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Kettering Review > Patient Care > Flashcards

Patient Care Flashcards

1
Q

Consent may be given these 3 ways

A

Informed, oral or implied

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2
Q

What type of procedure would need informed consent

A

Anything that creates a new entrance into the body (IV contrast)

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3
Q

What Act is responsible for confidentiality

A

HIPAA

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4
Q

Right to refuse medical treatment including radiographic procedure applies to patient _____

A

Autonomy

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5
Q

In what sequence should exams be ordered

A
  1. Anything no requiring contrast media
  2. Lab studies for iodine uptake
  3. Urinary Tract exams
  4. Biliary Tract exams
  5. Lower GI (BE)
  6. Upper GI
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6
Q

In what order should patient waiting times be prioritized

A
  • Emergency pts
  • Fasting pts
  • Peds & Geriatrics that are NPO
  • Diabetics putting off insulin due to NPO
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7
Q

What needs to be in the order

A
  • Pt name
  • Exact part
  • Pt diagnoses
  • Ordering physician
  • Date of requisition
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8
Q

The threat of touching in an injurious manner

A

Assault

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9
Q

An unlawful touching of a person without consent

A

Battery

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10
Q

When the confidentiality of the pt is not maintained

A

Invasion of privacy

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11
Q

An injustifiable detention of a person against their will

A

False imprisonment

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12
Q

The neglect or omission of reasonable care and caution

A

Negligence

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13
Q

Defamation by written or printed words

A

Libel

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14
Q

Defamation by spoken words

A

Slander

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15
Q

An intentional or unintentional act resulting in injury to a pt

A

Tort

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16
Q

When a pt is injuried due to error caused by the health care provider

A

Malpractice

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17
Q

The doing of goodness, kindness or charity, including all actions to benefit others

A

Beneficence

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18
Q

Let the master answer

A

Respondeat superior

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19
Q

The thing speaks for itself - requires the defendant to prove their innocence

A

Res ispa loquitur

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20
Q

Do you need a physicians order to use restraints

A

Yes

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21
Q

Mandatory standards of minimally acceptable professional conduct for all present RTs & Candidates

A

Rules of Ethics

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22
Q

Modes of communication

A

Verbal & non verbal
Attitudes, tone, volume
Eye contact, touching, facial expressions, appearance

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23
Q

A sensitivity to the needs of others that allows you to meet those needs in a constructive manner

A

Empathy

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24
Q

A calm firm expression of feelings or opinions, good to use whenever working with a reluctant pt

A

Assertiveness

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25
Q

5 steps of grieving

A

Denial, Anger, Bargaining, Depression & Acceptance
DABDA

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26
Q

Uses an xray beam to record predetermined planes in the body

A

CT

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27
Q

Uses radio frequency and a magnetic field to produce sectional images of the body

A

MRI

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28
Q

Uses an xray beam to produce images of the breast

A

Mammo

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29
Q

Uses ultrasonic waves directed into tissues to visualize deep structures of the body

A

Ultrasound

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30
Q

Introduces radioactive substances into the body for diagnostic as well as therapeutic purposes

A

Nuc Med

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31
Q

Uses dual energy xray absorption to detect osteoporosis

A

DEXA - bone densitometry

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32
Q

Rules of Body mechanics - how to lift

A
  • Wide stance
  • load balanced
  • avoid twisting
  • back straight & bend at knees
  • push rather than pull a heavy object
  • pull a pt onto a table tho
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33
Q

Swan Ganz Catheter

A

Catheter used to diagnose right and left ventricular failure and pulmonary disorders, & to monitor the effects of specific medications - tip places in the pulmonary artery

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34
Q

What is the flow rate of O2 through a nasal cannula

A

21-60% O2 with a flow of 1-6 L/min

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35
Q

O2 flow rate w oxygen mask

A

Greater than 5 L/min

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36
Q

Non rebreather mask

A

Plastic reservoir bag should never be completely flat

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37
Q

O2 tent

A

Used on Pediatrics

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38
Q

Uses weights to apply a mechanical pulling or traction for therapeutic reasons, long bones, lumbar and cervical spine injuries

A

Orthopedic traction

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39
Q

Surgical opening cut in the trachea to create an airway

A

Tracheostomy

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40
Q

Tube used for feeding or gastric suction

A

NG Tube

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41
Q

Tube that goes into the intestine for purpose of aspirating gas and fluid in the intestinal tract following surgery

A

Nasoenteric Tubes

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42
Q

Used to remove fluid or free air from the pleural cavity

A

Closed chest drainage

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43
Q

Used for the drainage and collection of urine

A

Urinary catheters

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44
Q

How high does the IV bag need to be hung above the vein

A

At least 18 inches

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45
Q

Sphygmomanometer and stethoscope

A

BP equipment

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46
Q

Pulse rate

A

60-100 bpm

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47
Q

Pulse palpation sites

A

Temporal artery
Carotid artery
Radial artery
Femoral artery
Dorsal pedis artery

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48
Q

Fast heart rate - greater than 100 bpm

A

Tachycardia

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49
Q

Slow heart rate - less than 60 bpm

A

Bradycardia

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50
Q

that Represents pressure created during contraction of ventricle

A

Systolic

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51
Q

representing pressure with heart at rest

A

Diastolic

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52
Q

Hypertension

A

High BP - above 140 systolic or 90 diastolic

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53
Q

Hypotension

A

Low BP - below 95 systolic or 60 diastolic

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54
Q

BP range

A

110-140/60-80

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55
Q

Adults respiration

A

12-20/min

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56
Q

Child Respiration

A

30-60/min

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57
Q

Tachypnea

A

Rapid breathing

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58
Q

Bradypnea

A

Slow breathing

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59
Q

Apnea

A

Cessation of breathing

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60
Q

Closed fracture

A

Not broken the skin

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61
Q

Open fracture

A

Penetrated the skin

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62
Q

Displaced fracture

A

Not anatomically aligned

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63
Q

Nondisplaced fracture

A

Still in normal alignment

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64
Q

Compression fracture

A

In vertebra only

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65
Q

Impacted fracture

A

Driven into one another

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66
Q

Overriding fracture

A

Weight bearing bones only (EX Colles)

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67
Q

Comminuted fracture

A

More than 2 fragments

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68
Q

Incomplete fracture

A

Greenstick

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69
Q

Transverse fracture

A

Angled

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70
Q

Compound fracture

A

Open fracture

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71
Q

Linear fracture

A
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72
Q

Running down the bone

A
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73
Q

Depression fracture

A

Skull

74
Q

Subluxation

A

Dislocation

75
Q

Apple core appearance

A

Appearances in colon cancer

76
Q

Padgetts disease

A

Areas of bone breakdown, bone enlargement & deformity

77
Q

Boxers fracture

A

Fracture in the neck of the 5th metacarpal

78
Q

Avulsion fracture

A

Bone is pulled away by soft tissue that it’s attached to

79
Q

Colles fracture

A

Distal radius/ulna fracture with fracture pushed in front of hand

80
Q

Smith fracture

A

Distal radius/ulna fracture with fracture pushed behind hand

81
Q

Cardiac vs respiratory arrest

A

Cardiac - blood flow stops
Respiratory- breathing stops

82
Q

CPR steps

A
  • determine unresponsive
  • call 911
  • get AED
  • send for assistance if possible
  • if no pulse, 30 compressions & 2 breaths
  • if pulse, one breath every 5-6 seconds
83
Q

Syncope

A

Fainting

84
Q

What is the most common medical emergency encountered by technologists

A

Fainting

85
Q

Hyperglycemia

A

High blood sugar

86
Q

Hypoglycemia

A

Low blood sugar

87
Q

Onset of hyperglycemia and hylpoglycemia

A

Hyperglycemia- slowly
Hypoglycemia- rapidly

88
Q

Petite mal seizure

A

May not be apparent to the technologist

89
Q

Grand mal seizure

A

Major motor seizure

90
Q

Arterial blood - apply compression where

A

On site or proximal to the site between it & heart

91
Q

Venous blood - apply compression where

A

At site or distal to the site away from heart

92
Q

Orthostatic hypotension

A

Faint or lightheaded feeling when a pt is moved into an upright position

93
Q

Epistaxis

A

Nose bleeds

94
Q

Sensation of a loss of balance

A

Vertigo

95
Q

Breathing disorder characterized by wheezing and difficulty breathing

A

Asthma

96
Q

Steps for fire Evacuation

A

Race
Rescue
Alarm
Contain
Extinguish

97
Q

Steps for putting fire out

A

Pass
Pull
Aim
Squeeze
Sweep

98
Q

Deals with reducing the probability of infectious organisms being transmitted to a susceptible individual

A

Medical asepsis - clean

99
Q

Complete removal of all organisms and their spores from the equipment used to perform pt care or procedures

A

Surgical asepsis - sterile

100
Q

First level of medical asepsis

A

Cleanliness/Sanitation

101
Q

2nd level of medical asepsis

A

Equipment Disinfection

102
Q

Third & highest level of medical asepsis

A

Equipment sterilization

103
Q

An inanimate object that has made contact with an infectious organism

A

Fomite

104
Q

Transmission of an infectious agent that is indirect by means of a fomite that touches a persons body or is ingested

A

Vehicles

105
Q

Typically an arthropod - mosquito, flea, tick

A

Vector

106
Q

Hospital acquired infection

A

Nosocomial infection

107
Q

Physician caused infection

A

Iatrogenic infection

108
Q

Infection from an unknown cause

A

Ideopathic infection

109
Q

Chain of infection

A

Infectious agent - reservoir- portal of exit - mode of transmission - portal of entry - susceptible host

110
Q

For a sterile procedure, how long do you hand wash for

A

5 minutes

111
Q

Bleach ratio mixture for disinfectant use

A

1:10 ratio with water

112
Q

Opening a sterile tray - flaps

A

Open furthest one away from you first to avoid leaning over the tray once it’s open

113
Q

Methods of sterilization - boiling

A

12 minutes

114
Q

Methods of sterilization - dry heat

A

1-6 hours at temps 329-338°F

115
Q

Methods of sterilization - gas sterilization

A

Used on electric, plastic & rubber items

116
Q

Autoclaving

A

Steam sterilization

117
Q

Chemical sterilization used where

A

On items that cannot withstand heat

118
Q

Ionizing radiation sterilization

A

Used in commercial sterilization

119
Q

Microwaves/Non ionizing radiation sterilization

A

Uses low pressure steam and microwaves to produce heat

120
Q

Is alcohol a disinfectant

A

No - it’s a antiseptic which prevents the growth but does not kill them

121
Q

Acid-Fast Bacilli protocol

A

Used for TB pts with positive sputum culture - N95 required on top of gown & gloves

122
Q

Neutropenic precautions

A

Reverse isolation - used on pts w compromised immune systems which are very limited

123
Q

Responsibilities when working with pts in isolation (Clean Tech/Dirty Tech)

A

One tech works the equipment while the other the IR/pt. Clean equipment immediately outside pt room

124
Q

Material Safety Data Sheet

A

MSDS - tells everything about the product - handling precautions, safe uses of product, cleanup & disposal

125
Q

The best predicator of a possible reaction to contrast is what

A

A history of previous allergic reaction

126
Q

What percent of pts experience some type of reaction

A

5% - 5% of that 5% have sever or life threatening reactions

127
Q

IV push injection is also called what

A

Bolus injection

128
Q

Six rights of drug administration

A

Right:
Patient
Drug
Amount
Route
Time
Documentation

129
Q

Infusion administration is also called

A

An IV drip

130
Q

Steps for IV

A
  • Wash hands
  • Verify pt ID
  • explain process
  • get supplies
  • put on gloves
  • find vein & clean
  • tourniquet
  • stabilize the vein
  • insert needle & check backflow
  • remove tourniquet & inject
  • properly dispose of needle
  • chart
131
Q

Maximum allowable volume of Iv iodine is what

A

300 mL

132
Q

If a pt has renal insufficiency, IV contrast should not exceed what

A

5 x weight in kg/creatinine/mL

133
Q

How to convert lbs to Kg

A

1 kg = 2.2046 lbs

134
Q

Sites for venous catheters or needles

A

Antecubital vein (most common)
Basilic vein (back of the hand is second most common)

135
Q

What does positive contrast do to the body in terms of X-ray

A

Alters the selected organs ability to attenuate the xray beam - affects subject contrast

136
Q

What does negative contrast do to the body in terms of X-ray

A

Uses gases to reduce the ability of the structures to attenuate the beam

137
Q

Water soluble contrast

A

May be ionic or nonionic

138
Q

Oil based contrast

A

Not commonly used - is slowly absorbed into the body

139
Q

Kvp when using iodinated contrast

A

Usually 80 or less in order to not penetrate the contrast

140
Q

Ionic vs non ionic contrast

A

Ionic dissociates into two molecules & non ionic doesn’t.
Nonionic decreases the chance of reaction.

141
Q

Osmolarity vs risk

A

The increase in osmolarity = an increase in risk or reaction. Ionic has a higher osmolarity than nonionic

142
Q

Thickness of contrast media

A

Viscosity

143
Q

Barium used when

A

Doesn’t need to be absorbed by the body - cannot be used if bowel perf is suspected

144
Q

Kvp range for barium usage

A

100-125 kvp for single contrast
Above 90 for double contrast

145
Q

Gastrografin

A

Used whenever bowel perf is suspected - water soluble iodine based contrast that can be administered orally or through NG tube

146
Q

Considerations or factor that would alter the type or amount of contrast used

A

Pt condition (EX perforated bowel)
Age
Weight
Medication
Renal function

147
Q

Creatinine normal range

A

.7-1.3 mg/dL

148
Q

BUN normal value

A

8-25 mg/dL

149
Q

GFR normal value

A

90-120 mL/min/1.7 m squared

150
Q

Do diabetics have compromised kidneys

A

Yes

151
Q

When fluid infuses the tissue surrounding the venipuncture site

A

Infiltration AKA extravasation

152
Q

Drug capable of causing tissue necrosis

A

Vesicant

153
Q

Inflammation of the veins

A

Phlebitis

154
Q

Introduction of air into a vein

A

Air embolism

155
Q

A general term used to describe a failure of circulation in which blood pressure is inadequate to support oxygen perfusion of vital tissues and is unable to remove the by products of metabolism

A

Shock

156
Q

Shock resulting from external hemorrhage, lacerations or plasma loss due to burns

A

Hypovolemic

157
Q

Shock resulting from massive infection

A

Septic

158
Q

Shock resulting from a pt suffering head or spinal trauma ending in a failure of arterial resistance

A

Neuogenic shock

159
Q

Shock resulting from cardiac failure

A

Cardiogenic shock

160
Q

Results from being injected with a foreign protein, stings or iodinated media

A

Allergic or anaphylaxis

161
Q

Urticaria AKA

A

Hives

162
Q

Symptoms of contrast reaction

A
  • Restlessness
  • Increase pulse
  • Pallor, weakness &/or change in thinking ability
  • cool clammy skin
  • drop in BP (can be with itching, flushing, & shortness of breath)
163
Q

Examples of mild reactions

A

Nausea, vomiting, hives, itching, sneezing, extravasation, vasovagal response such as fear, exhibited by weakness, dizziness, sweating and feeling of passing out

164
Q

What to do for extravasation

A

Provide a warm towel

165
Q

Examples of moderate reaction

A

Excessive hives, tachycardia, giant hives, excessive vomiting - call for medical assistance

166
Q

Examples of severe reactions

A

Any reaction involving life threatening situation - very low BP, convulsions, arrest, cyanosis, profound shock - call for immediate assistance

167
Q

Xylocaine use

A

Arrhythmias

168
Q

Decadron use

A

Allergic reaction

169
Q

Benadryl use

A

Allergic reaction

170
Q

Atropine use

A

Bradycardia

171
Q

Dilantin use

A

Seizures

172
Q

Lasix use

A

Edema

173
Q

Epinephrine use

A

Cardiac arrest & anaphylaxis

174
Q

Sodium bicarbonate use

A

Metabolic acidosis

175
Q

Nitroglycerin use

A

Angina - chest pain

176
Q

Glucagon use

A

Smasmatic colon

177
Q

Heparin use

A

Anticoagulant

178
Q

Warfarin use

A

Anticoagulants

179
Q

Coumadin use

A

Anticoagulants

180
Q

Insulin use

A

Hyperglycemia

181
Q

Metformin use

A

Hyperglycemia

182
Q

Glucophage use

A

Hyperglycemia

Kettering Review (2 decks)

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