobrachialise

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19
Q

what does the radial recurrent artery supply?

A

elbow joint, brachialis, brachioradialis

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20
Q

what does the anterior ulna recurrent artery supply?

A

elbow joint and pronator teres

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21
Q

what does the posterior ulna recurrent artery supply?

A

elbow joint, flexor carpi ulnaris and palmaris longus

22
Q

what are the 4 stages of general anaesthesia?

A

induction
excitement
surgical anaesthesia
medullary paralysis

23
Q

whats the induction stage of general anaesthetic?

A

from consciousness to unconsciousness

24
Q

whats the excitement stage of general anaesthetic?

A

depression of inhibitory CNS neurones leading to increased excitement, involuntary movement, bp, HR and RR

25
Q

what is the surgical anaestesia of general anaesthetic?

A

gradual loss of muscle tone and reflexes, patient is fully unconscious and there is regular breathing

26
Q

what is the medullary paralysis stage of general anaesthetic?

A

respiratory and cardiovascular failure which can lead to death if not reversed

27
Q

what are some intravenous general anaesthetic agent?

A

propofol, etomidate, ketamine and thiopental sodium

28
Q

what are IV general anaesthetic agents usef for?

A

unconsciousness so the induction phase

29
Q

what are the 3 key things needed for general anaesthesia?

A

immobility
analgesia
unconsciousness

30
Q

whats the moa of general anaesthtic IV agents?

A

bidning to GABA-A rceptors which causes a conformational change which opens a central pore, allowing Ca2+ in and causing hyperpolarization of rsting potential - this makes it more difficult for excitatory neurotransmitters to depolarise the neuron and generate an action potential

31
Q

what are side effects of etomidate?

A

adrenal suppression ans transient skeletal muscle movements

32
Q

what are side effects of propofol?

A

respiratory deoression and hypotension

33
Q

what is an example of barbiturates?

A

thiopental sodium

34
Q

what are side effects of barbiturates?

A

apnea, cough, bronchospasms and respiratory depression

35
Q

what are inhalation general anaesthetic agent examples?

A

nitrous oxide, xenon, cyclopropane

36
Q

what are inhalation general anaesthetic agents good for?

A

analgesia

37
Q

how do nitrous oxide, xenon and cyclopropane work?

A

they inhibit NMDA receptors so we get decreased neurotransmission of pain

38
Q

what are side effects of ketamine?

A

hypertension, tachycardia, hypersalivationn, emergence phenomena

39
Q

what are side effects of nitrous oxide and cyclopropane?

A

dizziness, nausea and vomiting

40
Q

what are side effects of xenon?

A

there are no significant side effects

41
Q

what are examples of halogenated volatile anaesthetics?

A

halothane, enflurone, isoflurone, sevoflurane, desflurane

42
Q

what are the moas of halogenated volatile anaesthetics?

A

bind to GABA-A receptors, activate 2-pore-domain K+ channels, inhibit NMDA receptors etc…
very diverse!

43
Q

what are side effects of halogenated volatile anaesthetics?

A

hypotension and reduction in cardiac output - dependant on dose

44
Q

whats a side effect of sevoflurane?

A

renal toxicity

45
Q

whats a side effect of halothane?

A

cardiac arrythmias and hepatotoxicity

46
Q

what is malignant hyperthermia?

A

a rare but potentially lethal complication of anaesthesia

  • rise in temp
  • increased muscle rigidity
  • tachycardia
  • acidosis
47
Q

whats a common trigger of malignant hyperthermia?

A

voltaile anaesthetics

48
Q

how do we classify fractures?

A

the position of bone ends (nondisplaced or displaced)
completeness of break (incomplete or complete)
orientation of break (transverse or linear)
and whether it has penetrated the skin (compound or simple)

49
Q

what is osteomyelitis?

A

inflammation of bone or bone marrow, usually caused by staph aureus infection during a fracture

50
Q

what are the 4 stages of bone healing?

A

inflammatory stage/hematoma formation
fibrocartilaginous callus formation
bony callus formation
bone remodelling