Patient Care

Question 1

A patient who has been diagnosed with active pulmonary tuberculosis requires what type of precaution be taken by
healthcare providers?

Airborne
Contact
Droplet
Reverse

Answer 1

Airborne

A patient who has been diagnosed with active pulmonary tuberculosis requires airborne precautions.

Airborne precautions are used when infectious organisms are transmitted in dust particles or in droplets smaller than 5 µm. These precautions require the healthcare workers to wear an N95 grade mask and for the patient to be placed in a negative-pressure room.

Question 2

Medical or surgical asepsis can be defined as a:

Complete destruction and removal of pathogenic microorganisms in the environment

Method of creating new types of pathogenic microorganisms in the environment

Method of encouraging growth of pathogenic microorganisms in the environment

Set of procedures used to create and maintain a sterile environment

Answer 2

Set of procedures used to create and maintain a sterile environment

Medical or surgical asepsis refers to a set of procedures used to create and maintain a sterile environment during medical procedures. This is important for preventing the
transmission of infections. Some key steps in medical asepsis include: hand hygiene, disinfection, antiseptics, and using gloves, gowns, face masks, and sterile equipment.

Question 3

According to the ACR Manual on Contrast Media, which three (3) of the following are considered severe physiologic
reactions to contrast media?

Vasovagal reaction resistant to treatment
Protracted nausea and vomiting
Arrhythmia
Convulsions or seizures
Mild hypertension

Answer 3

Vasovagal reaction resistant to treatment
Arrhythmia
Convulsions or seizures

According to the ACR Manual on Contrast Media, vasovagal reaction resistant to treatment, arrhytmia, and convulsions or seizures are all considered severe physiologic reactions to contrast media, as well as hypertensive emergency. Protracted nausea and vomiting is considered a moderate physiologic reaction and mild hypertension is considered a mild physiologic reaction.

Question 4

Which section of the Safety Data Sheet SDS provides information on the recommended use of the chemical and
restrictions on its use?

Section 1- Identification
Section 2- Hazard(s) Identification
Section 8- Exposure Controls/Personal Protection
Section 16- Other Information

Answer 4

Section 1- Identification

Section 1 of the SDS includes the product identifier, manufacturer or distributor name, address, phone number, emergency phone number, recommended use, and
restrictions on use, providing critical initial information.

Section 2 deals with the hazards of the chemical and the required label elements.

Section 8 provides guidelines on the appropriate personal protective measures to minimize exposure.

Section 16 may include various other information, including the date of the latest revision of the SDS.

Question 5

At what point is a person at risk of irreversible brain damage
if they develop cerebral hypoxia?

Less than 5 minutes
5 to 10 minutes
10 to 15 minutes
15 to 20 minutes

Answer 5

Less than 5 minutes

Cerebral hypoxia may potentially cause irreversible brain damage and
tissue death in less than 5 minutes. The longer the patient goes without
oxygen, the worse the brain damage can be.

Question 6

Which of the following is a mandatory element on a Safety
Data Sheet (SDS)?

Environmental effects
Transport hazard class
Special precautions for landfills
Flash point

Answer 6

Flash point

The flash point is a mandatory element on an SDS under physical and chemical properties. The other answer options are incorrect because, while they can be listed on an SDS, according to OSHA, they are not mandatory.

Question 7

A patient with pertussis or influenza needing transmission based precautions would most likely be placed in which of
the following?

Airborne infection isolation
Contact precaution isolation
Droplet precaution isolation
Reverse isolation

Answer 7

Droplet precaution isolation

A patient with pertussis (whooping cough) or influenza needing
transmission-based precautions would most likely be placed under
droplet precautions. Droplet precautions are used for diseases that are transmitted by sneezing, coughing, talking, or from fluid from the eye, nose, or mouth. Accoring to the CDC, examples of diseases that might require droplet precautions include B. pertussis, influenza virus,
adenovirus, rhinovirus, N. meningitides, and group A streptococcus (for the first 24 hours of antimicrobial therapy).

Question 7

What must be worn when entering the room of a patient in
droplet isolation?

Head covering
Mask
N-95 respirator
Shoe covers

Answer 7

Mask

Airborne = N95 mask
Droplet = Mask

A mask must be worn when entering the room of a patient in droplet
isolation according to the Center for Disease Control CDC guidelines.
Eye protection may also be worn if there is an expectation of contact
with blood or body fluids. Droplet isolation is mandatory to prevent the spread of pathological organizations through talking, coughing, and/or sneezing. A head covering and shoe covers are not necessary for droplet precautions. An N95 respirator is required for airborne precautions, not

Question 8

A patient inquires about the potential side effects of a
contrast agent used in their imaging procedure. What is the
best response?

Provide detailed information about all possible side effects

Refer the patient to their physician for detailed information

Reassure the patient that there are no side effects

Change the subject to avoid answering the question

Answer 8

Refer the patient to their physician for detailed information

Referring the patient to their physician for detailed information ensures they receive accurate and comprehensive guidance about potential side effects. Providing detailed information or reassurances without full
knowledge, or avoiding the question, is inappropriate.

Question 9

Which two 2 of the following transfer methods can help a
technologist avoid injury when transferring a patient from a
wheelchair or gurney onto the radiographic table?

Use their arm and leg muscles to lift

Use a slide-board or gait belt

Pull the patient onto the table to reduce friction

Push the patient on to the table to reduce friction

Answer 9

Use their arm and leg muscles to lift
Use a slide-board or gait belt

When transferring a patient from a wheelchair or gurney to a
radiographic table, the technologist should use their arm and leg
muscles to lift, rather than their back, and use a slideboard or gait belt whenever possible to aid in the transfer. Pushing and pulling the patient will not reduce friction and can make it harder on the technologist without the use of a slideboard or other transfer aid and/or additional

Question 10

Which three of the following are considered symptoms? Which two are signs?

Anxiety
Bloody nose
Fatigue
Malaise
Rash

Answer 10

Symptoms: Anxiety, fatigue, Malaise

Signs: bloody nose; rash

Symptoms are not observable and are subjective in nature

Signs can be detected and/or measured by a physician, nurse, or another observer.

Question 11

How wide is the border on a sterile field that is non-sterile
and considered safe to touch? In inches

0.5
1
1.5
2

Answer 11

1

A border of one inch at the edge of the sterile drape is considered nonsterile and is safe to touch to open the tray or shift the field. All sterile objects should be placed inside the sterile field and away from the one inch border.

Question 12

According to the ACR Manual on Contrast Media, which three
3 of the following are considered moderate reactions to
iodinated contrast media? Select three)

Wheezing with mild or no hypoxia
Cyanosis
Facial edema without dyspnea
Metallic taste
Diffuse urticaria

Answer 12

Wheezing with mild or no hypoxia
Facial edema without dyspnea
Diffuse urticaria

According to the American College of Radiology Manual on Contrast
Media, examples of moderate reactions to iodinated contrast media include wheezing/bronchospasm with mild or no hypoxia, facial edema
without dyspnea, and diffuse urticaria, as well as diffuse erythema, and throat tightening without dyspnea. Moderate physiologic reactions
include protracted nausea and vomiting, hypertensive urgency, isolated chest pain and vasovagal reaction that requires and is responsive to Menu

Question 13

If a patient becomes severely hypotensive after
administration of contrast media and they do not respond to
conservative treatment, which emergency medication can be
administered intravenously?

Atropine
Benadryl
Epinephrine
Lasix

Answer 13

Epinephrine

If a patient becomes severely hypotensive after administration of
contrast media, and they do not respond to conservative treatment,
epinephrine can be administered intravenously. Epinephrine is a
medication that acts quickly to constrict blood vessels and increase
blood pressure. This vasoconstrictive effect can help raise blood pressure rapidly in cases of severe hypotension. Benadryl is an
antihistamine used to treat allergic reactions and does not have the
same vasoconstrictive properties as epinephrine.

Question 14

Which two (2) of the following procedures require a non-sterile aseptic technique? (Select two)

Insertion of a barium enema tip
Insertion of an intravenous line
Insertion of a nasogastric tube
Insertion of a spinal needle

Answer 14

Insertion of a barium enema tip
Insertion of a nasogastric tube

Insertion of nasogastric tubes and barium enema tips require a non-sterile aseptic technique as they are considered minimally invasive and involve areas of the body that are not considered clean. Invasive procedures such as insertion of a spinal
needle or an IV line should be performed using sterile aseptic technique to prevent introducing microorganisms into the patient’s spinal canal or bloodstream

Question 15

Which of the following is one reason iodine is used as a contrast medium in radiography?

K-shell binding energy
High osmolality
low toxicity
Radiolucent characteristics

Answer 15

K-shell binding energy

Iodine has a particular advantage as a contrast agent because the k-shell binding energy (k-edge) is 33.2 keV, similar to the average energy of x-rays used in diagnostic radiography. When the incident x-ray energy is closer to the k-edge of the atom it encounters, photoelectric absorption is more likely to occur. This means it will
appear brighter on images than surrounding tissues.

Question 16

A radiologic technologist is performing a chest X-ray on a patient who has refused the procedure. The technologist proceeds with the examination without the patient’s consent. What ethical principle is the technologist violating?

Beneficence
Autonomy
Nonmaleficence
Justice

Answer 16

Autonomy

The ethical principle of autonomy emphasizes the patient’s right to make decisions about their own healthcare. By proceeding with the X-ray without the patient’s consent, the technologist is violating the patient’s autonomy. Beneficence refers to actions that promote the well-being of others, nonmaleficence means avoiding harm, and justice pertains to fairness in the distribution of resources and treatment.

Question 17

Regarding a healthcare proxy, what is most important for a technologist to understand?

The healthcare proxy has total control over the patient’s financial decisions.
The healthcare proxy can override the patient’s wishes at any time for any reason.
The healthcare proxy’s decisions are advisory and not binding on medical personnel.
The healthcare proxy is authorized to make medical decisions if the patient is unable to do so.

Answer 17

The healthcare proxy is authorized to make medical decisions if the patient is unable to do so.

The healthcare proxy is authorized to make medical decisions on behalf of an incapacitated patient. The other answer options misrepresent the legal authority and scope of a healthcare proxy’s role.

Question 18

The most effective method to confirm a patient’s understanding of the instructions for a procedure is to:

Explain the instructions multiple times.
Ask them to repeat the instructions back to you.
Pay attention to their nonverbal communication cues.
Give them a pamphlet and ask if they have any questions.

Answer 18

Ask them to repeat the instructions back to you.

Asking the patient to repeat the instructions ensures they have understood them correctly. Repetition alone does not confirm understanding. Nonverbal cues do not confirm understanding. Giving a pamphlet does not ensure comprehension

Question 19

When handling hazardous materials, what is the role of secondary containment?

Provide an extra layer of protection in case of container failure

Replace the need for PPE

Serve as the primary storage method for all hazardous materials

Provide a room for decontamination in case of exposure

Answer 19

Provide an extra layer of protection in case of container failure

Secondary containment offers an additional safeguard against spills or leaks if the primary container fails. The other answer options are incorrect because it does not replace PPE, serve as the primary storage method, or provide a room for decontamination in case of exposure.

Question 20

At what level does oxygen saturation affect the brain?

75-80
80-85
85-90
95-100

Answer 20

80-85

When oxygen saturation levels drop to 8085%, the lack of oxygen starts to affect the brain. Normal oxygen saturation levels should be between 95-100%. 91-95% is considered “concerning.” It is increasingly more concerning as levels fall below 80%,and at 67%, the patient is considered cyanotic, where parts of their body starts to turn blue.

Question 21

Which three (3) of the following are considered protected health information under the Health Insurance Portability and
Accountability Act (HIPAA) Privacy Act? (Select three)

Cell phone number
Medical record number
State of residence
Medical device identifier
Year of birth

Answer 21

Cell phone number
Medical record number
Medical device identifier

The patient’s cell phone number, medical record number, and medical device identifier are considered protected health information under the HIPAA Privacy Act. PHI is any information that has the potential to identify a person individually, which
under The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPAA) includes 18 attributes: Name, phone number, address (if it includes the city, street, and house number), dates (admission discharge, appointment, etc.), fax details, email, SSN, MRN, health plan beneficiary number, medical certificates, license details,
VIN, identifiers in medical devices (i.e., pacemaker), website URLs, IP addresses, biometrics full-face photographs or images with differentiators, and any other unique identifiers. The state of residence and year of birth by themselves are not enough to
identify the patient.