Pathophysiology Flashcards

1
Q

principle of complementarity

A

principle that the structure directly affects the function

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2
Q

tissue

A

same types of cells coming together

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3
Q

organ

A

at least 3 different types of tissue forming together (epithelial inside, smooth, then connective tissue)

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4
Q

types of tissues

A

muscle, nervous, epithelial, connective

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5
Q

function and types of muscle tissue

A

to contract. types include cardiac, skeletal, and smooth

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6
Q

Between skeletal, cardiac, and smooth, which are voluntary and involuntary

A

skeletal is voluntary and cardiac and smooth are involuntary

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7
Q

function and structure of skeletal muscles

A

function:moves bones. structure:long and cylindrical with striations.

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8
Q

location and number of nuclei per cell in cardiac muscles

A

only in the heart and one nucleus per cell

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9
Q

location and function of smooth muscle

A

innerlining of hollow organs (stomach, intestines) helps propel substances forward

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10
Q

function and location of nervous tissue

A

transmits electrical signals and located in the brain, spinal cord and peripheral nervous system

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11
Q

different layers of epithelial tissue

A

simple(single cells), stratified(cells all over each other), and pseudostratified(still one layer but long columnar cells)

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12
Q

shapes of epithelial tissue

A

squamous(flat), cuboidal and columnar

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13
Q

location of epithelial tissue

A

on the skin

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14
Q

function and examples of connective tissue

A

provides structure and support. includes cartilage, bone and blood

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15
Q

having more collagen provides what?

A

strength

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16
Q

characteristics of connective tissue

A

has collagen, elastin and reticular fibers

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17
Q

what are reticular fibers?

A

a soft skeleton to support organs

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18
Q

types of connective tissue

A

areolar(binds skin to the muscles), adipose(fat), and fibrous (it contains a lot of collagen)

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19
Q

function and location of hyaline cartilage

A

provides a lot of elasticity. located in the ribcage

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20
Q

whats another name for chondrocyte cells?

A

also known as cartilage cells

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21
Q

elastic cartilage

A

able to stretch(ear)

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22
Q

what is contained in fibrocartilage? and what is the function?

A

contains a lot of reticular fibers and collagen. function is that it can absorb shock(knees)

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23
Q

where are the cartilage and bone cells located in?

A

they float around in the lacunae

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24
Q

function and what does the integumentary system consist of?

A

helps us process vitamin D and consists of the skin, hair and nails

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25
Q

what is the primary storage of the skeletal system

A

calcium

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26
Q

which system produces heat for the body when below average?

A

muscular system

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27
Q

which system distributes substances throughout the body

A

cardiovascular system

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28
Q

function of the lymphatic system

A

picks up anything that gets left behind by the cardiovascular system

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29
Q

which system regulates pH in the body?

A

urinary system

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30
Q

function of the endocrine system

A

makes hormones

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31
Q

normal range of blood pH

A

7.35-7.45

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32
Q

normal glucose range

A

70-120

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33
Q

which is the only system that doesn’t aim to maintain homeostasis

A

reproductive system

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34
Q

what are the 4 steps to maintain homeostasis

A

sensor, receptor, control center and effectors

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35
Q

function of sensor in homeostasis

A

senses when there’s changes in homeostasis

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36
Q

function of recepetor in homeostasis

A

sends information to the control center

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37
Q

function of control center in homeostasis

A

takes information and makes moves to help maintain homeostasis (almost always the control center is the brain

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38
Q

function of effectors in homeostasis

A

physical work of restoring homeostasis after receiving orders in the control center

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39
Q

negative feedback

A

goes against the stimulus. if its hot out, negative feeback would make your body cool

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40
Q

positive feedback

A

helps to strengthen the stimulus. during childbirth, body sends out signal to keep contracting and it keeps the woman constantly contracting.

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41
Q

function of ribosomes

A

decides where protein synthesis takes place

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42
Q

function of the smooth er

A

synthesizes fats and fatty hormones

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43
Q

function of Golgi apparatus

A

takes synthesized proteins, modifies them and packages it to be sent outside the cell.

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44
Q

function of centriole

A

organizes cell for division

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45
Q

what are cristae and its functions

A

they’re the folds within mitochondria and purpose is to increase surface area(more room to do stuff)

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46
Q

location and function of the matrix

A

located in the mitochondria and is critical in making energy via the citric acid cycle

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47
Q

what is the electron transport chain and its purpose

A

a series of enzymes located in cristae. purpose is to create a concentration gradient that makes ATP

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48
Q

what has to be outside the electron transport chain in order to make ATP

A

hydrogen ions

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49
Q

function of lysosome

A

degrade/damage organelles, breaks down foreign substances

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50
Q

function of peroxisomes

A

detoxifies free radicals(neutralizes them)

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51
Q

what is a free radical

A

a highly reactive chemical

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52
Q

structure of phospholipid

A

negatively charged head(hydrophilic) and positively charged tails(hydrophobic)

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53
Q

ligand

A

ion that binds to a receptor

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54
Q

how does the surface area affect the rate of net diffusion?

A

larger surface area gives faster rate

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55
Q

is facilitated diffusion considered active or passive transport?

A

passive

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56
Q

what is osmosis?

A

net movement of water

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57
Q

what are aqua porins?

A

channel proteins that are used for osmosis

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58
Q

osmolarity

A

concentration of a solution (number of solutes/liter)

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59
Q

osmolality

A

concentration of a solution (moles/kg)

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60
Q

tonicity

A

how a solution affects the cell volume

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61
Q

isotonic

A

Having the same concentration inside and outside the cell

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62
Q

hypertonic

A

excess solute inside the cell, causing it to shrivel up

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63
Q

hypotonic

A

too much water on outside, so cell sucks in water trying to achieve equilibrium, causing it to burst

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64
Q

two major mechanism of active membrane transport

A

active and vesicular

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65
Q

vesicular transport

A

uses vesicles to transport things into and out of cells

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66
Q

two kinds of active transport

A

primary and secondary

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67
Q

what is primary active transport?

A

energy is derived directly from the breakdown of ATP

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68
Q

what is secondary active transport?

A

energy is derived secondarily from stored energy

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69
Q

symport

A

substances moving in the same direction during active transport

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70
Q

antiport

A

while one substance moves in one direction in active transport, another substance goes in the opposite direction

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71
Q

mechanism of sodium-potassium pump

A

potassium start on the outside, sodium on the inside. sodium binds to carriers on inside, causing ATP to change to ADP, releasing 3 sodium to the outside. antiport is put into effect as 2 potassium attaches to the channel from the outside to enter the cell.

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72
Q

direction of concentration in sodium-potassium pump

A

moves from high concentration to low concentration

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73
Q

sodium-glucose symporter

A

transports sodium and glucose simultaneously the same way

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74
Q

pinocytosis

A

cells drinking the fluid that surrounds it

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75
Q

what is tight juntion, what is it made of, and can substances get through it?

A

tight spaces between cells that attach cells to each other and are made of occludin protein and restricts passages of certain substances between cells

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76
Q

what is adherens junction, what is it made of and can substances get through it?

A

attaches cells to each other, made of e-cadherins and substances can get through

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77
Q

what is desmosome junction, what is it made of and can substances get through it?

A

type of adherens junction but much stronger, contains keratin and substances can get through

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78
Q

what is gap junction, what is it made of and what does it do?

A

little proteins that form channels made up of connexin, one cells connexin can attach to another cells connexin to transport substances

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79
Q

is the inside of a cell positive or negative and why

A

negative because of fixed negative charged proteins

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80
Q

what is the resting membrane potential

A

-70mV

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81
Q

what are the types of ion channels

A

passive/leakage, ligand-gated, acetyl-choline and voltage-gated

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82
Q

what’s the passive/leakage ion channel?

A

constantly open and never closes

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83
Q

what’s the ligand-gated ion channel?

A

opens only when ligand attaches to it

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84
Q

what’s acetyl-choline ion channel?

A

channel that only allows sodium to enter the cell

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85
Q

what’s voltage-gated ion channel?

A

opens only when membrane potential changes

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86
Q

when is the action potential reached?

A

when the resting potential rises to -50 or -55mV

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87
Q

difference between graded and action potentials

A

graded:short-lived and localized signals. the further it goes, the smaller the intensity and results in either depolarization or hyper-polarization. action potential:long distance signals. intensity is maintained throughout and results in only depolarization.

88
Q

depolarization

A

inside of the membrane becomes more positive

89
Q

hyper-polarization

A

inside of the membrane becomes more negative than the resting potential

90
Q

repolarization

A

the membrane returns to the resting potential

91
Q

between activation and inactivation gates, which are opened and closed during the resting state?

A

activation gates are closed and inactivation gates are open

92
Q

For the sodium-potassium pump, during depolarization, what gate is open/closed?

A

Na+ gates are opened; K+ gates are closed

93
Q

For the sodium-potassium pump, during repolarization, what gate is open/closed?

A

Na+ gates are closed; K+ gates are open

94
Q

what’s the correlation between axon diameter and the impulse?

A

the larger the diameter, the faster the impulse

95
Q

what does myelin sheath do?

A

increases the impulse speed

96
Q

what happens during the absolute refractory period?

A

during this time, it is impossible for action potential to be reached no matter how strong the signal is

97
Q

how does the absolute refractory period stop the action potential?

A

prevents the neuron from generating the action potential, ensure that each action potential is separate and forces one way transmission

98
Q

SNARE proteins

A

Soluble NSF Attachment protein Receptor. a large protein family consisting of more that 60 members. allows diffusion to occur

99
Q

what’s the end process of the action potential?

A
  1. action potential reaches the nerve terminal to make it more positive
  2. this causes Ca+ to enter the terminal
  3. Ca+ binds to vesicles on the inside
  4. vesicles then fuse to the terminal, releasing neurotransmitters
100
Q

what happens once the neurotransmitters are released?

A

they either bind to a receptor or float away and get broken down elsewhere in the body

101
Q

what are the three subunits of the G protein?

A

alpha, beta, gamma

102
Q

where’s the G protein found?

A

binded to the inside part of the membrane protein

103
Q

process that G protein goes through

A
  1. ligand binds to outside of membrane protein
  2. ligand causes GTP to be attracted to the G protein
  3. causes G protein to split into the three subunits
  4. alpha triggers adenylate-cyclase to work
104
Q

what does GS entail?

A

the G protein subunits

105
Q

what is adenylate-cyclase?

A

speeds up the function of cyclic AMP (cAMP) from ATP

106
Q

what does cAMP do?

A

activates protein kinase A

107
Q

what does protein kinase A do?

A

phosphoralates things

108
Q

what does GI do?

A

goes through the same track as the alpha subunit, except it does the exact opposite function (to untrigger adenylate-cyclase)

109
Q

what does phospholipase C do?

A

breaks down phospholipids

110
Q

which specific phospholipid does phospholipase C break down during the GQ process?

A

breaks down PIP2 into two parts, DAG and IP3

111
Q

what does DAG do?

A

activates protein kinase C

112
Q

what does IP3 do?

A

has Ca+ ions in ER which turn into calmodulion

113
Q

what does GQ do?

A

activates phospholipase C

114
Q

what are objective signs and symptoms?

A

can be measured (fever)

115
Q

what are subjective signs and symptoms?

A

cannot be measured

116
Q

what is etiology?

A

cause of a particular disease

117
Q

what is idiopathic?

A

when there is no known cause for a disease

118
Q

what does SOAP stand for and what is it?

A

Subjective Objective Analysis and Plan. these are the notes(medical history) of patients

119
Q

what’s a degenerative disease?

A

caused by wear and tear, aging or trauma

120
Q

what is neoplasia disease?

A

un-normal /uncontrolled growth of tissue(cancer)

121
Q

what is atrophy?

A

cell size decreases and tissues waste away

122
Q

what is dysplasia?

A

cells mature abnormally within the tissue, making cells vary in size and shape. has a large nuclei

123
Q

what is phosphatidylserine and where is it located?

A

presented outside of the cell to let phagocytes know its ready for apoptosis, it is normally hidden within plasma membrane

124
Q

why does a cell commit suicide?

A

this happens when programmed cell death is needed for cell development

125
Q

what is always present when dealing with necrosis?

A

necrosis always has hypoxia associated with it

126
Q

liquefication necrosis

A

dead cell tissues look liquified

127
Q

how does coagulative necrosis look and what is it?

A

forms a firm gray mass under the skin, acidosis develops and cell proteins are denatured and coagulate

128
Q

fat necrosis

A

lipase releases fatty acids which complex with calcium to form white, chalky deposits

129
Q

caseous necrosis

A

a form of coagulative necrosis that has a cheesy look

130
Q

how is gangrene recognized?

A

a considerable area of necrotic tissue is present due to hypoxia

131
Q

what are the three types of gangrene?

A

dry, wet, and gas

132
Q

Tay-Sachs disease

A

build up of lipids, causing excess cell death

133
Q

neoplasms

A

new and abnormal growth of tissue, causes lump/tumor

134
Q

hypoxia

A

deficiency in the amount of oxygen reaching tissue

135
Q

what does lactic acid do to the pH of a cell?

A

it lowers the pH

136
Q

what is glutathione, where is it made, and what does it do?

A

primary antioxidant in blood, made in liver, keeps body healthy by neutralizing free radicals

137
Q

hydropic change

A

cells respond to injury by accumlating water

138
Q

fibrosis, what is it and what is the issue with it?

A

replacement of normal tissue cells with scar tissue, tissue cells then become nonfunctional

139
Q

what is necrosis, what is the process, what is the end result?

A

cell death in a tissue of a living person, cells swell then rupture and leak out, leads to inflammation and pain

140
Q

what is apoptosis and what activates it?

A

programmed cell death, caspases help to activate apoptosis

141
Q

dry gangrene

A

least dangerous type, tissue appears dry looking

142
Q

wet gangrene

A

area is cold, swollen and moist. no clear line of when healthy tissue start and dead tissue end

143
Q

what is gas gangrene and what causes it?

A

worst kind of gangrene, life-threatening, moves quickly. caused by the bacteria, clostridium

144
Q

different treatments for gangrene

A

antibiotic, debridement (surgery to remove dead tissue), and maggots(eat dead tissue)

145
Q

two common enzymes released due to necrosis

A

cpk (creatine phosphokinase) and LDH (Lactic Dehydrogenase)

146
Q

what is pathologic calcification and what is its goal?

A

deposits of calcium on tissue. goal is to contain the damage

147
Q

types of pathologic calcification

A

dystrophic/necrosis (contains the damage), metastatic, stone formation (calculi)

148
Q

when is metastatic calcification present?

A

occurs when cancer is present. it contains the cancer cells

149
Q

which calcification causes the most pain?

A

stone formation (calculi)

150
Q

eschimea

A

lack of blood flow to a tissue

151
Q

how is calcium an injurious agent?

A

it activates enzymes that do damage to cells such as hasten ATP depletion and damages chromatins

152
Q

which cells never divide?

A

skeletal muscle cells and cardiac muscle cells

153
Q

what are the regulatory genes of mitosis?

A

proto-oncogenes and tumor suppressor genes

154
Q

where do oncogenes come from and what do they do?

A

they’re mutated proto-oncogenes and causes mitosis to keep going

155
Q

what happens when tumor suppressor genes become mutated?

A

they become inactive

156
Q

G0 phase

A

resting phase, cells are doing nothing that has to do with division

156
Q

What happens in the G1 phase?

A

Synthesis of proteins and some growth

157
Q

What happens in the S phase?

A

DNA replication

158
Q

What is the most sensitive phase to mutations?

A

The S phase

159
Q

What happens in the G2 phase?

A

Preparation for mitosis

160
Q

What happens in the M phase?

161
Q

What proteins must be phosphorylated in order for cell division to begin?

A

Cyclin Dependent Kinases phosphorylates cyclin. Phosphorylation of RB protein

162
Q

What is P53? Why is it dangerous and what is another name for it?

A

Its a tumor suppressor protein and is like the policeman that checks DNA for damage and attempts to repair, if it can’t repair it, it activates apoptosis. Its dangerous because mutations of it can cause cancer aka cyclin inhibitor

163
Q

What does CDK inhibitors do?

A

Blocks interaction between cyclin and CDK to prevent division from beginning

164
Q

How does DNA change occur?

A

Through UV radiation and inflammation

165
Q

Carcinogens

A

Insert themselves within DNA strand, damaging DNA

167
Q

H. Pyliori

A

Causes stomach ulcers and can lead to stomach cancer

168
Q

well-differentiated cancer cells

A

look and behave like the cells of the tissues that they grew in, not very aggressive and slow acting

169
Q

undifferentiated cancer cells

A

look and behave nothing like the cells of the tissues that they grew in, very aggressive and fast acting

170
Q

stages of cell differentiation

A

totipotent, multipotent, mature

171
Q

what is totipotent cell differentiation?

A

can form into all cell types in an organism

172
Q

what is multipotent cell differentiation?

A

can develop into more than one cell type in a given organ

173
Q

what is mature cell differentiation?

A

the end result of cell differentiation

174
Q

nuclear hyperchromatism

A

increased density of the cells nucleus

175
Q

stages of carcinogens

A

initiation, promotion and progression

176
Q

initiation stage of carcinogens

A

when DNA sequences change

177
Q

promotion stage of carcinogens

A

affected cell begins to grow and divide faster

178
Q

progression stage of carcinogens

A

further growth and expansion occur, DNA is now much more prone to further mutation

179
Q

gompertzian

A

growth curve of a tumor

180
Q

what does VEGF stand for and what does it do?

A

Vascular Endothelial Growth Factor. it’s the growth of new blood vessels in an attempt to starve tumor cells by cutting off their blood supply

181
Q

what is neurogenesis?

A

creation of neurons

182
Q

what are the types of cancer therapy?

A

curative, palliative, neoadjuvant, adjuvant, and maintanence

183
Q

what is curative cancer therapy?

A

is intended to completely cure the cancer

184
Q

what is palliative cancer therapy?

A

making the patient as comfortable as possible. not able to fully cure cancer

185
Q

what is neoadjavant cancer therapy?

A

chemotherapy administered to reduce tumor as much as possible before going into surgery

186
Q

what is adjuvant cancer therapy?

A

the surgery part after chemotherapy/neoadjavent

187
Q

what is maintenance cancer therapy?

A

low dose chemo to prevent cancer from coming back once it’s gone

188
Q

what are the two proteins that transport drugs out of the cell and why?

A

PGP (P-Glycoprotein) and multi-drug resistance transporter. they transport drugs out of the cancer cell to prevent the cancer cell from dying

189
Q

what are the two divisions of the peripheral nervous system?

A

sensory(afferent) and motor(efferent)

190
Q

what is the sensory/afferent division of PNS?

A

when the signal is going to the brain

191
Q

what is the motor/efferent division of PNS?

A

when the signal is going from the brain to somewhere in the body to create an action

192
Q

glia

A

supporting cells in the nervous system

193
Q

astrocytes

A

most abundant, versatile, and highly branched glial cells

194
Q

what is microglia and what is its function?

A

the immune system of the brain and functions to help get rid of debris in the brain

195
Q

where are ependymal cells located and what is its function?

A

lines the central cavities of the brain. they have cilia that push cerebral spinal fluid to continue its course and filters out molecules that can be harmful

196
Q

what are oligodendrocytes

A

branched glia and make myelin sheaths for neurons to speed up nerve conduction

197
Q

3 main functions of myelin sheath

A

protects neurons from damage, insulates fibers to keep signals contained within neuron and speeds up conduction

198
Q

what are schwann cells and where is it found

A

one large cell that wraps around axon to create myelin sheath and found in the PNS

199
Q

what is neurilemma and what is it’s importance?

A

the outermost layer of schwann cells after they completely wrap around the axon. it contains all of the cells organelles including the nucleus

200
Q

what are satellite cells and what do they do?

A

wraps around cell body of neuron and gives the cell body nutrients to survive

201
Q

axon hillock

A

wide part of “cone” attached to cell body, action potential is generated here

202
Q

what is nodes of ranvier and what is its purpose?

A

parts of axon not covered by myelin sheath and helps increase nerve conduction

203
Q

neurofibrils function

A

help to maintain nerve cells shape

204
Q

nissil bodies

A

“rough ER” of nerve cells, make proteins

205
Q

structure and function of dendrites

A

contains all organelles of a normal cell except for a nucleus and receive electrical messages then send to the cell body in order for it to become active

206
Q

anterograde

A

when the action potential moves towards their terminal

207
Q

retrograde

A

when the action potential goes from nerve terminal to cell body (sometime viruses go retrograde to infect the cell body)

208
Q

saltatory conduction

A

action potential jumping from node of ranvier to node of ranvier

209
Q

what are neurotropic substances, when are they most active, and what is their role in adulthood?

A

they are proteins that stimulate neurons to grow. most active in fetal life and early infancy. used in adulthood only to repair damage to neurons

210
Q

location and function of the blood-brain barrier

A

located in blood vessels in the brain and prevent toxic unwanted substances from reaching the brain

211
Q

correlation between lipophilicity and the blood-brain barrier

A

the more lipophilic the substance is, the easier it is to get through the blood-brain barrier

212
Q

what important organ lacks the blood-brain barrier?

A

the hypothalamus

213
Q

what has a hard time getting through the blood-brain barrier?

A

ions, polar molecules and glucose

214
Q

what is GLUT1 transporter?

A

transporter that helps glucose get across the blood-brain barrier

215
Q

when is the blood-brain barrier done growing?

A

by the age of 2

216
Q

difference between direct and indirect neurotransmitters

A

direct: fast and efficient and directly open ion channels
indirect: longer lasting and more widespread but it must go through a secondary messenger in order to open an ion channel