Pathophysiology Flashcards
A man diagnosed with hypertension has thickening of his left ventricle wall. This adaptive change of his left ventricle is best described as:
- Atrophy
- Hypertrophy
- Hyperplasia
- Metaplasia
-Hypertrophy
A cardiac panel helps in the diagnosis of a myocardial infarction and the timing and relative levels of various substances that make up the cardiac panel indicate the severity and duration of an MI.
- True
- False
-True
Although adaptation can help strengthen the heart initially to help overcome afterload, eventually if hypertension continues there may be an excess demand on the heart muscle to contract that cannot be met by the available blood supply, causing the heart to fail.
- True
- False
-True
Chest pain in Myocardial Infarction is caused by the build-up of the following substance that is formed under anaerobic respiration:
- Oxygen
- Lactic acid
- Glucose
- Carbon dioxide
-Lactic acid
Reperfusion injury involves which of the following processes:
- Host inflammatory responses
- Oxygen free radicals attack cellular lipids and proteins
- Damage to cell membranes that may release more free radicals
- Any of the above processes may occur during reperfusion injury
-Any of the above processes may occur during reperfusion injury
In myocardial infarction, blood samples contain a variety of substances that have leaked from dead and dying cardiomyocytes, including:
- Troponin 1
- CK-MB
- Myoglobin
- All of the above
-All of the above
Chronic ulcerative processes have been attributed to reperfusion injury as a consequence of alternating occlusion of blood flow then return of blood flow that sets off both inflammatory and oxidative stress responses that can cause tissue damage.
- True
- False
-True
Reperfusion injury is caused by the formation of:
- Reactive oxygen species
- Oxygen
- Lactic acid
- Calcium
-Reactive oxygen species
The most important change related to atherosclerosis that contributes to hypertension would be a(n):
- Decreased radius of the blood vessel
- Decreased viscosity of the blood
- Increased length of the blood vessel
- Increased radius of the blood vessel
-Decreased radius of the blood vessel
The heart undergoes which type of adaptation in response to hypertension:
- Atrophy
- Hypertrophy
- Hyperplasia
- Metaplasia
-Hypertrophy
Infection with Clostridium perfringens and the release of exotoxins is most likely associated with which type of gangrene?
- Dry gangrene
- Wet gangrene
- Gas gangrene
- Fournier’s gangrene
-Gas gangrene
Which of the following treatment approaches for gangrene is best described as the surgical removal of dead and dying tissue?
- Debridement
- Hyperbaric Oxygen Therapy
- Antibiotic Therapy
- Anticoagulants
-Debridement
The basic pathological process that underpins gangrene is a lack of oxygen usually due to ischemia.
- True
- False
-True
During the reproductive cycle in the female, hormonal stimulation increases the thickness of the endometrial lining of the uterus by increasing the number of epithelial cells. This is an example of the following type of adaptation:
- Atrophy
- Hypertrophy
- Hyperplasia
- Metaplasia
-Hyperplasia
During a myocardial infarction, cardiac monocytes are deprived of oxygen and acidosis results in protein denaturation and the cellular outline is preserved. This type of necrosis is best described as:
- Coagulative
- Liquefactive
- Caseous
- Fat
-Coagulative
During a focal bacterial infection, destruction of bacteria and immune cells results in the formation of pus. This type of necrosis is best described as:
- Coagulative necrosis
- Liquefactive necrosis
- Caseous necrosis
- Fat necrosis
-Liquefactive necrosis
During cell injury:
- Use of anaerobic metabolism increases lactic acid production, which can lead to cellular damage
- Reactive oxygen species are formed and interact with cellular proteins and lipids, causing cellular damage
- Compromise to membrane integrity can allow ions such as calcium to enter the cells, causing cellular damage
- Any of the above can occur during cell injury
-Any of the above can occur during cell injury
Cells can die by necrosis or apoptosis. Which of the following characteristics is associated with apoptosis BUT NOT necrosis?
- Autodigestion
- Inflammatory response
- Pyknosis
- Fragmented DNA
-Fragmented DNA
**This was listed as the correct answer, but I thought autodigestion was right based on our midterm
Hemosiderin is a golden brown pigment formed from phospholipids and proteins that is observed when cellular membranes degenerate.
- True
- False
-False
Normally, the body has anti-oxidant systems to deal with reactive oxygen species. These anti-oxidant systems include superoxide dismutase, which is an enzyme that converts hydrogen peroxide into water.
- True
- False
-False
Although cellular injury is often reversible, the one characteristic that distinguishes reversible and irreversible cell injury is that irreversible injury is marked by the influx of calcium, which signals cell death.
- True
- False
-True
Caseous necrosis involves the release of lipases, which digests fats and forms a soap-like substance as the fats combine with minerals such as calcium and magnesium.
- True
- False
-False
Which of the following types of hereditary or familial colon cancer are associated with mutations in DNA repair genes?
- FAP
- HNPCC
-HNPCC
Screening tests that measure the presence of blood in the stool include:
- Colonoscopy
- FOBT
- CEA
- All of the above
-FOBT
Changes in both oncogenes and tumor suppressor genes are typically required for FAP to develop.
- True
- False
-True
The RB1 gene (pRB) is which kind of gene?
- Oncogene
- Tumor suppressor gene
- DNA repair gene
- Telomerase gene
-Tumor suppressor gene
Normally the RB1 gene (pARB):
- Activates DNA repair proteins, thus makes sure new mutations are not passed on to progeny cells
- Arrests the cell cycle to allow DNA repair to take place
- Governs the passage of the restriction point in the cell cycle, thus regulates cell proliferation
- Initiates apoptosis
-Governs the passage of the restriction point in the cell cycle, thus regulates cell proliferation
Germline mutations are inherited, whereas somatic mutations are acquired.
- True
- False
-True
Lung cancer is used to support the initiation, promotion, progression theory of carcinogenesis. According to this theory:
- Initiation is a reversible step caused by exposure to cigarette smoke
- Promotion is initially reversible, but must follow initiation for tumors to form
- Progression involves the mutation of DNA and is an irreversible step
- Promotion is associated with metastasis and genomic instability, among other cellular changes
-Promotion is initially reversible, but must follow initiation for tumors to form
The most common cause of lung cancer is:
- Asbestos exposure
- Radon gas
- Cigarette smoking
- Inherited genetic mutation
-Cigarette smoking
Small-cell lung cancer can present as diabetes insipidus since these cells can release aldosterone.
- True
- False
-False
Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML) is associated with expansion of which of the following cell populations:
- Erythrocytes only
- Lymphocytes only
- Granulocytes and Platelets only
- Granulocytes, Erythrocytes, and Platelets only
-Granulocytes, Erythrocytes, and Platelets only
The phase of CML associated with fewer than 10% of cells in the blood and bone marrow being of the blast form is referred to as:
- Chronic phase
- Accelerated phase
- Blast phase
- Remission
-Chronic phase
The formation of the Philadelphia chromosome occurs by a chromosomal translocation between chromosomes 9 and 22 and results in the activation of tyrosine kinase.
- True
- False
-True
Cancer cells are generally characterized by:
- Increased rates of proliferation
- The ability to produce telomerase
- Poor differentiation or immaturity
- Cancer cells are generally characterized by all of the above
-Cancer cells are generally characterized by all of the above
Cancer cells are associated with a number of mutations. One gene that is often mutated in cancer cells is the pRB gene. This gene is responsible for:
- Causing the cell to pause so that DNA repair can take place
- Allowing cells to pass the R point and become committed to completion of the cell cycle
- Adding new telomeres to the chromosomes of the cell
- Causing phosphorylation of cellular proteins that are responsible for cell division
-Allowing cells to pass the R point and become committed to completion of the cell cycle
Mutations in only one allele of these genes (listed below), which normally promote cell growth, is associated with changes associated with cancer.
- Tumor suppressor genes
- Protooncogenes
- DNA repair genes
- Genes encoding telomerase
-Protooncogenes
Mutations in which type of genes is most generally associated with Hereditary NonPolyposis Colon Cancer (HNPCC)?
- Tumor suppressor genes
- Protooncogenes
- DNA repair genes
- Genes encoding telomerase
-DNA repair genes
Advanced forms of cancer may involve the spread of the original tumor cells to distant sites within the body. This process is most accurately described as:
- Invasion
- Angiogenesis
- Metastasis
- Cachexia
-Metastasis
Which of the following tumors would be considered most advanced?
- T1N0M0
- T2N1M1
- T3N2M1
- T1N1M1
-T3N2M1
Cancer cells from Henrietta Lacks, who died in 1951, still grow in many laboratories in tissue culture. These cells, which essentially continue to divide, are immortalized.
- True
- False
-True
Most mutations associated with cancer are inherited rather than due to environmental exposures
- True
- False
-False
Cancer is genetic, but not necessarily inherited.
- True
- False
-True
In the initiation-promotion theory of cancer, initiation is thought to involve an irreversible mutation in the DNA of a cell.
- True
- False
-True
Cystic Fibrosis (CF) is which kind of genetic disorder?
- Autosomal dominant
- Autosomal recessive
- X-linked dominant
- X-linked recessive
-Autosomal Recessive
If two parents were each heterozygous for CF and they had a child, what is the chance that the child would have CF disease?
- 100%
- 50%
- 25%
- 10%
-25%
Newborn screening can detect the common mutation for CF and help provide early interventions to improve nutrition and growth.
- True
- False
-True
Sickle Cell Disease is caused by:
- A point mutation in the beta-globin gene
- A deletion of the beta-globin gene
- A point mutation in the alpha-globin gene
- A deletion of the alpha-globin gene
-A point mutation in the beta-globin gene
Sickle Cell Disease (SCD) is typically associated with:
- Occlusion of blood vessels as cells sickle under high oxygen tension
- Hemolysis that can result in elevated serum bilirubin
- Congestion of the liver and spleen due to inflammation
- Autoimmune destruction of the liver and spleen
-Hemolysis that can result in elevated serum bilirubin
Hydroxyurea may help reduce sickle cell crisis by increasing fetal hemoglobin production, thus help reduce the occurrence of sickling-related complications.
- True
- False
-True
Which type of genetic disorder typically causes Down Syndrome:
- Translocation
- Point mutation
- Trisomy
- Monosomy
-Trisomy
A child with Down Syndrome should be evaluated for:
- Congenital heart defects
- Hearing loss
- Polycythemia
- All of the above
-All of the above
Down syndrome is typically inherited as an autosomal recessive trait.
- True
- False
-False
The inheritance pattern of hemophilia A is:
- Autosomal dominant
- Autosomal recessive
- X-linked
- Mitochondrial
-X-linked
Based upon the pedigree for a patient who has an affected brother and maternal uncle with, which of the following statements is correct?
- His father has hemophilia
- His mother is a carrier of the hemophilia trait
- His paternal grandfather is a carrier of the hemophilia trait
- All of his sisters would be carriers of the hemophilia trait
-His mother is a carrier of the hemophilia trait
Depending upon the values for FVIII assays, a person with hemophilia will have different disease severity with more mild disease associated with higher levels of FVIII.
- True
- False
-True
Which of the following terms relates to the concept that as DNA is copied, one original and one newly formed copy of the DNA is inherited together in each of the progeny cells?
- Complement base pairing
- Semi-conservative replication
- Redundancy in the genetic code
- Central Dogma
-Semi-conservative replication
The kind of genetic mutation that results in the change of an amino acid sequence in the protein sequence is best described as a:
- Silent mutation
- Missense mutation
- Nonsense mutation
- Antisense mutation
-Missense mutation
Two parents are both carriers of cystic fibrosis have four children. How many would likely be carriers of cystic fibrosis?
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
-2
Which of the following statements is correct about Hemophilia A?
- Hemophilia A is an X-linked recessive disorder
- Hemophilia A is mitochondrially inherited from mother to child
- Hemophilia A is generally only found in males because it is carried on the Y chromosome
- Hemophilia A is only carried by females with two affected alleles
-Hemophilia A is an X-linked recessive disorder
Which of the following genetic disorders results in aneuploidy?
- Sickle Cell Disease
- Hemophilia A
- Down Syndrome
- Cystic Fibrosis
-Down Syndrome
Most genetic disorders of medical importance involve a combination of changes in a number of genes that are either inherited or acquired by environmental influences. Such genetic disorders are best described as:
- Single-gene disorders
- Chromosomal disorders
- Multifactorial disorders
- Mitochondrial disorders
-Multifactorial disorders
Crossing-over involves the exchange of genetic material between two homologous chromosomes during meiosis.
- True
- False
-True
Reduction of chromosome number from 46 to 23 occurs during meiosis.
- True
- False
-True
The principle of segregation means that genes governing distinct individual traits are separated and inherited independently of one another.
- True
- False
-False
Chromosomes other than the X and Y chromosome are referred to as autosomes.
- True
- False
-True
TSI represents:
- Another word for TSH
- Antibodies that act like TSH
- Antibodies that act like TH
- Antibodies that act like TRH
-Antibodies that act like TSH
Blood tests from a patient with Graves would reveal:
- Decreased levels of TSH
- Increased levels of TSI
- Increased levels of TH
- All of the above
-All of the above
TSI functions as an agonist for TSH, because it functions equal to or better than natural TSH in stimulating the release of TH from the thyroid gland.
- True
- False
-True
Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus is most likely caused by:
- Genetic changes
- Environmental trigger like viral infection
- A combination of genetic predisposition plus an environmental trigger like viral infection
- A bacterial infection
-A combination of genetic predisposition plus an environmental trigger like viral infection
Ketones:
- Are derived from carbohydrates and can be used to fuel the body
- Are formed when insulin levels are sufficient to allow glucose uptake by cells
- Are acidic and give rise to ketoacidosis in excess
- Are derived from proteins as the body tries to fuel itself during starvation
-Are acidic and give rise to ketoacidosis in excess
Polyuria results from the osmotic shift that occurs as excess blood glucose is retained in the filtrate, causing water to be retained in the tubule and increasing urine output.
- True
- False
-True
Loss of the mineralcorticoid aldosterone would most likely give rise to which of the following S/S of Addison’s Disease.
- Low blood pressure
- Hypoglycemia
- Hyperpigmentation
- Increased risk of infection
-Low blood pressure
Which of the following statements is correct about Addison’s Disease?
- Primary adrenal insufficiency is due to lack of ACTH
- Primary adrenal insufficiency may be due to autoimmune destruction of the adrenal gland
- Primary adrenal insufficiency may be caused by use of prednisone
- Secondary adrenal insufficiency is due to lack of cortisol
-Primary adrenal insufficiency may be due to autoimmune destruction of the adrenal gland
Elevated cortisol levels associated with Addison’s Disease give rise to the elevated ACTH observed in our patient.
- True
- False
-False
Exogenous causes of Cushings Syndrome include:
- Pituitary adenoma
- Adrenal tumor
- Non-pituitary ACTH-secreting tumor
- Prednisone use for an autoimmune disease
-Prednisone use for an autoimmune disease
The buffalo hump and moon face are most likely associated with which of the following normal functions of cortisol?
- Stimulation of gluconeogenesis
- Inhibition of anti-stress responses
- Activation of anti-inflammatory pathways
- Fluid retention
-Stimulation of gluconeogenesis
Most cases of endogenous Cushings Syndrome are caused by a pituitary adenoma. This form of Cushings Syndrome is referred to as Cushings Disease.
- True
- False
-True
Excessive growth hormone production in the adult is referred to as:
- Acromegaly
- Gigantism
- Adrenal Insufficiency
- Addison’s Disease
-Acromegaly
Which of the following adrenal cortex hormones is released during response to stress?
- Mineralcorticoids
- Glucocorticoids
- Steroidal Sex Hormones
- Epinephrine
-Glucocorticoids
Which of the following is an example of hyperthyroidism?
- Cretinism
- Myxedema
- Hashimotos Disease
- Graves Disease
-Graves Disease
Which of the following is most likely associated with excess production of parathyroid hormone (PTH)?
- Rickets
- Osteomalacia
- Renal Calculi (Stones)
- Autoimmune destruction of the parathyroid gland
-Renal Calculi (Stones)
The pancreas has a number of endocrine responsibilities including:
- Release of insulin, when glucose levels are low to help bring glucose into cells
- Release of glucagon, when glucose levels are high to help store glucose by the liver
- Release of insulin, when glucose levels are high to help recruit glucose transporters to the cells
- Release of glucose, when stores in the pancreas when insulin levels are slow
-Release of insulin, when glucose levels are high to help recruit glucose transporters to the cells
Which of the following conditions results from excess thyroid hormone?
- Cretinism
- Myxedema
- Hashimoto’s disease
- Thyrotoxicosis
-Thyrotoxicosis
Autoimmune destruction of the adrenal cortex is best described as secondary adrenal insufficiency.
- True
- False
-False
Individuals suffering from Addison’s disease may suffer from hyperpigmentation, since excess ACTH stimulates melanocytes.
- True
- False
-True
Goiter is associated with hypothyroidism, which is the excessive production of thyroid hormone.
- True
- False
-False
A child with growth hormone deficiency would likely be short of stature and overweight for age.
- True
- False
-True
Which of the following statements is correct about Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH)?
- BPH actually involves a hypertrophy process rather than hyperplasia
- BPH often includes urine storage symptoms including urinary frequency and urgency, and nocturia
- Incomplete voiding in BPH decreases the risk of a urinary tract infection
- BPH is caused by too little testosterone that stimulates the prostate
-BPH often includes urine storage symptoms including urinary frequency and urgency, and nocturia
Diagnosis of BPH includes:
- Presentation of clinical symptoms often related to urinary frequency or hesitancy
- A rectal examination to feel for an enlarged prostate gland
- Evaluation of blood for PSA levels, which are often elevated
- All of the above may be used to help diagnose BPH
-All of the above may be used to help diagnose BPH
Enlargement of the prostate gland compresses the urethral canal making it difficult for urine outflow in benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH).
- True
- False
-True
Which of the following scenarios would most likely be associated with primary hypogonadism?
- Lack of GnRH production by the hypothalamus
- Lack of LH production by the anterior pituitary
- Lack of FSH production by the anterior pituitary
- Lack of testosterone production by the testes
-Lack of testosterone production by the testes
Testosterone is responsible for:
- Deepening the voice
- Muscular development
- Sperm production
- All of the above
-All of the above
Hypogonadism may be caused by an inherited (congenital) trait or something that happens later in life (acquired) such as injury or infection.
- True
- False
-True
Major symptoms of endometriosis include:
- Dysmenorrhea
- Chronic pelvic pain
- Dyspareunia (painful sexual intercourse)
- Any of the above
-Any of the above
The pathogenesis of endometriosis is believed to involve
- Hereditary factors
- Exposure to environmental toxins
- Compromised immune system
- Some combination of hereditary factors, exposure to environmental toxins, and compromise to the immune system
-Some combination of hereditary factors, exposure to environmental toxins, and compromise to the immune system
The theory of retrograde menstruation suggests that during menstruation some endometrial material exits the uterus through the fallopian tubes and attaches itself to the peritoneal surface setting up endometriosis.
- True
- False
-True
Typical symptoms of PCOS include:
- Excess weight
- Loss of menstruation’
- Facial hair
- All of the above
-All of the above
In PCOS, the relationship between insulin and obesity is best described by the phrase:
- Insulin resistance leads to excess blood glucose levels that are converted into fat by the liver
- Insulin helps glucose get into the adipose cells so that fat stores are increased
- Excess insulin leads to increase uptake of glucose
- Insulin levels and action are typically normal in a person with PCOS
-Insulin resistance leads to excess blood glucose levels that are converted into fat by the liver
Infertility is an important consequence of PCOS and many women with PCOS have difficulty becoming pregnant.
- True
- False
-True
Inflammation of the prostate is best described as:
- Enlarged Prostate
- Prostatitis
- Benign Prostate Hypertrophy
- Prostate Cancer
-Prostatitis
A man with low sperm count is found to have low testosterone levels. He is given GnRH, which does not change testosterone levels. He is given LH, which raises testosterone levels to normal levels. Based upon this information you can determine that the problem with this man is most likely that his:
- Hypothalamus is not releasing GnRH
- Anterior pituitary is not releasing LH
- Leydig cells cannot produce testosterone
- Sertoli cells cannot produce androgen binding proteins
-Anterior pituitary is not releasing LH
Painful menstruation is best described by the term.
- Amenorrhea
- Menopause
- Dysmenorrhea
- Leiomyoma
-Dysmenorrhea
During embryonic development, the nervous system is derived from which of the following primary germ layers?
- Ectoderm
- Mesoderm
- Endoderm
- Somatoderm
-Ectoderm
During pregnancy there are a number of hormones that help maintain the pregnancy and prepare for delivery and lactation. Which of the following hormones is responsible for increasing maternal metabolism during pregnancy?
- Relaxin
- Human placental lactogen
- Human chorionic thyrotropin
- Human chorionic gonadotropin
-Human chorionic thyrotropin
Infertility resulting from damage or blockage of the fallopian tubes would most likely be associated with which of the following:
- Uterine fibroids
- Disorders of the hypothalamus
- Endometriosis
- Polycystic ovary disease
-Endometriosis
Pelvic Inflammatory Disease can be caused by bacterial infections and give rise to infertility.
- True
- False
-True
Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG) is produced by the corpus luteum after fertilization and until the placenta is formed.
- True
- False
-False
Colostrum is a nutrient rich substance secreted from breast tissue before breast milk is formed.
- True
- False
-True
A high sperm count is required for fertility, as many sperm release the contents of their acrosomes to help degrade the zona pellucida. This process best described as a block to polyspermy
- True
- False
-False
Information about touch and pressure that ascends the dorsal columns is carried by the:
- Fast myelinated fibers
- Fast unmyelinated fibers
- Slow Unmyelinated fibers
- Unmyelinated fibers
-Fast myelinated fibers
Slow pain information is carried on the slowest nerve fibers, called the:
- Fast myelinated fibers
- Fast unmyelinated fibers
- Slow myelinated fibers
- Unmyelinated fibers -C-fibers
-Unmyelinated fibers -C-fibers
Brown-Sequard results in the loss of pain and temperature sensation on the same side as the lesion along with loss of voluntary motor control on the opposite side of the lesion.
- True
- False
-False
Stroke is defined as:
- The rapidly developing loss of brain functions due to a disturbance in the blood vessels supplying blood to the brain
- An open head injury
- Sudden movement of the brain resulting in a diffuse but transient and reversible injury to the brain
- Bruising of the brain during blunt trauma in a closed head injury
-The rapidly developing loss of brain functions due to a disturbance in the blood vessels supplying blood to the brain
Stroke may be caused by:
- Thrombosis
- Embolism
- Hypoperfusion
- All of the above
-All of the above
Stroke is most commonly the result of a traumatic brain injury.
- True
- False
-False
Which statement about multiple sclerosis is true?
- Multiple sclerosis is associated with destruction of motor neurons in the peripheral nervous system
- Multiple sclerosis involves inflammation and possibly autoimmune destruction of the myelin sheaths of neurons
- Multiple sclerosis is inherited as an autosomal dominant trait
- Infection with cytomegalovirus in individuals with specific HLA markers has been shown to cause multiple sclerosis
-Multiple sclerosis involves inflammation and possibly autoimmune destruction of the myelin sheaths of neurons
Which of the following disease courses for Multiple Sclerosis is associated with episodes of acute worsening with recovery and a stable course between relapses?
- Relapsing-remitting
- Secondary progressive
- Primary progressive
- Progressive relapsing
-Relapsing-remitting
Diagnosis of Multiple Sclerosis includes presence of gamma globulin in the cerebral spinal fluid, magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of CNS showing patch abnormalities in myelin.
- True
- False
-True
Which of the following statements is CORRECT about Alzheimer’s disease (AD)?
- AD is a rare form of dementia
- AD is highly curable but requires early detection
- AD is progressive and eventually leads to death
- AD has a rapid onset
-AD is progressive and eventually leads to death
Which of the following stages of Alzheimer’s disease would most likely be associated with mild forgetfulness, absent-mindedness and occasionally misplacing items?
- Pre-dementia
- Progressive
- Moderate
- Late
-Pre-dementia
Amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles are clearly visible by microscopy in brain tissue from individuals afflicted with Alzheimer’s disease.
- True
- False
-True
The region of the brain that contains the hypothalamus is the:
- Cerebral hemispheres
- Diencephalon
- Brain stem
- Cerebellum
-Diencephalon
Head injuries are often characterized by problems with:
- Hypoxia
- Increased intracranial pressure
- Edema
- Any or all of the above
-Any or all of the above
Sharp, stabbing pain is relayed through which of the following sensory tracts:
- Fast myelinated fibers
- Slow myelinated fibers
- Fast unmyelinated fibers
- Slow unmyelinated fibers
-Slow myelinated fibers
The neurotransmitter receptor that is found at parasympathetic postganglionic synapses that can be blocked by atropine is the::
- Nicotinic receptor
- Muscarinic receptor
- Alpha-adrenergic receptor
- Beta-adrenergic receptor
-Muscarinic receptor
The neurological disease associated with autoimmune destruction of the myelin basic protein is:
- Multiple sclerosis
- Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
- Huntington’s disease
- Parkinson’s disease
-Multiple sclerosis
A temporary and fully resolvable brain injury would best be described by the term:
- Stroke
- Cerebrovascular accident
- Transient ischemic attack
- Contusion
-Transient ischemic attack
Depression is associated with high levels of neurotransmitters, like serotonin, and may be alleviated by drugs such as selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs).
- True
- False
-False
An aneurysm is localized dilation of a blood vessel, that can rupture and lead to an intracranial bleed.
- True
- False
-True
The medulla is involved in governing both the respiratory and cardiovascular systems.
- True
- False
-True
A man experiences a stroke with left-sided hemiparesis. Based upon this information, you would expect his lesion to be on the left side.
- True
- False
-False
Which of the following statements about asthma is NOT CORRECT?
- Asthma is primarily a restrictive respiratory disorder
- Increased airway resistance is characteristic of asthma
- In asthma, the FEV1/FVC ratio may be decreased from normal
- Asthma may be characterized by a hyperinflation of the lungs, which is reflected as an increase in residual volume
- Asthma may be associated with symptoms such as coughing, wheezing, shortness of breath, or chest tightness
-Asthma is primarily a restrictive respiratory disorder
Which of the following statements about asthma is CORRECT?
- Increased airway resistance would result from an increase in airway radius
- A beta-agonist would promote bronchoconstriction thus would reduce airway resistance
- V/Q mismatching in asthma would generally be characterized as an increase in the shunt fraction
- Anti-inflammatory agents like a glucocorticoid would not be beneficial to a patient with asthma, since asthma is a disorder that is not associated with inflammation
-V/Q mismatching in asthma would generally be characterized as an increase in the shunt fraction
Hypocapnia occurs as a consequence of hypoventilation, which reduces CO2 levels.
- True
- False
-False
Which of the following statements about Pulmonary Fibrosis is CORRECT?
- Pulmonary fibrosis is an obstructive pulmonary disorder
- Pulmonary fibrosis is characterized by reduced or restricted airflow through the airways
- The parameter of Fick’s law of diffusion altered in a person with pulmonary fibrosis is “x”
- Persons with pulmonary fibrosis have an increased compliance
-The parameter of Fick’s law of diffusion altered in a person with pulmonary fibrosis is “x”
Which of the following statements about Pulmonary Fibrosis is NOT CORRECT?
- Persons with pulmonary fibrosis have an increased total lung capacity (TLC)
- Pulmonary fibrosis may be associated with an inflammatory process that leads to an increase in scar tissue
- Reduced PaO2 levels are due to impaired gas exchange
- Decreased PaCO2 levels may be a consequence of hyperventilation
-Persons with pulmonary fibrosis have an increased total lung capacity (TLC)
When a person with pulmonary fibrosis exercises, the ability to equilibrate oxygen may be compromised by an increased thickness of the respiratory membrane.
- True
- False
-True
A patient with COPD has a “prolonged expiratory phase” to his respirations. In the case of emphysema what is the most likely mechanism that underlies this slowing of forced expiration?
- Increased airway resistance due to mucus
- Loss of elastic recoil of the lungs
- Increased airway resistance due to inflammation
- Smooth muscle constriction of the airways
-Loss of elastic recoil of the lungs
A patient with COPD has an increased PaCO2 value at 69 mmHg and an increased bicarbonate value at 34 mEq/L. Based upon these values our patient most likely was in:
- Respiratory acidosis with renal compensation
- Respiratory alkalosis with renal compensation
- Metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation
- Metabolic alkalosis with respiratory compensation
-Respiratory acidosis with renal compensation
The primary risk factor for COPD is tobacco smoking, but an inherited genetic condition is responsible for a minority of cases.
- True
- False
-True
Which of the following is NOT considered a specific risk factor or indication for pulmonary embolism?
- Female
- Birth control pill use
- Overweight
- Deep vein thrombosis (DVT)
-Female
Virchow’s triad includes all of the following EXCEPT:
- Change in vessel wall
- Decreased blood flow
- Decreased coagulability of the blood
- Increased coagulability of the blood
-Decreased coagulability of the blood
One of the most common sources of embolism in pulmonary embolism is deep vein thrombosis of the popliteal vein.
- True
- False
-True
Jason smoked a considerable amount in college. One day, he experienced sharp chest pain and could not catch his breath. His roommate took him to the emergency room where he was diagnosed with a collapsed lung. Based upon the above information, Jason’s condition would most likely be described as a:
- Tension pneumothorax
- Secondary pneumothorax
- Spontaneous pneumothorax
- Traumatic pneumothorax
-Spontaneous pneumothorax
Which of the following would most likely be associated with an increase in lung compliance?
- Pulmonary fibrosis
- Pulmonary edema
- Emphysema
- Pneumonia
-Emphysema
Jane had a chest infection and was feeling short of breath, experiencing a sharp pain in her chest. Her nurse practitioner detected diminished breath sounds and chest x-ray revealed that Jane was suffering from a pleural effusion. Thoracentesis (a pleural tap) was performed to remove a sample of the fluid causing the effusion, and lymph was detected. Based upon this information, Jane is most likely suffering from a(n):
- Hydrothorax
- Empyema
- Hemothorax
- Chylothorax
-Chylothorax
Which of the following conditions best describes primary atelectasis?
- A baby is born prematurely and lacks surfactant
- A man suffers from an airway obstruction caused by a mucus plug
- A woman suffers from a pneumothorax caused by a traumatic accident
- A man is in a car accident and suffers a vascular injury that results in a pleural effusion
-A baby is born prematurely and lacks surfactant
Which of the following scenarios best describes a condition where the amount of dead space is increased?
- A woman with pneumonia and mucous plugs
- A man with a blood clot that embolizes to the lungs
- A child suffering from bronchoconstriction
- An elderly man that has pulmonary edema
-A man with a blood clot that embolizes to the lungs
Which of the following best describes an obstructive lung disorder?
- Decreased compliance
- Pulmonary fibrosis
- Pulmonary edema
- Increased airway resistance
-Increased airway resistance
The most important variable governing airway resistance is the radius of the airway.
- True
- False
-True
The Forced Expiratory Volume in one second (FEV1) is often reduced in an obstructive lung disorder like asthma because of increased airway resistance to expiratory flow.
- True
- False
-True
A congenital heart defect that causes venous blood to directly join the arterial circulation (thus bypassing gas exchange in the lungs) would promote hypoxemia.
- True
- False
-True
Smoking is the most common cause of lung cancer.
- True
- False
-True
All of the characteristics below describe the structure of the glomerulus in renal failure EXCEPT one. Identify the characteristic that DOES NOT describe the glomerulus.
- Fenestrated capillary endothelium
- Incomplete basement membrane
- Positively charged basement membrane
- Podocytes and slit pores in the tubule epithelial cells
-Positively charged basement membrane
Patients with renal failure may:
- Suffer from anemia because they are unable to produce sufficient levels of renin
- Require calcium supplementation because the kidneys normally activate vitamin D, which is required for the absorption of calcium from dietary sources
- Experience both a decrease in hydrostatic pressure as well as an increase in osmotic pressure, which would account for the edema they experience
- Have an increased GFR that would account for the elevated creatinine and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels
-Require calcium supplementation because the kidneys normally activate vitamin D, which is required for the absorption of calcium from dietary sources
A patient with renal failure is likely to also have hyperalbuminemia
- True
- False
-False
Diabetes insipidus:
- Is due to a lack of insulin secretion by the pancreas
- May be caused by a lack of anti-diuretic hormone (ADH or vasopressin) secretion from the anterior pituitary
- May be caused by a decreased ability of the kidney to respond to available ADH
- Is characterized by an elevated fasting blood glucose level
-May be caused by a decreased ability of the kidney to respond to available ADH
Which of the following statements about diabetes insipidus is CORRECT?
- Central diabetes insipidus may be treated by dDAVP, which is a synthetic replacement for vasopressin (or ADH)
- Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus may be treated with dDAVP, which is a synthetic replacement for vasopressin (or ADH)
- A person with central diabetes insipidus would have a normal level of ADH
- Central diabetes insipidus is most often caused by chronic lithium ingestion
-Central diabetes insipidus may be treated by dDAVP, which is a synthetic replacement for vasopressin (or ADH)
Excessive urination associated with diabetes insipidus can cause dehydration and potassium losses.
- True
- False
-True
A person with a recent sore throat that subsequently develops glomerulonephritis (GN) would most likely have their GN attributed to:
- Bacterial endocarditis
- Streptococcal infection
- Lupus
- Goodpasture’s syndrome
-Streptococcal infection
Which of the following complications of glomerulonephritis is characterized by a massive loss of proteins?
- Acute kidney failure
- Chronic kidney failure
- High blood pressure
- Nephrotic syndrome
-Nephrotic syndrome
A kidney biopsy can be used to confirm the diagnosis of glomerulonephritis.
- True
- False
-True
Which of the following would most likely be considered to be an ischemic cause of acute tubular necrosis (ATN)?
- Rhabdomyolysis
- Heavy metal exposure
- Shock
- Cisplatin treatment for cancer
-Shock
A person with acute tubular necrosis (ATN) most likely would have:
- Decreased BUN and serum creatinine levels
- Hyperkalemia
- Increased urine output
- Alkalosis
-Hyperkalemia
Blood transfusion reaction can cause acute tubular necrosis (ATN).
- True
- False
-True
Which of the following statements about nephritic and/or nephrotic syndromes is correct?
- In nephrotic syndrome there is significant basement membrane damage that allows massive protein losses into the urine
- In nephrotic syndrome there is massive red blood cell loss without significant protein loss into the urine
- Nephrotic syndrome, but not nephritic syndrome, is characterized by hematuria
- Nephrotic syndrome, but not nephritic syndrome, is characterized by fluid retention and edema
-In nephrotic syndrome there is significant basement membrane damage that allows massive protein losses into the urine
Renal calculi would be best classified as which of the following types of renal disease?
- Pre Renal
- Intra Renal
- Renal
- Post Renal
-Post Renal
Which of the following statements about the renin-angiotension system is correct?
- The macula densa cells of the juxtaglomerular apparatus release renin
- Angiotensin I is a potent vasoactive substance
- Angiotensin Converting Enzyme converts angiotensin I into angiotensin II
- Aldosterone is released from the adrenal medulla
-Angiotensin Converting Enzyme converts angiotensin I into angiotensin II
Which of the following hormones would most likely cause a decrease in blood volume and decrease mean arterial pressure?
- Angiotensin II
- Aldosterone
- Atrial Naturetic Factor
- Antidiuretic hormone
-Atrial Naturetic Factor
Jaime is not secreting sufficient antidiuretic hormone (ADH) from her posterior pituitary. Likely she is suffering from:
- Syndrome of Inappropriate ADH (SIADH)
- Central (or neurogenic) Diabetes Insipidus
- Nephrogenic Diabetes Insipidus
- Renovascular hypertension
-Central (or neurogenic) Diabetes Insipidus
Bob is a 68-year-old male with a history of smoking, high cholesterol, and high blood pressure. On physical examination an abdominal bruit is heard. Likely Bob is suffering from:
- Diabetic Nephropathy
- Chronic Kidney Disease
- Renal Cell Carcinoma
- Renovascular Hypertension
-Renovascular Hypertension
Infection of the kidneys is called cystitis.
- True
- False
-False
Uremic syndrome describes elevated serum levels of nitrogen-containing substances including urea, creatinine, and uric acid.
- True
- False
-False
Spirinolactone acts as a diuretic by inhibiting aldosterone.
- True
- False
-True
Chronic renal failure is often associated with either anemia or calcium imbalances or both.
- True
- False
-True
In MI, death of tissue due to necrosis is best described as:
- Ischemia
- Infarction
- Hypoxemia
-Infarction
Vasodilation of coronary vessels to increase blood flow to the heart is best achieved by the use of:
- Supplemental oxygen
- Nitroglycerine
- Metoprolol
-Nitroglycerine
Ace inhibitors activate angiotensin II, thus use of an ace inhibitor would result in vasodilation.
- True
- False
-False
Which of the following conditions is a risk factor for hypertension?
- Smoking
- Diabetes
- Obesity
- All of the above are risk factors for hypertension
-All of the above are risk factors for hypertension
Which of the following substances would directly block the production of angiotension II?
- ACE inhibitor
- Oral diuretic
- Beta-blocker
- Calcium-channel blocker
-ACE inhibitor
Hypertension decreases the “afterload” or the force against which the heart must pump blood.
- True
- False
-False
Major signs or symptoms of mitral valve stenosis include:
- Dyspnea on exertion
- Jugular vein distension
- Portal hypertension
- None, it is usually asymptomatic
-Dyspnea on exertion
Treatment of mitral valve stenosis may include:
- Anticoagulants
- Diuretics
- Beta-blockers
- Any of the above may be used as part of the treatment of mitral valve stenosis
-Any of the above may be used as part of the treatment of mitral valve stenosis
The most common underlying cause of mitral valve stenosis is rheumatic fever or rheumatic heart disease.
- True
- False
-True
A person with anaphylactic reaction would most likely suffer from which type of shock:
- Cardiogenic
- Distributive
- Obstructive
- Hypovolemic
-Distributive
In hypovolemic shock, compensation for blood loss can explain a patient’s:
- Increased heart rate
- Decreased heart rate
- Decreased blood pressure
- Increased hematocrit
-Increased heart rate
Shock is any condition that results in a decreased perfusion of vital organs and tissues in the body and can be a life-threatening condition.
- True
- False
-True
Juanita has scar tissue between the pericardial layers around her heart. Juanita’s condition would be described as:
- Acute pericarditis
- Restrictive pericarditis
- Pericardial effusion
- Cardiac tamponade
-Restrictive pericarditis
Narrowing of the left atrioventricular valve would best be described as:
- Mitral valve regurgitation
- Mitral valve stenosis
- Aortic valve regurgitation
- Aortic valve stenosis
-Mitral valve stenosis
If conduction through the heart were initiated at a site other than the sinoatrial node, the resulting heartbeat would best be described as:
- Premature
- Inefficient
- Blocked
- Ectopic
-Ectopic
Joe is in a car accident and loses a lot of blood before going into shock. This type of shock would best be classified as:
- Hypovolemic shock
- Cardiogenic shock
- Obstructive shock
- Distributive shock
-Hypovolemic shock
Venous pathology associated with impaired blood flow including tissue congestion, edema, and impairment of tissue nutrition would best be described as:
- Varicose veins
- Chronic venous insufficiency
- Thromboangiitis obliterans
- Venous thrombosis
-Chronic venous insufficiency
Which of the following statements is correct regarding hypertension?
- Primary hypertension results from any disease condition that increases cardiac output or total peripheral resistance
- Secondary or essential hypertension accounts for most of the hypertension
- Hypertensive crisis involves a sudden elevation of blood pressure that can be life threatening
- Drugs used to treat hypertension are most typically directed at reducing cardiac output
-Hypertensive crisis involves a sudden elevation of blood pressure that can be life threatening
Cardiac drugs that block calcium channels primarily work by increasing the contractility of the heart and heart rate.
- True
- False
-False
Ejection fraction is calculated as the stroke volume divided by the end diastolic volume.
- True
- False
-True
Venous thromboses are enlarged tortuous veins.
- True
- False
-False
Vascular disease includes peripheral arterial disease, which typically results from direct injury or inflammation due to a viral infection.
- True
- False
-False
Which of the following factors would most likely contribute to hiatal hernia?
- Sedentary lifestyle
- Obesity
- Laxative use
- Being 30 years of age
-Obesity
Which of the following agents WOULD NOT likely be used for someone with a hiatal hernia?
- Histamine H2 receptor blockers
- Proton pump inhibitors
- Antacids
- Anticholinergic drugs
-Anticholinergic drugs
Hiatal hernia is often associated with acid reflux and may simulate angina.
- True
- False
-True
Which of the following tests would directly detect blood in the feces?
- Guaiac test
- Endoscopy
- Urease test
- Biopsy
-Guaiac test
Which of the following types of bacteria is believed to be the causative agent of peptic ulcer disease (PUD)?
- Staphylococcus aureus
- Streptococcus pyogenes
- Camplobacter jejuni
- Helicobacter pylori
-Helicobacter pylori
A patient with PUD may have anemia because of either blood loss or intrinsic factor.
- True
- False
-True
Individuals with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) typically experience:
- Chronic abdominal pain
- Bloating
- Alteration of bowel habits
- Any of the above signs or symptoms may be experienced by someone with IBS
-Any of the above signs or symptoms may be experienced by someone with IBS
Which of the following classifications of IBS best describes the form of IBS that occurs after an infection?
- IBS-D
- IBS-C
- IBS-A
- IBS-PI
-IBS-PI
There is no evidence that stress is related to irritable bowel syndrome.
- True
- False
-False
Individuals diagnosed with celiac disease may suffer from which of the following disorders or conditions?
- Osteopenia
- Failure to thrive
- Anemia
- Any of the above may be experienced by an individual with celiac disease
-Any of the above may be experienced by an individual with celiac disease
Persons with celiac disease cannot tolerate:
- Lactose
- Gluten
- Peanuts
- Eggs
-Gluten
Celiac disease involves an autoimmune reaction.
- True
- False
-True
Willy is a 12-year-old with cystic fibrosis. He requires vitamin K supplementation by injection. Most likely James is deficient in vitamin K because:
- He lacks vitamin K in his diet
- His gut is “sterile”, thus he lacks sufficient bacteria to produce vitamin K
- He has decreased absorption of vitamin K because of insufficient lipase release from his pancreas
- He has a blood clotting condition that has consumed all or most of the vitamin K from his diet
-He has decreased absorption of vitamin K because of insufficient lipase release from his pancreas
A person suffering from an esophageal tear comes to the Emergency Department (ED) vomiting up blood. This scenario would best be described as:
- Hematemesis
- Hematochezia
- Melena
- Lower gastrointestinal bleed
-Hematemesis
Bob is an elderly man with chronic constipation who experiences an acute episode of lower abdominal pain, fever and increased white blood cell count. Radiological images reveal herniation of the colon and there was concern for peritonitis and possible sepsis. Based upon this information, bob is most likely suffering from:
- Inflammatory Bowel Disease
- Crohn’s Disease
- Irritable Bowel Syndrome
- Diverticulosis
-Diverticulosis
Bill is a smoker and obese. He experiences an episode of acute pain and goes to the ED. Radiologic analysis reveals that a small portion of his stomach is above his diaphragm. Likely Bill is suffering from:
- Hiatal hernia
- Gastritis
- Stomatitis
- Peptic ulcer disease
-Hiatal hernia
Jamie eats a large meal and experiences acute epigastric pain as a consequence of the return of gastric contents into the esophagus. This scenario could describe gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD).
- True
- False
-True
James is diagnosed with an esophageal tumor that makes it very difficult to swallow food. His difficulty swallowing would be described as:
- Diarrhea
- Dysphagia
- Vomiting
- Constipation
-Dysphagia
Jane is suffering from a chronic infection with Hepatitis B virus. Most likely she is suffering from:
- Cirrhosis
- Peptic ulcer disease
- Pancreatitis
- Stomatitis
-Cirrhosis
Kate experiences significant pain as a consequence of a strangulated small bowel. You should be concerned that this is potentially a serious condition that may be life threatening as a consequence of shock and vascular collapse.
- True
- False
-True
Elderly individuals are at greatest risk of vitamin B12 deficiency. One reason is that the number of chief cells decrease as we age, thus less intrinsic factor is produced since the chief cells produce intrinsic factor.
- True
- False
-False
Use of tobacco and alcohol are associated with oral cancer.
- True
- False
-True
Which bone cells are responsive to parathyroid hormone, produce osteocalcin when stimulated by 1,24- dihydroxyvitamin D, and synthesize osteoid?
- Osteoblasts
- Osteocytes
- Fibrocytes
- Osteoclasts
-Osteoblasts
What causes the vasomotor instability (hot flashes) that are associated with declining ovarian function with age?
- Increased estrogen levels
- Decreased thyroxine levels
- Rapid changes in estrogen levels
- Increased progesterone levels
-Rapid changes in estrogen levels
Which of the following cells function to maintain bone matrix?
- Osteophytes
- Osteocytes
- Osteoclasts
- Osteoblasts
-Osteocytes
A patient presents with a history of heavy smoking and obesity and experiences acute pain. Radiologic studies reveal that a small portion of the stomach is above the diaphragm. This is most likely?
- Hiatal hernia
- Stomatitis
- Gastritis
- Peptic ulcer disease
-Hiatal hernia
Which of the following is most likely a sign or symptom of acromegaly?
- Hyperactivity
- Melena
- Aphasia
- Peripheral neuropathy
-Peripheral neuropathy
Hypovolemia that decreases mean arterial pressure normally results in activation of the sympathetic nervous system and the renin-angiotensin system.
- True
- False
-True
The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system compensates for hypovolemic shock by stimulating:
- Movement of calcium into vascular smooth muscle, causing vasoconstriction and increasing systemic vascular resistance
- B1 adrenergic receptors to increase myocardial contractility, heart rate, and conduction through the atrioventricular node
- Aldosterone release, which retains sodium and hence water to increase the blood volume
- Antidiuretic hormone from the posterior pituitary to retain potassium and excrete sodium to improve myocardial contractility
-Aldosterone release, which retains sodium and hence water to increase the blood volume
Spermatogenesis occurs in the:
- Seminiferous tubules
- Epididymis
- Vas deferens
- Testes
-Seminiferous tubules
The final common pathway in all shock is:
- Impairment of cellular metabolism
- Cellular alterations in the vasculature and kidneys
- Impairment of urine excretion
- Cellular alterations in the heart and brain
-Impairment of cellular metabolism
A patient with renal failure is likely to have hypoalbuminemia
- True
- False
-True
Psoriasis may be considered a chronic, genetically determined disease of epidermal proliferation.
- True
- False
-True
***Sara’s test
?I’m not sure I like the genetically-determined wording.
Which joint disease is characterized by joint stiffness on movement and joint pain of weight-bearing joints that usually is relieved by rest?
- Rheumatoid arthritis
- Suppurative arthritis
- Osteoarthritis
- Gouty arthritis
- Osteoarthritis
* Sara’s test*
What is an appropriate treatment for sickle cell disease?
- Early spleen removal
- Dehydration to prevent vaso-occlusive crisis
- Acetaminophen for fever control
- Hydroxyurea for Streptococcus pneumoniae
- Hydroxyurea for Streptococcus pneumoniae
* Sara’s test*
Which of the following minerals are stored in the bones?
- Sodium, iron, and selenium
- Phosphate, carbonate, and magnesium
- Potassium, fluoride, and copper
- Zinc, sulfur, and chloride
- Phosphate, carbonate, and magnesium
* Sara’s & Annie’s test*
Rhabdomyolysis is characterized by:
- Paralysis of skeletal muscles resulting from impaired nerve supply
- Smooth muscle degeneration resulting from ischemia
- Lysis of skeletal muscle cells through the initiation of complement cascade
- Release of myoglobin from damaged striated muscle cells
- Release of myoglobin from damaged striated muscle cells
* Sara’s test*
Urticaria is a result of what type of reaction?
- Type I hypersensitivity
- Type IV hypersensitivity
- Type III hypersensitivity
- Type II hypersensitivity
-Type I hypersensitivity
What causes the microvascular complications of clients with diabetes mellitus?
- The capillary basement membranes thicken and there is endothelial cell hyperplasia
- Fibrous plaques form from the proliferation of subendothelial smooth muscle of arteries
- The capillaries contain plaques of lipids that obstruct blood flow
- There is increased pressure within capillaries as a result of the elevated glucose attracting water
- The capillary basement membranes thicken and there is endothelial cell hyperplasia
- Sara’s test*
During an IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction, which leukocyte is activated?
- Monocytes
- Eosinophils
- T lymphocytes
- Neutrophils
- Eosinophils
* Sara’s test*
The end product of protein metabolism excreted in the urine is:
- Glucose
- Ketones
- Bile
- Urea
- Urea
* **Annie’s Test
Which of the following is the proper histological cell type associated with hashimoto’s thyroiditis?
- Cells with Orphan-Annie Eye Nuclei
- Granulomatous inflammation
- Acinar Cells
- Hurthle Cells
- Hurthle Cells
* **Annie’s test
Which of the following is a lab value, neurotransmitter or hormone most likely identified with acromegaly?
- Increased T3
- Increased T4
- Excessive growth hormone
- Decreased growth hormone
-Excessive growth hormone
Removal of substances from the blood into the renal tubule at the peritubular capillaries is best described as which of the following processes?
- Reabsorption
- Filtration
- Excretion
- Secretion
- Secretion
* **Annie’s Test
Innervation of the bladder and internal urethral sphincter is supplied by which nerves?
- Tenth thoracic nerve roots
- Parasympathetic nervous system
- Peripheral nerves
- Sympathetic nervous system
The part of the nephron where antidiuretic hormone (ADH) primarily acts is the:
- Collecting tubule
- Proximal convoluted tubule
- Loop of Henle
- Cortex
- Collecting tubule
* **Annie’s test
Severe combined immunodeficiency is a disorder that results from the loss of B-cell function as well as T-cell function.
- True
- False
- True
* *Annie’s Test
When bone is “resorbed” during the process of growth and repair, the original bone:
- Hardens
- Is synthesized
- Is replaced
- Is removed
Which type of angina results from coronary artery vasospasm and occurs in atypical patterns A. Classic Angina B. Prinzmetal's Angina C. Unstable Angina D. Pleuritic chest pain
Prinzmetal’s Angina
The rhythm of the heart is generated by the: SA node AV node Atrium Ventricle
SA node (Sinoartrial node)
To increase oxygen saturation after exertion, a patient with Tetralogy of Fallot will: Lie down Stand up Squat Cough
Squat
Which of the following ECG changes is NOT specific to episodes of angina? ST segment elevation Premature ventricular contractions T-wave inversions Q waves
Premature Ventricular Contractions
How long after a myocardial infarction can the initial troponin level be detected? 1 hour 3 hours 6 hours 8 hours
3 hours
The bacteria responsible for rheumatic fever is: Klebsiella pneumoniae Group A Streptococcus Enterobacter species Escherichia coli
Group A Streptococcus
Which of the following assessment findings correlates with dynamic obstruction of the left ventricle? PVCs Lung hyperinflation Peripheral edema Systolic murmur
Systolic Murmur
Which of the following cardiac rhythms do not lead to a decrease in cardiac output?
Normal sinus rhythm
Bradycardia
Atrial Fibrillation
Atrioventricular block
Normal sinus rhythm
The acute inflammatory response in a myocardial infarction is associated with:
A decrease in serum cytokine concentrations
Depletion of nitric oxide, causing vasoconstriction
Vasodilation and increased systemic pressure
Cytokine activation and vasodilation with decreased perfusion pressure
Cytokine activation and vasodilation with decreased perfusion pressure
Which of the following cardiac rhythms is characterized by P waves that precede each QRS interval?
Sinus bradycardia
Atrial flutter
Ventricle tachycardia
Torsades de Pointes
Sinus bradycardia
Aortic stenosis may be identified by:
A low-intensity, high-pitched murmur
A crescendo-decrescendo systolic murmur
A high-pitched and blowing murmur with a decrescendo configuration
A murmur with a rumbling character
A crescendo-decrescendo systolic murmur
Hypertension is NOT caused by changes in:
Heart rate
Stroke volume
Cardiac output
Vascular relaxation
Vascular relaxation
The accumulation of fluid in the pericardial cavity is:
Endocarditis
Myocarditis
Pericardial effusion
Cardiomyopathy
Pericardial effusion
A pediatric patient with a ventricular septal defect would have which type of murmur?
Mid-diastolic
Holosystolic
Atypical systolic
Mid-systolic
Holosystolic
Which of the following may be seen in patients with acute coronary syndrome?
Resting angina lasting less than 10 minutes in duration
New onset angina that markedly limits physical activity
Intermittent pleuritic chest pain that occurs with movement
Chest pain that occurs at least once a week for 6 weeks
New onset angina that markedly limits physical activity
Hypercholesterolemia is one of the major risk factors contributing to the development of:
Coronary artery disease
Dilated cardiomyopathy
Type 1 diabetes
Acute renal insufficiency
Coronary artery disease
The systemic disease that occurs secondary to untreated Strep throat is:
Rheumatic fever
Meningitis
Mononucleosis
Tonsillitis
Rheumatic fever
A reduced risk of cardiovascular disease has been associated with aggressive control of:
Sodium
Potassium
Triglycerides
Low-density lipoproteins
Low-density lipoproteins
Which one of the following produces visible evidence of an underlying problem with reverse venous flow?
Cellulitis
Bruising
Stasis Dermatitis
Varicose Veins
Varicose Veins
Triglycerides are synthesized by the:
Pancreas
Liver
Kidneys
Stomach
Liver
In right heart failure due to right ventricular dysfunction:
Systemic venous pressure decreases
Systemic venous pressure is not affected
Systemic venous pressure increases
Systemic venous pressure can be increased or decreased
Systemic venous pressure increases
Cardiogenic shock in the presence of an acute myocardial infarction typically involves:
Decreased stroke volume and increased cardiac output
Decreased vascular resistance and decreased cardiac output
Increase in systemic vascular resistance and increase in stroke volume
Decrease in stroke volume and decrease in cardiac output
Decrease in stroke volume and decrease in cardiac output
Which lipoprotein plays a major role in reverse cholesterol transport away from the arteries and back to the liver?
HDL
LDL
Triglycerides
Total Cholesterol
HDL
In a patient with atrial-septal defect, split heart sounds are due to:
Left-to-right shunting of blood
Systolic overload of the left ventricle
Stenosis of the aortic valve
Decreased pulmonary blood flow
Left-to-right shunting of blood
Which one of the following causes reactive hyperemia?
Raynaud phenomenon
Peripheral neuropathy
Pulmonary edema
Hypotension
Raynaud phenomenon
The most common cause of left ventricular hypertrophy is:
Heredity
Hypertension
Pulmonary edema
Mitral regurgitation
Hypertension
Which one of the following is NOT present in tetralogy of Fallot?
Patent ductus arteriosus
Ventricular hypertrophy
Pulmonary stenosis
Ventricular septal defect
Patent ductus arteriosus
Which of the following is true about the normal heart function of an infant?
The left ventricle pumps oxygen-rich blood
The right ventricle pumps oxygen-rich blood
The ductus arteriosus closes in the two weeks of birth
The pulmonary artery carries oxygen-rich blood to the left ventricle
The left ventricle pumps oxygen-rich blood
Which one of the following is secreted by ventricular myocytes and assists in the diagnosis of heart failure?
Atrial natriuretic peptide
Brain natriuretic peptide
Endothelin
Nitric oxide
Brain natriuretic peptide
Atherosclerosis in the lower extremities commonly causes:
Venous insufficiency
Peripheral artery disease
Lymphadenopathy
Diabetic neuropathy
Peripheral artery disease
A congenital heart defect that warrants emergency medical and surgical intervention is:
An acyanotic defect that increases pulmonary blood flow
A cyanotic defect that decreases pulmonary blood flow
A stenotic lesion with poor blood flow from ventricles
A cyanotic mixed defect with increased pulmonary blood flow
A cyanotic defect that decreases pulmonary blood flow
Diastolic heart failure is a result of impairment in the:
Right atrium
Left ventricle
Right ventricle
Left atrium
Left ventricle
An elevation of which laboratory finding is indicative of a myocardial infarction?
Troponin
CK-MB
BNP
Potassium
Troponin
Cardiac preload is defined as the:
Amount of vascular resistance that must be overcome on ventricular contraction
Pressure exerted on the atria during filling
Volume of blood in the atria at the end of diastole
Decreased volume of blood in the ventricles during systole
Volume of blood in the atria at the end of diastole
Which one of the following conditions is an acute, febrile, immune-mediated disease characterized by vasculitis leading to coronary artery aneurysm?
Measles
Epstein Barr infection
Rocky Mountain spotted fever
Kawasaki syndrome
Kawasaki syndrome
A variant angina characterized by transient reduction in the luminal diameter within the coronary artery and consistent with ST elevation is:
Classic angina
Stable angina
Prinzmetal’s angina
Unstable angina
Prinzmetal’s angina
Which of the following types of angina involves nocturnal symptoms?
Classic angina
Stable angina
Prinzmetal’s angina
Unstable angina
Unstable angina
A patient who is in cardiogenic shock will present with:
A high cardiac index
Decreased vascular resistance
Increased ventricular ejection fraction
Mixed venous oxygen saturation
Mixed venous oxygen saturation
Which heart condition includes both a systolic and diastolic timed murmur?
Pulmonic stenosis
Aortic regurgitation
Mitral stenosis
Tricuspid regurgitation
Tricuspid regurgitation
Symptoms of mild heart failure include:
Nocturnal dyspnea
Hypotension
S3 gallop
Frothy sputum
S3 gallop
Mortality associated with Kawasaki syndrome is most likely related to:
Splenomegaly
Coronary artery aneurysm
Acute renal failure
Secondary pneumonia
Coronary artery aneurysm
Which of the following is most responsible for the buildup of cholesterol in the arteries, increasing the risk of heart disease and stroke?
High-density lipoproteins
Low-density lipoproteins
Triglycerides
Total cholesterol
Low-density lipoproteins
Unstable angina is characterized by:
Angina with prolonged activity
Angina symptoms lasting >6 months
Increasing crescendo angina
Angina with elevated cardiac markers
Increasing crescendo angina
Pediatric patients with tetralogy of Fallot have episodes of bluish skin during crying and feeding that are called:
Tachypnea
Dyspnea
Tet spells
Cheyne-Stokes breathing
Tet spells
What is the purpose of activation of the sympathetic nervous system, the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, and the antidiuretic system in the presence of impaired cardiac pumping and/or filling?
Promotion of venous relaxation
Production of arterial vasoconstriction
Decrease in venous pressure
Decrease in ventricular filling
Production of arterial vasoconstriction
A mother states that her young child has been squatting after exertion and is easily fatigued. The NP suspects:
Aortic stenosis
Tetralogy of Fallot
Atrial septal defect
Patent ductus arteriosus
Tetralogy of Fallot
Which condition is a direct acute cause of pulmonary hypertension, leading to right heart failure?
Obstructive sleep apnea
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
Pulmonary embolism
Pulmonary fibrosis
Pulmonary embolism
When atrial fibrillation terminates within 7 days of onset, it is classified as:
Longstanding persistent
Permanent
Paroxysmal
Nonvalvular
Paroxysmal
Elevated troponin levels are present in:
Unstable angina
NSTEMI
Uncontrolled hypertension
Heart failure
NSTEMI
Which congenital heart defect involves an abnormal opening between the atria that is expected to close without surgical intervention by 12 months of age?
Atrial septal defect
Ventricular septal defect
Patent ductus arteriosus
Tetralogy of Fallot
Atrial septal defect
Which one of the following is a clinical syndrome that results from any structural or functional cardiac disorder that impairs the ability of the ventricles to fill or eject blood?
Heart failure
Hypertension
Cardiomyopathy
Myocardial infarction
Heart failure
The formation of an atherosclerotic lesion in the arterial wall is related to high levels of:
Cholesterol
HDLs
LDLs
Triglycerides
LDLs
Which type of ECG changes may be produced by acute coronary syndrome?
ST elevation
QT prolongation
Dropped P waves
Diastolic murmur
ST elevation
Which cardiac condition involves thickening of the muscle wall of the right lower chamber of the heart?
Ventricular septal defect
Ventricular hypertrophy
Pulmonary stenosis
Patent ductus arteriosus
Ventricular hypertrophy
With each heart beat, blood within the left and right ventricle is ejected into the:
Left atrium only
Aorta and pulmonary artery
Anterior descending artery
Right coronary artery
Aorta and pulmonary artery
When alpha receptors are stimulated, what primary physiologic response is expected:
Blood pressure decreases
Blood pressure increases
Heart rate decreases
Heart rate increases
Blood pressure increases
In a patient with a ventricular septal defect, blood flows:
Through the left ventricle back to the heart
To the left atrium and into the lungs
To the right ventricle and into the lungs
Through the right atrium back to the heart
To the right ventricle and into the lungs
Which congenital heart defect is known to cause cyanotic episodes precipitated by crying, feeding, or other activities?
Atrial septal defect
Ventricular septal defect
Patent ductus arteriosus
Tetralogy of Fallot
Tetralogy of Fallot
Sick sinus syndrome is described as the:
Failure of the SA node to discharge
Junction fibers in the AV node joining with the bundle of His.
AV node pacing when the SA node fails to initiate impulse
Destruction of the SA node and changes in the nerves and ganglia
Destruction of the SA node and changes in the nerves and ganglia
Transposition of the great arteries (TGA) is described as:
Acyanotic deficits increasing pulmonary blood flow
Cyanotic defect that decreases pulmonary blood flow
Cyanotic mixed defects with increased pulmonary blood flow
Obstructive lesions with poor blood flow from ventricles
Cyanotic mixed defects with increased pulmonary blood flow
Which one of the following is NOT a true statement about left-sided heart failure?
The heart moves blood from high pulmonary pressure to low systemic circulation pressure
Left-sided heart failure causes a decrease in cardiac output and an increase in diastolic pressure
Left-sided heart failure results in an increase in left atrial pressure and congestion in pulmonary circulation
Capillary filtration pressure exceeds the capillary colloidal osmotic pressure
The heart moves blood from high pulmonary pressure to low systemic circulation pressure
A common symptom of a congenital heart defect is:
Jugular venous distension
Hypertension
Central cyanosis
Atrial fibrillation
Central cyanosis
The heart sound that is NOT auscultated in a patient with aortic stenosis is:
Narrowing split S2
Right sternal border thrill
Grade III harsh murmur
S3 gallop
S3 gallop
Patients with acute coronary syndrome typically have plaque erosion, which is characterized by:
Cellulose and eosinophils
Low-density lipoproteins and monocytes
Calcium and leukocytes
Hyaluronan and neutrophils
Hyaluronan and neutrophils
Which peptide hormone causes vasoconstriction and increases blood pressure?
Norepinephrine
Epinephrine
Angiotensin
Vasopressin
Angiotensin
The Trendelenburg test is used to assess for:
Peripheral neuritis
Deep vein thrombosis
Arterial insufficiency
Varicose veins
Varicose veins
A common cause of diastolic heart failure is:
Myocarditis
Myocardial infarction
Dilated cardiomyopathy
Hypertension
Hypertension
Diastole:
Occurs at the end of the cardiac cycle
Is the highest pressure in the aorta during relaxation
Is the minimum arterial pressure exerted during relaxation and dilation of the ventricles
Is the peak pressure that occurs when the ventricles contract
Is the minimum arterial pressure exerted during relaxation and dilation of the ventricles
Which one of the following congenital heart defects does NOT depend on left to right shunting through ductus arteriosus for pulmonary circulation?
Aortic stenosis
Pulmonary atresia
Pulmonary stenosis
Tetralogy of Fallot
Aortic stenosis
The amount of pressure that occurs when the ventricles contract is the:
Mean arterial pressure
Systolic pressure
Diastolic pressure
Pulse pressure
Systolic pressure
A progressive disease of heart muscle that is characterized by ventricular chamber enlargement and contractile dysfunction is:
Acute coronary syndrome
Cardiac tamponade
Dilated cardiomyopathy
Thyrotoxicosis
Dilated cardiomyopathy
Which one of the following is the cardiac rhythm described as prolongation of the QT interval?
Atrial flutter
Ventricular tachycardia
Torsades de pointes
Third-degree AV block
Torsades de pointes
The primary function of the heart is:
To maintain pressure throughout the cardiovascular system
To generate the flow of blood to the right ventricle
To pump blood through the body via the circulatory system
To excrete carbon monoxide from the blood
To pump blood through the body via the circulatory system
Patients with acute coronary syndrome may experience chest pain secondary to:
Arterial vasodilation
Oxygen demand
Potassium depletion
Elevated Creatine
Oxygen demand
Which of the following is NOT a Virchow’s triad risk factor for deep vein thrombosis?
Hypercoagulability
Endothelial injury
Stasis
Peripheral nervous system damage
Peripheral nervous system damage
Which of the following is not a deficit of tetralogy of Fallot?
A hole between the ventricles of the heart
A narrowing of the pulmonary valve and artery
An enlargement of the triscupid valves
A thickening of the ventricle chambers
An enlargement of the triscupid valves
The primary cause of cardiogenic shock in a patient with acute MI is:
Failure of the ventricle to pump blood adequately
Failure of the aortic valve to pump blood adequately
Regurgitation of the tricuspid valve
Regurgitation of the mitral valve
Failure of the ventricle to pump blood adequately
A birth defect characterized by a hole in the septum that separates the two upper chambers of the heart is:
Ventricular septal defect
Patent ductus arteriosus
Atrial septal defect
Tetralogy of Fallot
Atrial septal defect
Which of the following statements accurately describes a premature ventricular contraction (PVC)?
It is caused by a ventricular ectopic pacemaker
It is caused by failure of the AV node to fire
It is caused by bifurcation on the bundle of His
It is caused by prolongation of the QT interval
It is caused by a ventricular ectopic pacemaker
Which of the following conditions may predispose patients to an atypical presentation of myocardial ischemia?
Obesity
Lupus
Diabetes mellitus
Rheumatoid arthritis
Diabetes mellitus
Atrial septal defect results from:
Failure of the mitral valve to close properly
Failure of the tissue to form between the atria
Failure of the vesicles around the atrium vasodilate
Failure of the left ventricle to contract
Failure of the tissue to form between the atria
Which of the following congenital heart defects causes increased pulmonary blood flow?
Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) Atrial septal defect (ASD) Tricuspid atresia (TA) Truncus arteriosus (TA)
Atrial septal defect (ASD)
Systemic hypotension is defined as a:
Mean blood pressure of <50 mmHg
Stroke volume of 32 mL/m2
Systolic blood pressure below 25 mmHg
Cardiac index of >1.8L/min per m2
Stroke volume of 32 mL/m2
Which condition is referred to as “enlarged heart”?
Ventricular hypertrophy
Patent ductus arteriosus
Foramen ovale
Ventricular stenosis
Ventricular hypertrophy
In a patient with patent ductus arteriosus, where is the murmur best heard?
Localized at the left clavicle
Apex of the heart
Right sternal border
Radiating to the axilla
Localized at the left clavicle
Increased venous return to the heart leads to:
Increased neurohumoral mechanisms
Increased stroke volume
Decreased central venous pressure
Decreased left ventricular end-diastolic pressure
Increased stroke volume
Which congenital heart defect results in right to left shunting and requires emergency surgical intervention for survival?
Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF)
Atrial septal defect (ASD)
Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)
Mitral valve regurgitation
Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF)
Mean arterial pressure is primarily regulated by changes in cardiac output and:
Afterload
Increased stroke volume
Systemic vascular resistance
Heart rate
Systemic vascular resistance
Atherosclerosis plaques can cause:
Thrombosis
Neuropathy
Calcium deposits
Varicose veins
Thrombosis
Which birth defect of the heart is characterized by a hole in the septum that separates the two lower chambers?
Ventricular septal defect
Patent ductus arteriosus
Atrial septal defect
Tetralogy of Fallot
Ventricular septal defect
Which of the following is NOT associated with acute coronary syndrome?
Heart failure
Unstable angina
ST segment myocardial infarction
Non-ST segment myocardial infarction
Heart failure
The life-threatening cardiac condition caused by the accumulation of fluid in the pericardial space is:
Endocarditis
Cardiac tamponade
Pericarditis
Cardiomyopathy
Cardiac tamponade
Which one of the following is NOT an assessment finding in a patient who is experiencing shock?
Low urine output
End-organ hyperperfusion
Poor mentation
Hypotension
End-organ hyperperfusion
Which one of the following is NOT an underlying cause of obstructed coronary artery blood flow by a thrombus?
Acute myocardial infarction
Stable angina
Sudden coronary death
Unstable angina
Stable angina
A lung disease characterized by enlargement of the alveolar ducts and air spaces distal to the terminal bronchioles is:
- Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
- Emphysema
- Cystic fibrosis
- Asthma
-Emphysema
Cystic fibrosis is:
- autosomal recessive
- autosomal dominant
- caused by complex inheritance
- caused by X-linked inheritance
-autosomal recessive
Acute respiratory consequences of pulmonary embolism include:
- Endothelial injury
- Turbulence of blood flow
- Hypercoagulability
- Pulmonary infarction
-Pulmonary infarction
Mucus production resulting from hyperplasia of the mucous membranes lining the bronchial wall describes:
- Asthma
- Chronic bronchitis
- Cystic fibrosis
- Pneumonia
-Chronic bronchitis
Inspiratory stridor with croup suggests narrowing of the:
- Bronchioles
- Supraglottis
- Larynx
- Pharynx
-Larynx
Inflammation of the bronchioles that results in obstruction of the small airway is:
- Pneumonia
- Bronchiolitis
- Tracheomalacia
- Croup
-Bronchiolitis
Results from spirometry testing of a 60-year-old man indicate an FEV1/FVC <70%, 30% FEV1 < 80% predicted. Given these results, expected symptoms in this patient would include:
- Shortness of breath and pursed lip breathing
- Productive cough and dyspnea on exertion
- Decreased pulses and peripheral edema
- Bradycardia with tachypnea
-Productive cough and dyspnea on exertion
Those findings indicate COPD
The system that tries to compensate for acute respiratory acidosis is:
- The cardiac system
- The renal system
- The gastrointestinal system
- The hepatic system
-The renal system
A child diagnosed with bronchiolitis is at risk for developing:
- Chronic sinusitis
- Acute otitis media
- Asthma
- Viral conjunctivitis
-Acute otitis media
Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is a risk factor associated with:
- Asthma
- Chron’s disease
- Polycystic ovarian syndrome
- Gout
-Asthma
Atelectasis is defined as:
- Diminished volume in all or a portion of a lung
- Bronchial spasms
- Chronic obstruction of airflow in the lungs
- Bacterial lung infection
-Diminished volume in all or a portion of a lung
Which of the following is true about influenza viruses?
- One type of influenza virus exists
- Influenza viruses are specific to humans
- Influenza A cause most human infections
- Influenza C is primarily found in animal species
-Influenza A cause most human infections
Which of the following statements accurately describes the primary physiologic effect of emphysema?
- Airway constriction and hyperresponsiveness of the bronchi
- Hyperplasia and thickening of the brachial wall lining
- Impedance of airflow due to bronchiole inflammation
- Air trapping and loss of elastic recoil in the lungs
-Air trapping and loss of elastic recoil in the lungs
Which one of the following symptoms is common in a patient who has asthma?
- Inspiratory wheeze
- Non-productive cough
- Tachycardia
- Hyperresonance
-Non-productive cough
A hallmark assessment finding in a patient with moderate to severe croup is:
- Rhinorrhea
- Sore throat
- Stridor
- Wheezing
-Stridor
Tuberculosis is caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis, which is transmitted via:
- Contact with an infected surface
- Blood
- Respiratory droplet
- Any bodily fluid
-Respiratory droplet
Annual influenza vaccination is necessary due to:
- Active immunity
- Passive immunity
- Adaptive immunity
- Antigenic variation
-Antigenic variation
The presence of air or gas in the intrapleural cavity is called:
- Pneumonia
- Atelectasis
- Pleurodynia
- Pneumothorax
-Pneumothorax
The leading cause of lower respiratory tract infections in infants and young children is:
- Human metapneumovirus
- Respiratory Syncytial virus
- Adenovirus
- Parainfluenza virus
-Respiratory Syncytial virus
A 14-year-old boy reports cough and chest tightness during exercise. He is most likely experiencing:
- Bronchostenosis
- Airway wall remodeling
- Airway obstruction
- Bronchospasm
-Bronchospasm
A highly contagious, acute febrile viral illness of the respiratory tract that is associated with significant morbidity and mortality is:
- Rhinovirus
- Influenza
- Norovirus
- Respiratory Syncytial Virus
-Influenza
An 8-year-old girl has experienced acute, self-limiting symptoms of nasal congestion and hoarseness for 2 days. The NP assesses the upper respiratory tract mucosa and identifies transillumination of the sinuses. These symptoms are consistent with:
- Allergic rhinitis
- Sinusitis
- Pharyngitis
- The common cold
-The common cold
The most common pathogen that causes pneumonia in young adults is:
- Mycoplasma pneumoniae
- Streptococcus pneumoniae
- Haemophilus influenzae
- Human parainfluenza virus
-Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Which of the following is a clinical manifestation of pulmonary edema?
- Foul-smelling, blood-tinged sputum
- Red or green sputum that contains pus
- A cough that produces pink, frothy sputum
- A frequent cough that is dry and nonproductive
-A cough that produces pink, frothy sputum
Hemoptysis is NOT typically associated with:
- Pulmonary embolism
- Chronic bronchitis
- Chronic obstructive lung disease
- Neoplasm of the lung
-Chronic obstructive lung disease
A common assessment finding in patients with cystic fibrosis is steatorrhea due to:
- Hyperalgesia
- Pancreatic insufficiency
- Short gut syndrome
- Increased intestinal mobility
-Pancreatic insufficiency
A finding NOT associated with respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) infection is:
- Regeneration of epithelial cells lining the alveoli
- Infiltration of monocytes and T cells on bronchial arterioles
- Penetration of neutrophils between the vascular structures
- Proliferation of the bronchiolar epithelium
-Regeneration of epithelial cells lining the alveoli
Inflammation of the bronchioles and trachea that usually follows an upper respiratory tract infection in adults is:
- Asthma
- Bronchiolitis
- Pneumonia
- Acute bronchitis
-Acute bronchitis
In the United States, the leading cause of mortality in infants younger than 1 year is:
- Respiratory syncytial virus
- Drowning
- Motor vehicle crashes
- Sudden unexplained infant death
-Sudden unexplained infant death
Croup is characterized by:
- Hemoptysis with cough
- Whooping cough
- Barking cough
- High-pitched cough
-Barking cough
A pediatric patient is being evaluated for complaints of an intense “whooping” cough with posttussive vomiting. Which stage of pertussis is suggested by these symptoms?
- Catarrhal
- Paroxysmal
- Convalescent
- Acute
-Paroxysmal
An incentive spirometer is used to determine:
- Forced expiratory volume in 1 seconds
- Peak expiratory flow
- Forced vital capacity
- Partial pressure of oxygen
-Peak expiratory flow
The influenza virus:
- May be transmitted before the onset of symptoms
- Has an incubation period of 7-10 days
- Is transmitted via skin-to-skin contact
- Is no longer shed once symptoms begin
-May be transmitted before the onset of symptoms
Which statement about respiratory acidosis is CORRECT?
- The production of CO2 is progressive and causes hypocapnia
- Increased carbon dioxide results in significant hyperkalemia
- The bicarbonate partial pressure of the arterial carbon dioxide ratio increases
- Partial pressure of arterial carbon dioxide increases due to rapid production of carbon dioxide and ventilation failure
-Partial pressure of arterial carbon dioxide increases due to rapid production of carbon dioxide and ventilation failure
An infection of the tracheobronchial tree that causes reversible bronchial inflammation is:
- Upper respiratory disease
- Bronchitis
- Tuberculosis
- Pneumonia
-Bronchitis
An acute hemodynamic consequence of a pulmonary embolism that may cause significant mortality is:
- Pulmonary hypertension
- Right ventricular failure
- Pleural effusion
- Pulmonary infarction
-Right ventricular failure
Diagnostic studies to identify cystic fibrosis include a sweat test that measures:
- Chloride
- Urea
- Potassium
- Lactic acid
-Chloride
Respiratory alkalosis is most commonly caused by:
- Hyperventilation
- Expiratory wheezing
- Bradypnea
- Chemical exposure
-Hyperventilation
A 2-year-old girl is evaluated for a barking cough. The NP suspects that this cough is a result of:
- Subglottic edema
- Retropharyngeal abscess
- Tracheal deviation
- Bronchospasm
-Subglottic edema
Which statement about respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) is true?
- Once infected with RSV, lifetime immunity is established
- RSV is only a disease of childhood
- Premature infants are more likely to be admitted to the hospital for treatment of RSV
- RSV has been associated with morbidity and mortality in patients 65 years and older
-RSV has been associated with morbidity and mortality in patients 65 years and older
When educating a parent about the nonpharmacologic management of croup, the NP should recommend:
- Chest physical therapy
- Use of a cool mist humidifier
- Respiratory isolation
- Paroxysmal coughing
-Use of a cool mist humidifier
Whooping cough is caused by:
- Rhinoviruses
- Adenoviruses
- Bordetella pertussis
- Parainfluenza
-Bordetella pertussis
Which one of the following cellular elements is NOT involved in the inflammation associated with asthma?
- Neutrophils
- Monocytes
- Eosinophils
- Mast cells
-Monocytes
The mechanism that prevents the collapse of alveoli by maintaining surface tension is:
- Frequent coughing
- Shallow breathing
- Surfactant
- Carbon dioxide exchange
-Surfactant
Which factor is NOT included in the Virchow triad, which predisposes a patient to pulmonary embolism?
- Endothelial injury
- Turbulence of blood flow
- Hypercoagulability
- Pulmonary infarction
-Pulmonary infarction
The most common cause of croup is:
- Bordetella pertusis
- Parainfluenza virus
- Coronavirus
- Haemophilus influenzae
-Parainfluenza virus
All patients with altered lung function associated with possible COPD should be assessed for airflow obstruction using
- Spirometry
- CT scan of the chest
- A methacholine challenge test
- Bronchoscopy
-Spirometry
What is the most common virus associated with bronchiolitis?
- Coxsackie virus
- Influenza B
- Respiratory syncytial virus
- Enterovirus
-Respiratory syncytial virus
A highly contagious acute respiratory illness characterized by paroxysmal cough is:
- Respiratory syncytial virus
- Pertussis
- Bronchitis
- Influenza
-Pertussis
VQ ratio >0.8 means that:
- Ventilation exceeds perfusion
- Perfusion exceeds ventilation
-Ventilation exceeds perfusion
This is considered Dead Space
Frequently associated with pulmonary embolism
COPD can cause both types of mismatch
VQ ratio <0.8 means that:
- Ventilation exceeds perfusion
- Perfusion exceeds ventilation
-Perfusion exceeds ventilation
This is referred to as a shunt.
Commonly occurs with: choking, pneumonia, pulmonary edema, ARDS, Alveolar collapse
COPD can lead to both types of VQ mismatch
Paroxysmal events associated with abnormal electrical discharges of neurons in the brain are known as:
- Neuropathy
- Muscle Spasms
- Seizures
- Tremors
-Seizures
Two hallmark symptoms of concussion are:
- Nausea and vomiting
- Tremor and loss of consciousness
- Confusion and amnesia
- Headache and dizziness
-Confusion and amnesia
Hyperreflexia of the deep tendons may indicate:
- Nerve root impairment
- Electrolyte imbalance
- Myopathies
- Hypothyroidism
-Electrolyte imbalance
The most common cause of aseptic viral meningitis is:
- Aspergillus
- Enterovirus
- Herpes simplex
- Escherichia coli
-Enterovirus
In Parkinson’s disease, a deficiency exists in which neurotransmitter?
- Acetylcholine
- Dopamine
- Serotonin
- Glutamate
-Dopamine
Akathisia and bradykinesia occur in patients with Parkinson’s disease due to the effect of the disease on the:
- Limbic system
- Corticobulbar tract
- Extrapyramidal system
- Corticospinal tract
-Extrapyramidal system
Which of the following is a disorder of the spinal roots that results from compression, inflammation, or tearing of the nerve roots at the vertebral canal?
- Fibromyalgia
- Osteoarthritis
- Radiculopathy
- Osteoporosis
-Radiculopathy
Inflammation of the dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater and underlying cortex that causes increased intracranial pressure is:
- Meningitis
- Guillain-Barre syndrome
- Encephalopathy
- Hydrocephalus
-Meningitis
An acute, autoimmune, rapidly progressive demyelination of peripheral nerves is known as:
- Myasthenia gravis
- Guillain-Barre syndrome
- Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
- Multiple sclerosis
-Guillain-Barre syndrome
In a patient with parkonsonism, the loss of autonomic responses to fear and the development of depression is caused by loss of neurons in the:
- Corpus striatum
- Globus pallidus
- Amygdala
- Brainstem
-Amygdala
In a patient with meningitis secondary to Haemophilus influenzae infection, the history may reveal recent:
- Endocarditis
- Cellulitis
- Sinusitis
- Gastroenteritis
-Sinusitis
A 35-year-old woman complains of daily or near daily low-to-moderate-intensity headaches for about 4 months. The headaches are occasionally intense and are accompanied by mild photophobia. This is most likely:
- Orthostatic headache
- Hypnic headache
- Chronic migraine
- Thunderclap headache
-Chronic migraine
When cell death occurs in the frontal lobes of the brain, the patient with Alzheimer’s disease may experience:
- Neuropathy
- Expressive aphasia
- Blurred vision
- Heat sensitivity
-Expressive aphasia
A dysfunction of cranial nerve VI (abducens nerve) would likely result in:
- The inability to chew
- Lack of tongue movement
- Ptosis
- Esotropia
-Esotropia
Esotropia is a form of strabismus in which one or both eyes turn inward, due to dysfunction of the cranial nerve VI. The patient may experience horizontal diplopia (double vision with objects side by side)
The type of seizure that affects both cerebral hemispheres and causes an impairment of consciousness is:
- Atypical seizure
- Simple partial seizure
- Focal seizure
- Generalized seizure
-Generalized seizure
A diagnosis of meningitis should be considered in the patient who exhibits:
- Decreased deep tendon reflexes
- Positive Brudzinski and Kernig signs
- An intention tremor
- Ptosis
-Positive Brudzinski and Kernig signs
An irreversible condition that develops as a result of progressive degeneration of the hippocampus is:
- Alzheimer’s disease
- Delirium
- Parkinson’s disease
- Multiple sclerosis
-Alzheimer’s disease
Which of the following is NOT a likely cause of an embolic stroke?
- Air bubbles
- Fat globules
- Plaque
- Elevated blood sugar
-Elevated blood sugar
Irritation of or injury to a nerve root that causes pain, numbness, or weakness in the part of the body that is supplied with nerves from that root is known as:
- Radiculopathy
- Bursitis
- Cauda equina
- Arthritis
-Radiculopathy
A disease that produces sporadic, progressive weakness and abnormal fatigue of voluntary skeletal muscles is:
- Botulism
- Fibromyalgia
- Muscular dystrophy
- Myasthenia Gravis
-Myasthenia Gravis
Which diagnostic study can be useful in differentiating Alzheimer’s disease from dementia with Lewy Bodies?
- CT
- MRI
- EEG
- PET scan
-PET scan
A transient ischemic attack:
- May result in permanent tissue damage
- Will resolve within 24 hours
- Is confirmed by CT imaging
- Will cause a gradual buildup of symptoms over 24 hours
-May result in permanent tissue damage
The organism that is LEAST likely to be responsible for community-acquired fungal meningitis is:
- Histoplasma
- Candida albicans
- Cryptococcus neoformans
- Coccidioides
-Candida albicans
The condition caused by inability of the brain to understand sound despite normal detection of sound by the inner ear is known as:
- Conductive hearing loss
- Sensorineural hearing loss
- Traumatic hearing loss
- Auditory neuropathy spectrum disorder
-Auditory neuropathy spectrum disorder
Progressive muscle rigidity, loss of muscle movement, and involuntary tremors are associated with:
- Parkinson’s disease
- Multiple sclerosis
- Myasthenia gravis
- Spasticity
-Parkinson’s disease
A decrease in oxygen and glucose to brain tissue that is related to congestion and edema in an affected vessel is caused by:
- A thrombus
- An embolism
- Hypoperfusion
- Hemorrhage
-A thrombus
Down syndrome is a chromosomal abnormality due to an extra:
- Chromosome 15
- Chromosome 18
- Chromosome 21
- Chromosome 23
-Chromosome 21
A progressive neurodegenerative disease that destroys motor neurons is:
- Multiple sclerosis
- Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
- Myasthenia gravis
- Parkinson disease
-Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
A disease that is characterized by severe, sharp, unilateral stabbing pain in the distribution of one or more branches of the fifth cranial nerve is:
- Trigeminal neuralgia
- Neuralgiform headache attacks
- Cluster headaches
- Giant cell arteritis
-Trigeminal neuralgia
A patient with severe herniated disc at the fifth lumbar area is NOT likely to have:
- Spinal stenosis
- Radiculopathy
- Cauda equina
- Paralysis
-Paralysis
The diagnostic criteria for Alzheimer’s disease include:
- Impaired ability to remember new information
- Visual hallucinations
- Cognitive fluctuations
- Rapid eye movement (REM) sleep behavior disorder
-Impaired ability to remember new information
A risk factor associated with cluster headaches is:
- Age between 13 and 18 years
- The presence of allergic rhinitis
- Menses
- Alcohol ingestion by a man
-Alcohol ingestion by a man
The hypersensitivity and pain crescendo experienced in conjunction with a migraine attack is thought to be related to the release of:
- Catecholamines
- Substance P
- Enkephalins
- Acetylcholine
-Substance P
In myasthenia gravis, neuromuscular transmission is blocked by weakened receptor sites at which neurotransmitter?
- Dopamine
- Serotonin
- Acetylcholine
- Glutamate
-Acetylcholine
A transient episode of neurologic dysfunction caused by focal brain, spinal cord, or retinal ischemia without acute infarction is called:
- Transient ischemic attack
- Meningitis
- Multiple sclerosis
- Subdural hemorrhage
-Transient ischemic attack
The cause of movement disorders in Parkinson’s disease is thought to be related to destruction of cells in the :
- Hippocampus
- Substantia nigra
- Striatum
- Corpus callosum
-Substantia nigra
The most common cause of ischemia that originates within the brain is:
- Giant cell arteritis
- Atherosclerosis
- Hyperperfusion
- Hemorrhage
-Atherosclerosis
Which condition is described as a sudden internal or external spinning sensation, often triggered by moving the head quickly?
- Tympanic membrane rupture
- Cerebral ischemia
- Acoustic neuroma
- Vertigo
-Vertigo
An abnormally excessive curvature of the thoracic spine is known as:
- Lordosis
- Spondylosis
- Stenosis
- Kyphosis
-Kyphosis
A complex pathophysiologic process that affects the brain and is a result of direct external contact forces is:
- Concussion
- Seizure
- Headache
- Posttraumatic stress
-Concussion
The leading cause of bacterial meningitis in children and young adults in the United States is:
- Streptococcus pneumoniae
- Haemophilus influenzae
- Campylobacter jejuni
- Neisseria meningitidis
-Neisseria meningitidis
Autonomic symptoms associated with cluster headaches do NOT include:
- Ptosis
- Lacrimaton
- Rhinorrhea
- Epistaxis
-Epistaxis
Which of the following patients is at highest risk for having hemorrhagic stroke?
- A 54-year-old man with atherosclerosis
- A 65-year-old woman with uncontrolled hypertension
- A 60-year-old man with atrial fibrillation
- A 40-year-old woman with an antithrombin III deficiency
-A 65-year-old woman with uncontrolled hypertension
A 34-year-old patient who has experienced a traumatic brain injury and has been diagnosed with retrograde amnesia will NOT:
- Remember events that occurred immediately before the head trauma
- Remember events that occurred immediately after the head trauma
- Learn new information
- Recall general knowledge
-Remember events that occurred immediately before the head trauma
Guillain-Barre syndrome causes a degeneration of the:
- Motor neurons
- Dendrites
- Myelin sheath
- Skeletal muscle
-Myelin sheath
Which diagnosis is associated with T cell-mediated destruction of beta cells in the pancreas?
- Diabetes insipidus
- Type I diabetes mellitus
- Type 2 diabetes mellitus
- Gestational diabetes
-Type I diabetes mellitus
Which one of the following is necessary for linear bone growth in children?
- Growth hormone
- Renin
- Testosterone
- Thyroid-stimulating hormone
-Growth hormone
In thyrotoxic crisis, T3 and T4 are overproduced, causing hypermetabolism from the overproduction of:
- Dopamine
- Catecholamines
- Epinephrine
- Norepinephrine
-Epinephrine
Type 1 diabetes mellitus is caused by:
- Resistance to insulin action in target tissues
- Abnormal insulin secretion
- Beta cell destruction
- Inappropriate hepatic glycogenesis
-Beta cell destruction
Which one of the following is increased in Addison’s disease?
- Aldosterone
- Potassium
- Creatinine
- Calcium
-Aldosterone
Which of the following hormones is NOT essential for normal body growth and maturation in children?
- Growth hormone
- Insulin
- Adrenalin
- Androgen
-Adrenalin
What percent of beta cells in the pancreas must be destroyed before hyperglycemia develops?
- 10
- 20
- 50
- 80
-80
An extreme and life-threatening form of thyrotoxicosis is called:
- Graves’ disease
- Thyroid storm
- Thyroiditis
- Hypothyroidism
-Thyroid storm
As a result of prolonged exposure to high levels of cortisol, the patient with Cushing’s syndrome is likely to develop
- Gynecomastia
- Moon facies
- Protruding eyes
- Fruity smell
-Moon facies
In addition to decreased plasma cortisol levels, the laboratory findings of a patient in adrenal crisis would include:
- Increased serum sodium
- Decreased serum potassium
- Decreased serum sodium levels
- Decreased blood urea nitrogen levels
-Decreased serum sodium levels
In a patient with hyperglycemia, the nurse practitioner knows that hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS) will NOT produce:
- Dehydration
- Glycosuria
- High glucose levels
- Ketogenesis
-Ketogenesis
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and oxytocin are produced in the:
- Adrenal glands
- Parathyroid gland
- Thyroid gland
- Hypothalamus
-Hypothalamus
When calcium levels are low, the negative feedback system:
- Stimulates the parathyroid gland to release parathyroid hormone
- Stimulates the hormone receptors to release calcium into the serum
- Inhibits the transport of calcium levels to the bloodstream
- Inhibits the uptake of calcium levels in the bones
-Stimulates the parathyroid gland to release parathyroid hormone
The release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) from the posterior pituitary gland is stimulated by reduced circulating volume and:
- Decreased serum osmolality
- Decreased urine osmolality
- Increased serum osmolality
- Increased urine osmolality
-Increased serum osmolality
A 42-year-old woman complains of palpitations, anxiety and weight loss. Which two lab tests would be most helpful in diagnosing this patient?
- Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH)
- Cortisol and ACTH levels
- Insulin-like growth factor and prolactin levels
- Free T3 and T4
-Free T3 and T4
Acute complications of untreated diabetes insipidus would NOT include:
- Hypovolemia
- Hypervolemia
- Circulatory collapse
- Loss of consciousness
-Hypervolemia
The macrovascular disease that is the leading cause of death in patients with diabetes is:
- Cardiovascular disease
- Cerebrovascular disease
- Diabetic nephropathy
- Peripheral vascular disease
-Cardiovascular disease
Patients with hypothyroidism are also likely to have elevated:
- Sodium levels
- Potassium levels
- Lipid levels
- Cortisol levels
-Lipid levels
A negative feedback system regulates the endocrine system by:
- Stimulating hormone production
- Increasing the uptake of the target tissue
- Increasing the hormone transport system
- Inhibiting hormone overproduction
-Inhibiting hormone overproduction
Which of the following is NOT a common secondary cause of Type 2 diabetes?
- Prolonged physical or emotional stress
- Pregnancy
- Use of hormonal contraceptives
- Autoimmune disease
-Autoimmune disease
Which of the following laboratory findings are present after adrenal stimulation in a patient with early stage Addison’s disease
- Increased sodium levels
- Decreased potassium levels
- Increased cortisol levels
- Increased bicarbonate
-Increased cortisol levels
Diabetes is the leading cause of:
- Urosepsis
- End-stage renal disease
- Acute coronary syndrome
- Pancreatitis
-End-stage renal disease
In a patient with diabetes insipidus, the resorption of water by the renal tubular collecting ducts can lead to:
- Increased urine glucose
- Increased serum potassium
- Increased serum sodium
- Increased urine calcium
-Increased serum sodium
The most common cause of hypothyroidism is:
- Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
- Graves’ disease
- Thyroid storm
- Abnormal iodine metabolism
-Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
An autoimmune disorder characterized by abnormal stimulation of the thyroid gland by antibodies that act through normal TSH receptors is:
- Celiac disease
- Graves’ disease
- Multiple sclerosis
- Sjogren’s syndrome
-Graves’ disease
The characteristic feature of Graves’ disease do NOT include:
- Hyperthyroidism
- Goiter
- Orbitopathy
- Constipation
-Constipation
The thyroid hormone that is responsible for calcium regulation is:
- Triiodothyronine (T3)
- Thyroxine (T4)
- Thyrocalcitonin (Calcitonin)
- Thyroid-stimulating hormone
-Thyrocalcitonin (Calcitonin)
A patient with an elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level most likely has:
- Subacute thyroiditis
- Toxic adenoma
- Graves’ disease
- Hypothyroidism
-Hypothyroidism
A complication associated with Type 1 and Type 2 diabetes that is NOT a microvascular complication is:
- Nephropathy
- Neuropathy
- Retinopathy
- Peripheral arterial disease
-Peripheral arterial disease
A simple nontoxic goiter:
- Is caused by inflammation
- Is likely secondary to a neoplasm
- May be enlarged secondary to a lack of iodine in the diet
- Is an autoimmune disease process
-May be enlarged secondary to a lack of iodine in the diet
The disease caused by hyperfunctioning of the thyroid gland is known as:
- Hypothyroidism
- Hyperthyroidism
- Nontoxic goiter
- Hashimoto’s disease
-Hyperthyroidism
An acute metabolic complication that occurs in patients with diabetes is:
- Nephropathy
- Retinopathy
- Autonomic neuropathy
- Ketoacidosis
-Ketoacidosis
A 54-year-old patient with diabetes presents with fatigue and the nurse practitioner suspects diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Other symptoms related to DKA include:
- Dysuria
- Metallic taste in the mouth
- Fruity breath
- Bradycardia
-Fruity breath
In addition to elevated blood glucose levels, the initial laboratory findings in a patient with diabetic ketoacidosis would include:
- Elevated pH levels
- Decreased bicarbonate levels
- Decreased potassium levels
- Elevated glomerular filtration rate
-Decreased bicarbonate levels
Guillain-Barre syndrome is most commonly triggered by recent:
- Surgery
- Digestive tract infection
- Immunization
- Acute hepatitis
-Digestive tract infection
The most common cause of secondary hypothyroidism is:
- Increased secretion of thyrotropin-releasing hormone by the hypothalamus
- Low intake of dietary iodine or abnormal iodine metabolism
- Increased secretion of thyrotropin hormone by the pituitary gland
- Low secretion of thyrotropin hormone by the pituitary gland
-Low secretion of thyrotropin hormone by the pituitary gland
The majority of patients with simple goiters are expected to have:
- Elevated triiodothyronine (T3) levels
- Elevated thyroxine (T4) levels
- A euthyroid state
- A low level of serum thyroid stimulation hormone
-A euthyroid state
Diabetes mellitus is NOT a disorder in the metabolism of:
- Carbohydrates
- Iron
- Fats
- Proteins
-Iron
Synthesis and secretion of the thyroid hormones depend on the presence of:
- Triiodothyronine
- Thyroxine
- Iodine
- Luteinizing hormone
-Iodine
People with Graves’ disease may experience comorbid diseases including:
- Peptic ulcer disease
- Iron deficiency anemia
- Lupus erythematosus
- Thyroid cancer
-Lupus erythematosus
The most common cause of hyperthyroidism is:
- Cushing syndrome
- Precocious puberty
- Graves’ disease
- Menopause
-Graves’ disease
Which one of the following is NOT a cause of short stature in children?
- Turner syndrome
- Growth hormone deficiency
- Hypothyroidism
- Early estrogen and androgen secretion
-Early estrogen and androgen secretion
The adrenal glands are responsible for producing
- Testosterone
- Leukotrienes
- Epinephrine
- Prostaglandins
-Epinephrine
Hypofunction of the adrenal cortex that results in an inadequate release of glucocorticoids is:
- Sprue syndrome
- Cushing syndrome
- Addison’s disease
- Hypoparathyroidism
-Addison’s disease
Cushing’s disease is characterized by physical abnormalities that occur when the adrenal glands secrete excess:
- Triiodothyronine
- Glucocorticoids
- Oxytocin
- Antidiuretic hormone
-Glucocorticoids
The most common signs of newly diagnosed diabetes include:
- Peripheral neuropathy
- Polyuria
- Hyperphagia
- Blurred vision
-Polyuria
The complication associated with Type 1 and Type 2 diabetes that is a macrovascular complication is:
- Coronary artery disease
- Neuropathy
- Nephropathy
- Retinopathy
-Coronary artery disease
The disorder that is caused by a deficiency of antidiuretic hormone is known as:
- Hypercalcemia
- Histiocytosis
- Type 1 diabetes mellitus
- Diabetes insipidus
-Diabetes insipidus
Which hormone is NOT one of the four types of trophic hormones released by the anterior pituitary gland?
- Follicle-stimulating hormone
- Luteinizing hormone
- Growth hormone
- Thyroid-stimulating hormone
-Growth hormone
Symptoms of thyrotoxicosis include:
- Hypotension
- Bradycardia
- Low cardiac output
- Cardiac arrhythmia
-Cardiac arrhythmia
A common characteristic of a person with Graves’ disease is:
- Ophthalmopathy
- Humped back
- Moon face
- Peripheral neuropathy
-Ophthalmopathy
Hyperglycemia in patients who have Type 2 diabetes can cause:
- Anorexia
- Hematuria
- Thirst
- Hyperphagia
-Thirst
In the presence of acute adrenal insufficiency, the underproduction of cortisol by the adrenal glands may cause the patient to experience:
- Hyperglycemia
- Hypoglycemia
- Hypertension
- Headaches
-Hypoglycemia
Risk factors that predispose a patient to Graves’ disease include:
- A family history of Graves’ disease in men of the family
- Female sex
- A history of alcoholism
- Being in the first trimester of pregnancy
-Female sex
Which one of the following is the likely diagnosis in a 9-month-old baby who presents with a high fever followed by a morbilliform rash that begins centrally and spreads peripherally?
- Measles
- Roseola
- Meningococcemia
- Rubella
-Roseola
A soft, flesh-colored, bag-like tumor attached to the skin surface by a stalk is known as a:
- Cylindroma
- Adnexal tumor
- Fibroepithelial polyp
- Epithelial cyst
-Fibroepithelial polyp
Which one of the following statements about impetigo is NOT true?
- Impetigo will heal in 2-3 days, even without treatment
- Treatment of impetigo will reduce the spread of infection to other people
- Bullous impetigo may cause a deep dermal infection
- Lesions that persist after 7 to 10 days of antibiotic therapy should be cultured
-Impetigo will heal in 2-3 days, even without treatment
Which one of the following cell types is located in the lower part of the epidermis and is responsible for forming new cells to replace squamous cells?
- Keratinocyte
- Melanocyte
- Basal cell
- Merkel cell
-Basal cell
Fungal infection of the skin is NOT caused by:
- Burrowing of mites
- Skin-to-skin contact with an infected person
- Indirect contact via a contaminated comb
- Direct contact with an infected dog
-Burrowing of mites
A self-limited, painful dermatomal rash is most likely:
- Herpes simplex
- Lentigo
- Shingles
- Folliculitis
-Shingles
The most common cause of vitiligo is:
- A viral infection
- Dermal trauma
- Allergic reaction
- Autoimmunity
-Autoimmunity
Which of the following statements is NOT true about freckles (ephelides)?
- Freckles will fade and intensify in cyclic fashion during the winter and summer
- Freckles are caused by an increased production of melanin
- Freckles are considered a precancerous skin condition
- Genetics and sun exposure are both influential in the development of freckles
-Freckles are considered a precancerous skin condition
Which one of the following is a condition closely related to urticaria and causes a deeper edema of the dermis and subcutaneous fat?
- Angioedema
- Eczema
- Cellulitis
- Urticaria
-Angioedema
The primary plaque that appears on the trunk of the body prior to the development of a Christmas tree-patterned rash is called a:
- Hive
- Tinea patch
- Herald patch
- Carbuncle
-Herald patch
A 6-year-old boy presents with a red facial rash that has a slapped-cheek appearance. This is likely an illness caused by:
- Human herpesvirus 6
- Rubeola virus
- Parvovirus B19
- Streptococcus
-Parvovirus B19
Acanthosis nigricans is most likely to occur on the:
- Abdomen
- Shins
- Axillae
- Face
-Axillae
A rash that begins as a large circular or oval spot on the trunk of the body, then takes on a Christmas tree-like pattern is most likely:
- Dermatophytosis
- Pityriasis rosea
- Lichen planus
- Syphilis
-Pityriasis rosea
A neoplasm that arises from cutaneous appendages and is often mistaken for basal cell carcinoma is known as:
- Keratoacanthoma
- Squamous cell carcinoma
- Adnexal tumor
- Fibroepithelial polyp
-Adnexal tumor
A benign dome-shaped growth with small black dots on the surface of a finger is most likely:
- Molluscum contagiosum
- A callus
- Verruca vulgaris
- Melanoma
-Verruca vulgaris
The antigen-induced development of pruritic edematous circular plaques is known as:
- Contact dermatitis
- Eczema
- Urticaria
- Psoriasis
-Urticaria
Common warts (verruca vulgaris) are caused by:
- Human papillomavirus
- Coxsackievirus
- Parvovirus
- Herpes simplex
-Human papillomavirus
A factor that does NOT typically contribute to the development of nevi is:
- Heredity
- Degree of sun exposure during childhood
- Lightly pigmented skin
- Sex
-Sex
Mongolian spots are:
- A precancerous condition
- Not indicative of an underlying disorder
- Superficial cysts filled with keratin
- A collection of melanocytes in the deeper layers of the skin
-A collection of melanocytes in the deeper layers of the skin
Why is it important to reduce heat loss and provide appropriate nutritional support to a patient with burns on more than 40% of the body?
- To promote wound healing
- To reduce the possibility of heat cramps
- To increase the immune system response
- To decrease the resting metabolic rate
-To decrease the resting metabolic rate
An acute round, tender nodule that becomes a pustule or perifollicular abscess with a single draining point is called:
- Folliculitis
- Furunculosis
- Carbunculosis
- Atopic dermatitis
-Furunculosis
An annular lesion that has central clearing with an enlarging border is:
- Erythema multiforme
- Tinea corporis
- Annular psoriasis
- Impetigo
-Tinea corporis
Squamous cell carcinoma is:
- Less likely than basal cell carcinoma to metastasize
- An uncontrolled growth of abnormal cells arising from the squamous cells in the epidermis
- Twice as common in women as men
- Only caused by sun exposure
-An uncontrolled growth of abnormal cells arising from the squamous cells in the epidermis
Hand, foot and mouth disease is most commonly caused by:
- Human parvovirus
- Coxsackievirus
- Herpes virus
- Morbillivirus
-Coxsackievirus
Which statement about onychomycosis is NOT true?
- Patients seek care for cosmetic reasons, not physical complaints
- Onychomycosis may eventually cause paresthesias
- Onychomycosis may involve any component of the nail bed
- Topical treatments are generally sufficient to cure onychomycosis
-Topical treatments are generally sufficient to cure onychomycosis
Hand, foot and mouth disease is most commonly transmitted via:
- Contact with oral, fecal, or respiratory secretions
- Airborne droplets due to coughing, sneezing or talking
- Ingestion of contaminated food and water
- Indirect contact or exposure to an affected person
-Contact with oral, fecal, or respiratory secretions
Which one of the following conditions is common, characterized by the presence of pruritic papules, macules, and vesicles in various stages of healing?
- Measles
- Bullous pemphigoig
- Varicella zoster
- Eczema herpeticum
-Varicella zoster
Human herpes virus 3 causes:
- Cold sores
- Mononucleosis
- Roseola
- Chickenpox
-Chickenpox
Postherpatic neuralgia is:
- A side effect of recommended treatment for herpes zoster
- Persistent pain for more than 30 days after all shingles lesions have crusted
- Recurring herpatic lesions in a secondary dermatome
- Numbness along the affected basal ganglion nerve root
-Persistent pain for more than 30 days after all shingles lesions have crusted
Which one of the following is an accumulation of edema within the intercellular spaces of the epidermis that results in red papulovesicular lesions that ooze and crust?
- Angioedema
- Urticaria
- Eczematous dermatitis
- Cellulitis
-Eczematous dermatitis
A child with tinea capitis may be cleared to return to school:
- When the infection is completely healed
- After 1 week of pharmacologic therapy
- When the lesions become dry
- After treatment is initiated
-After treatment is initiated
Which enzyme is responsible for the invasion of fungus under the skin of a patient with tinea pedis?
- Keratinase
- Trypsin
- Maltase
- Flavin
-Keratinase
A thick white substance composed of sebum and desquamated epithelial cells on the skin of a premature infant is:
- Lanugo
- Vernix
- Milia
- Acrocyanosis
-Vernix
Which one of the following is a medication-triggered condition that presents with persistent fever, mucous membrane involvement, and epidermal sloughing?
- Bullous dermatosis
- Erythema multiforme
- Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome
- Stevens-Johnson syndrome
-Stevens-Johnson syndrome
Cutaneous xanthomas develop due to:
- Sun exposure
- Repeated trauma to an area
- An allergic reaction
- Elevated lipoproteins
-Elevated lipoproteins
Which virus predisposes patients to shingles?
- Epstein Barr virus
- Herpes simplex virus
- Varicella zoster virus
- Cytomegalovirus
-Varicella zoster virus
Which of the following statements about shingles is true?
- Varicella zoster virus is contagious before the rash appears
- The herpes zoster virus is transmitted by indirect contact with the infected patient
- Herpes zoster is twice as contagious as the primary varicella virus
- Older, immunocompromised, and pregnant patients should avoid contact with anyone who has shingles
-Older, immunocompromised, and pregnant patients should avoid contact with anyone who has shingles
Which type of burn is described as blistering, does not blanch with pressure, and is variable in color?
- Superficial burn
- Deep partial-thickness burn
- Full-thickness burn
- Fourth-degree burn
-Deep partial-thickness burn
Seborrheic dermatitis produces papules and scales on sebum-rich areas of the skin. Sebum is produced by:
- Apocrine (sweat) glands
- Sebaceous glands
- Subcutaneous fatty tissue
- Hair follicles
-Sebaceous glands
Which of the following is true of Lyme disease?
- Lyme disease is spread via infected mosquitoes
- Once treated, Lyme disease does not recur
- Lyme disease is caused by the spirochete Borrelia burgdorferi
- Lyme disease is best treated with antivirals and corticosteroids
-Lyme disease is caused by the spirochete Borrelia burgdorferi
A burn that is mottled, red, and does not blanch or form blisters is likely a:
- First-degree, superficial burn
- Second-degree, deep partial thickness burn
- Third-degree, full-thickness burn
- Fourth-degree, full-thickness burn
-Second-degree, deep partial thickness burn
The most immediate concern in a patient with a third-degree burn on more than 20% of the body surface is:
- Secondary infection
- Hypovolemic shock
- Hyperthermic shock
- Respiratory acidosis
-Hypovolemic shock
A comorbid condition that is NOT typically associated with alopecia areata is:
- Vitiligo
- Thyroid disease
- Seborrheic dermatitis
- Atopic dermatitis
-Seborrheic dermatitis
Characteristic features of fifth disease do NOT include:
- An incubation period of 14 days
- A rash in the prodromal period
- Exacerbation of rash by sunlight, heat, stress
- The development of joint pain in adults
-A rash in the prodromal period
The destruction of epithelial cells that causes target-shaped lesions as a result of a hypersensitivity reaction to certain infections and drugs is known as:
- Angioedema
- Erythema multiforme
- Eczematous dermatitis
- Stevens-Johnson syndrome
-Erythema multiforme
A superficial dermatophytosis that attacks hair shafts on the scalp, eyebrows, and eyelashes is known as:
- Alopecia
- Tinea capitis
- Seborrheic dermatitis
- Pyoderma
-Tinea capitis
A premalignant lesion that is associated with a buildup of excess keratin and is usually less than 1 cm in diameter is known as:
- Cylindroma
- Adnexal tumors
- Lentigo
- Actinic keratosis
-Actinic keratosis
Pain, swelling and redness around the base or the sides of the nail is known as:
- Subungual fibroma
- Onychomycosis
- Paronychia
- Pyogenic granuloma
-Paronychia
A condition in which hair loss occurs in round patches on the scalp:
- Tinea capitis
- Trichotillomania
- Syphilis
- Alopecia
-Alopecia
Which one of the following is NOT a result of infection with enterovirus?
- Poliovirus
- Coxsackievirus
- Echoviruses
- Epstein Barr virus
-Epstein Barr virus
Which of the following is NOT a form of dermatophytosis?
- Tinea pedis
- Onychomycosis
- Tinea capitis
- Paronychia
-Paronychia
Cells within the epidermis that are primarily responsible for protecting the skin from ultraviolet rays in sunlight are:
- Melanocytes
- Merkel cells
- Langerhans cells
- Dendrocytes
-Melanocytes
Subungual onychomycosis is the most common form of onychomycosis and it is caused by:
- Epidermophyton floccosum
- Malassezia furfur
- Microsporum canis
- Trichophyton rubrum
-Trichophyton rubrum
The presence of nymphs and nits on the scalp are indications of:
- Dermatophytosis
- Folliculitis
- Scabies
- Pediculosis
-Pediculosis
Which of the following is NOT a type of human louse?
- Haematopinus
- Pediculus capitis
- Pediculus corporis
- Pthirus pubis
-Haematopinus
In addition to pain, a patient with shingles may commonly experience:
- Headaches
- Dizziness
- Motor weakness
- Tremors
-Motor weakness
The life span of lice is approximately:
- 7 days
- 10 days
- 15 days
- 30 days
-30 days
A benign epidermal tumor that is a well-demarcated, coin-like, pigmented lesion with a “stuck-on” appearance is known as a:
- Fibroepithelial polyp
- Seborrheic keratosis
- Dysplastic nevi
- Lentigo
-Seborrheic keratosis
A disease characterized by vesicular lesions on the mouth, an exanthem on the hands and feet, and fever, is known as:
- Herpes simplex
- Measles
- Hand, foot and mouth disease
- Kawasaki disease
-Hand, foot and mouth disease
The most common tumor arising on sun-exposed sites in older adults is:
- Squamous cell carcinoma
- Actinic keratosis
- Dysplastic nevi
- Basal cell carcinoma
-Basal cell carcinoma
A chronic, pruritic inflammatory skin disorder characterized by elevated lesions with well-defined boundaries and a silvery-white scale is most likely:
- Dermatophytosis
- Lichen planus
- Pityriasis rosea
- Psoriasis
-Psoriasis
A benign viral infection that results in multiple rounded, dome-shaped papules is most likely:
- Molluscum contagiosum
- Acne
- Lichen planus
- Pyoderma
-Molluscum contagiosum
Impetigo may be classified as bullous or nonbullous. Bullous impetigo is described as:
- A crusty lesion
- An erythematous circumscribed lesion
- An elevated done-shaped lesion
- A fluid-filled lesion
-A fluid-filled lesion
An intensely pruritic skin infestation is most likely caused by the mite:
- Pediculus humanus
- Sarcoptes scabiei
- Demodex folliculorum
- Phthyrius pubis
-Sarcoptes scabiei
A skin disorder that presents with both papules and scales on any hair-bearing area of the body is:
- Atopic dermatitis
- Pityriasis rosea
- Tinea capitis
- Seborrheic dermatitis
-Seborrheic dermatitis
Fifth disease is spread via:
- Direct contact
- Contaminated water
- Respiratory droplets
- Fecal oral route
-Respiratory droplets
Diaper dermatitis is:
- Caused by an acidic pH on the skin
- A type of irritant contact dermatitis
- A result of dehydration
- Caused by an allergic reaction to diapers
-A type of irritant contact dermatitis
During which phase of menstruation does the endometrium shed and bleeding occur?
- Ovulatory
- Follicular
- Luteal
- Endometrial
-Follicular
Which of the following is a yeast pathogen associated with vaginitis?
- Mycoplasma genitalium
- Trichomonas vaginalis
- Candida albicans
- Herpes simplex virus
-Candida albicans
Fibrocystic breast disease is influenced by:
- Decreased estrogen and increased progesterone
- Estrogen predominance and progesterone deficiency
- Increased prolactin and decreased estrogen
- Increased progesterone and decreased prolactin
-Estrogen predominance and progesterone deficiency
Dysfunctional menstrual cycles are related to alterations in:
- Testosterone
- Estrogen
- Prolactin
- Androgen
-Estrogen
Which type of adenoma is associated with the highest cancer risk?
- Villous adenomas
- Hyperplastic polyps
- Sessile lesions
- Uterine fibroids
-Villous adenomas
When an ovum is not fertilized, the corpus luteum stops producing:
- Estrogen
- Progesterone
- Testosterone
- Luteinizing hormone
-Progesterone
Patients with PCOS are at higher risk for developing
- Hypertension
- Hypothyroidism
- Asthma
- Type 2 diabetes
-Type 2 diabetes
When evaluating anovulation in a patient with PCOS, the hormone most likely elevated is:
- Testosterone
- Estrogen
- Luteinizing
- Follicle-stimulating
-Luteinizing
Genitourinary syndrome of menopause (GSM) is associated with:
- Increased progesterone
- Decreased estrogen
- Decreased prolactin
- Increased testosterone
-
-Decreased estrogen
When bone resorption exceeds bone formation in postmonopausal women, they become more susceptible to:
- Osteoclastoma
- Osteopenia
- Osteomalacia
- Osteosarcoma
-Osteopenia
The main risk factor associated with uterine prolapse is:
- Pelvic inflammatory disease
- Intrauterine contraceptive use
- Tubal ligation
- Pregnancy
-Pregnancy
When the uterosacral ligament weakens and forms a herniation is called:
- Enterocele
- Rectocele
- Cystocele
- Uterine prolapse
-Enterocele
In women, the growth of coarse, dark hair in areas not typical for this hair type is a sign of:
- Hirsutism
- Tinea capitis
- Alopecia
- Seborrhea
-Hirsutism
Which type of suppressor proteins are produced by BRCA1 and BRCA2?
- Tumor
- Papilloma
- Cyst
- Abscess
-Tumor
The odor associated with bacterial vaginosis can be initiated with the application of:
- Isopropyl alcohol
- Potassium hydroxide
- Hydrogen peroxide
- Water
-Potassium hydroxide
Women with polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) abnormally metabolize:
- Progesterone and luteinizing hormone
- Progesterone and estrogen
- Luteinizing hormone and androgen
- Androgens and estrogen
-Androgens and estrogen
Which hormone is elevated during days 1-13 of the menstrual cycle?
- Estrogen
- Progesterone
- Follicle-stimulating hormone
- Luteinizing hormone
-Follicle-stimulating hormone
Which risk factor may NOT be associated with the development of breast cancer?
- Obesity
- Large, dense breast tissue
- Nulliparity
- Short stature
-Short stature
A herniation of the bladder into the vagina is termed:
- Enterocele
- Rectocele
- Cystocele
- Uterine prolapse
-Cystocele
A clinical syndrome resulting from loss of normal vaginal flora, decreased lactobacilli and overgrowth of anaerobic organisms is:
- Bacterial vaginosis
- Candidiasis
- Gonorrhea
- Trichomoniasis
-Bacterial vaginosis
Hirsutism is due to:
- Excess prolactin
- Excess testosterone
- Excess estrogen
- Excess luteinizing hormone
-Excess testosterone
The gynecologic disorder that occurs when endometrial tissue grows outside the uterus is:
- Pelvic inflammatory disease
- Endometriosis
- Polycystic ovarian syndrome
- Uterine fibroids
-Endometriosis
Which breast condition is NOT part of a heterogeneous group of benign breast lesions?
- Fibrocystic breast disease
- Intraductal papilloma
- Fibroadenoma
- Luminal A
-Luminal A
The milk-producing gland of a woman is the:
- Montgomery gland
- Mammary gland
- Naboth’s gland
- Sebaceous gland
-Mammary gland
Which one of the following is NOT regulated by follicle-stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone?
- Growth
- Prepubertal maturation
- Parity
- The reproductive cycle
-Parity
Which hormone is responsible for breast development?
- Prolactin
- Testosterone
- Estrogen
- Luteinizing hormone
-Estrogen
Which hormone is responsible for ovulation and the development of the corpus luteum?
- Prolactin
- Oxytocin
- Follicle-stimulating hormone
- Luteinizing hormone
-Luteinizing hormone
Patients with polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) typically have:
- Hypotension
- Hyperthyroidism
- Hypoglycemia
- Hyperinsulinemia
-Hyperinsulinemia
Which one of the following is NOT a pathological characteristic of polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS)?
- Excess androgen
- Body mass index of 30 or higher
- Abnormal insulin resistance
- Low luteinizing hormone
-Low luteinizing hormone
Which of the following conditions is NOT associated with excessive levels of androgens in women?
- PCOS
- Premenstrual syndrome
- Hirsutism
- Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
-Premenstrual syndrome
Which one of the following statements about bacterial vaginosis is NOT correct?
- It is caused by an increase in pH
- It is a sexually transmitted disease
- The prevalence of BV in the United States is 29.2%
- Douching increases the risk for developing BV
-It is a sexually transmitted disease
A 34-year old woman complains of fewer than nine menstrual periods in 1 year and no menstrual periods for 3 consecutive months. Which is the most appropriate diagnosis for this woman?
- Polycystic ovarian syndrome
- Hypoandrogenism
- Menstrual dysfunction
- Perimenopause
-Menstrual dysfunction
Which one of the following is likely to decrease breast cancer risk?
- Pregnancy after age 35 years
- Late onset of menarche
- Early onset of menarche
- Regular physical activity
-Regular physical activity
Which phase of the menstrual cycle involves the closure of a ruptured follicle after ovum release?
- Menstrual
- Follicular
- Ovulatory
- Luteal
-Luteal
The most common pelvic tumor is a benign neoplasm of smooth muscle origin that is termed:
- A cyst
- A polyp
- A fibroid
- An abscess
-A fibroid
Herniation of the rectum into the vagina is termed:
- Enterocele
- Rectocele
- Cystocele
- Uterine prolapse
-Rectocele
Benign epithelial neoplasms that arise from the epithelial cells lining the colon are:
- Fibroids
- Polyps
- Cysts
- Abscesses
-Polyps
After ovulation, the corpus luteum predominately secretes which hormone to prepare the uterus for implantation of a fertilized ovary?
- Estrogen
- Follicle-stimulating hormone
- Growth hormone
- Progesterone
-Progesterone
During the ovulatory phase, which hormone stimulates the follicle to rupture and release the ovum?
- Estrogen
- Progesterone
- Luteinizing
- Testosterone
-Luteinizing
Which hormone increases during the follicular phase of the menstrual cycle to prepare the uterus for ovum fertilization?
- Progesterone
- Estrogen
- Testosterone
- Luteinizing hormone
-Estrogen
PCOS is associated with clinical findings of obesity due to:
- Hypothyroidism
- Hyperinsulinemia
- Hypoandrogenism
- Hyperestrogenism
Hyperinsulinemia
Overgrowth of endometrial cells in the lining of the uterus may lead to a(n):
- Cyst
- Polyp
- Fibroid
- Abscess
-Polyp
Lack of which hormone can cause failure of the ovarian follicles to mature to the point of ovulation?
- Cortisol
- Testosterone
- Androgen
- Progesterone
-Progesterone
In women, bacteria in the lower genital tract may lead to pelvic inflammatory disease due to:
- The effects of estrogen levels on cervical mucus viscosity
- Progestin disturbances in the endocervical canal
- Sterility of the vaginal ecosystem in the upper genital tract
- Vaginal secretion pH of 4.0
-The effects of estrogen levels on cervical mucus viscosity
A hormonal disorder in women of reproductive age that causes prolonged menstruation or excessive androgen levels is:
- Polycystic ovarian syndrome
- Pelvic inflammatory disease
- Endometriosis
- Cervicitis
-Polycystic ovarian syndrome
Uterine prolapse is caused by stretching of the uterine:
- Muscle
- Tendons
- Ligaments
- Wall
-Ligaments
Which one of the following is sometimes described as nodular, sensitive breasts?
- Mastitis
- Fibrocystic breast disease
- Breast cancer
- Fibroadenoma
-Fibrocystic breast disease
Which phase of the menstrual cycle begins with a surge in luteinizing hormone and follicle-stimulating hormone?
- Menstrual
- Follicular
- Ovulatory
- Luteal
-Ovulatory
An immature female gamete is termed:
- A zygote
- An oocyte
- An embryo
- An ovum
-An oocyte
The most common reason women have abnormal cervical cytology is infection with:
- Trichomoniasis
- Human papillomavirus infection
- Candida albicans infection
- Bacterial vaginosis
-Human papillomavirus infection
Which one of the following is a pathogen commonly associated with mastitis?
- Klebsiella pneumoniae
- Staphylococcus aureus
- Mycobacterium haemophilum
- Cutibacterium acnes
-Staphylococcus aureus
Which one of the following is NOT a complication associated with uterine prolapse?
- Incarceration of the uterus
- Cystocele
- Pelvic inflammatory disease
- Ulcer
-Pelvic inflammatory disease
Which sexually transmitted infection involves a pathogen that lacks a cell wall?
- Neisseria gonorrhea
- Mycoplasma genitalium
- Trichomonas vaginalis
- Chlamydia trachomatis
-Mycoplasma genitalium
A complication of meningovascular neurosyphilis includes:
- Deep vein thrombosis
- Hearing loss
- Stroke
- Dizziness
-Stroke
Seroprevalence of herpes simplex virus:
- Reflects immunity to the herpes simplex virus
- Is only present during active disease
- Has no correlation to socioeconomic status, race, or culture
- Does not reflect the probability of disease recurrence
-Does not reflect the probability of disease recurrence
Which type of syphilis results from inflammation of large arteries in the brain and spinal cord 5 to 10 years after infection?
- Asymptomatic
- Parenchymatous
- Meningovascular
- Tabes dorsalis
-Meningovascular
Which one of the following is NOT a vector of body lice?
- Epidemic typhus
- Trench fever
- Relapsing fever
- Borrelia miyamotoi
-Borrelia miyamotoi
During the physical assessment of a 22-year-old man, an NP identifies cutaneous ulcerations on the left lateral aspect of the mouth. The patient states that he has experienced these lesions before. The NP diagnosis:
- Herpes simplex virus 1
- Herpes simplex virus 2
- Folliculitis secondary to shaving
- Erythema migrans
-Herpes simplex virus 1
HIV destroys the immune system by:
- Using the DNA of CD4+ cells to replicate itself
- Increasing T lymphocytes in the body
- Decreasing macrophages that destroy antigens
- Using RNA to carry genetic mutation information
-Using the DNA of CD4+ cells to replicate itself
Pelvic inflammatory disease is most commonly associated with:
- Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae
- Escherichia coli and Streptococcus aureus
- Haemophilus influenzae and Mycoplasma hominis
- Trochomonas vaginalis and Candida albicans
-Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Which of the following sexually transmitted diseases increases the risk of HIV transmission?
- Chancroid
- Gonorrhea
- Primary syphilis
- Trichomoniasis
-Chancroid
Transmission of herpes simplex virus 1 (HSV-1) is unlikely to be spread via:
- Kissing
- Oral sex
- Vaginal intercourse
- Contaminated surfaces
-Contaminated surfaces
Which one of the following is NOT a reason that bacteria in the lower genital tract cause pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)?
- Variations in immune response
- Estrogen levels affecting cervical mucus
- Bacterial load of potential pathogens
- Barrier protection of the dynamic vaginal ecosystem
-Barrier protection of the dynamic vaginal ecosystem
Which of the following is a sexually transmitted disease caused by a gram-negative intracellular aerobic diplococcus and results in purulent inflammation of the mucous membranes?
- Neisseria gonorrhea
- Chlamydia trachomatis
- Gardnerella vaginalis
- Mycoplasma genitalium
-Neisseria gonorrhea
Which one of the following describes the genetic makeup of HIV?
- Double-stranded
- Negative-sense RNA
- Monoploid
- Retrovirus
-Retrovirus
A 30-year-old woman presents with adnexal and cervical motion tenderness. This suggests a need to test for:
- Candidal vulvovaginitis
- Bacterial vaginosis
- Polycystic ovarian syndrome
- Chlamydia infection
-Chlamydia infection
Which vaginal organism is considered a normal finding in a healthy woman of childbearing age?
- Mobiluncus
- Gardnerella
- Lactobacillus
- Trichomoniasis
-Lactobacillus
Which one of the following is an inflammatory disorder of the gynecologic tract caused by ascent of microorganisms from the vagina and endocervix into the uterus, fallopian tubes, ovaries, and contiguous structures?
- Ectopic pregnancy
- Pelvic inflammatory disease
- Inflammatory bowel disease
- Ovarian cyst
-Pelvic inflammatory disease
Which one of the following species is diminished or absent when a patient has bacterial vaginosis?
- Gardnerella
- Prevotella
- Lactobacillus
- Mobiluncus
-Lactobacillus
Patients with latent syphilis most commonly exhibit:
- Lynphadenopathy
- Rash on the palms and the foot soles
- No symptoms
- Fever
-No symptoms
Which of the following accounts for CD4+ cell depletion in patients with HIV?
- Infection with cytotoxic T cells
- Increased reproduction of T cells
- Immune activation by lymphocytes
- Cytokine invasion of CD4+ cells
-Infection with cytotoxic T cells
Which one of the following sexually transmitted diseases is caused by a spirochete that penetrates intact skin or mucous membranes during sexual intercourse?
- Gonorrhea
- Chlamydia
- Syphilis
- Herpes
-Syphilis
Which of the following are two common aerobic etiologic agents in pelvic inflammatory disease?
- Mycoplasma genitalium and Gardnerella vaginalis
- Mycoplasma hominis and Haemophilus influenza
- Neisserria gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia trachomatis
- Streptococcus agalactiae and Mycoplasma genitalium
-Neisserria gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia trachomatis
Which organism is associated with chancroid?
- Treponema pallidum
- Haemophilus ducreyi
- Haemophilus influenza
- Herpes simplex virus
-Haemophilus ducreyi
Which of the following is a protozoal pathogen associated with urethritis?
- Mycoplasma genitalium
- Trichomonas vaginalis
- Candida albicans
- Herpes simplex virus
-Trichomonas vaginalis
Which stage of syphilis is characterized by syphilitic dermatitis?
- Primary
- Secondary
- Tertiary
- Latent
-Secondary
Syphilis that enters the bloodstream and produces widespread mucocutaneous lesions is:
- Primary syphilis
- Secondary syphilis
- Tertiary syphilis
- Neurosyphilis
-Secondary syphilis
A newborn is 1 week old. He has developed bilateral mucopurulent discharge, thickened conjunctivae, and slight eyelid swelling. The NP is concerned about:
- Viral conjunctivitis
- Chlamydial conjunctivitis
- Chemical exposure
- Blocked tear duct
-Chlamydial conjunctivitis
Which type of lice are present in pubic infestation?
- Pediculus hmanus var capitis
- Pediculus humanus var corporis
- Phthirus pubis
- Sarcoptes scabiei
-Phthirus pubis
Which one of the following is NOT a stage of gonococcal infection?
- Systemic dissemination
- Local inflammatory response
- Local proliferation
- Parietal cell surface attachment
-Parietal cell surface attachment
During a pelvic examination, the NP observes petechiae on the cervix and suspects:
- Bacterial vaginosis
- Chlamydia
- Gonorrhea
- Trichomoniasis
-Trichomoniasis
In men, primary syphilis presents as a:
- Rash
- Chancre
- Herpes sore
- Pustule
-Chancre
Which statement about morbidity and mortality related to herpes simplex virus is NOT correct?
- Mortality associated with herpes simplex infection may be related to perinatal infection
- Encephalitis has been associated with mortality secondary to herpes simplex virus
- An immunocompromised host is more likely to have increased mortality
- Pain and discomfort are the most significant issues; mortality is not a concern
-Pain and discomfort are the most significant issues; mortality is not a concern
After initial infection, parenchymatous neurosyphilis may develop over a period of:
- 2 years
- 5 years
- 10 years
- 15 years
-15 years
Untreated chlamydial infection in pregnancy can cause which of the following in a newborn?
- Sudden death
- Conjunctivitis
- Thrush
- Osteomalacia
-Conjunctivitis
Which of the following is responsible for epidemic typhus?
- Pediculus humanus corporis
- Sarcoptes scabiei
- Phthirus pubis
- Ixodoidea
-Pediculus humanus corporis
Which of the following is NOT likely a complication of pelvic inflammatory disease?
- Ectopic pregnancy
- Infertility
- Chronic pelvic pain
- Amenorrhea
-Amenorrhea
Which of the following bacteria are responsible for the development of a chancroid?
- Haemophilus ducreyi
- Chlamydia trachomatis
- Mycoplasma genitalium
- Herpes simplex virus
-Haemophilus ducreyi
A 75-year-old patient is experiencing progressive confusion and memory deterioration. Which of the following conditions that mimic dementia would be appropriate to test for?
- Urinary tract infection
- Neurosyphilis
- Ischemic stroke
- Parkinson’s disease
-Neurosyphilis
Which one of the following statements about HIV is NOT correct?
- HIV is a bloodborne virus
- HIV is a sexually transmissible infection
- HIV cannot be transmitted during breastfeeding
- Shared intravenous drug paraphernalia can cause transmission of HIV
-HIV cannot be transmitted during breastfeeding
During which of the following life stages is pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) most common?
- Prepuberty
- Adolescence
- Perimenopause
- Postmenopause
-Adolescence
Which term best describes Chlamydia trachomatis?
- Gram-negative anaerobic bacteria
- Gram-positive anaerobic bacteria
- Gram-negative aerobic bacteria
- Gram positive aerobic bacteria
-Gram-negative aerobic bacteria
Which one of the following is sexually transmitted?
- Pediculus humanus var capitis
- Pediculus humanus var corporis
- Phthirus pubis
- Sarcoptes scabiei
-Phthirus pubis
HPV vaccination does NOT prevent HPV infection in the:
- Cervix
- Ovaries
- Vagina
- Vulva
-Ovaries
Which problem is NOT secondary to a serotype of Chlamydia?
- Genital ulcerations
- Ocular disease
- Infantile pneumonia
- Osteomalacia
-Osteomalacia
Which of the following diseases is associated with Treponema pallidium?
- Granuloma inguinale
- Chancroid
- Syphilis
- Lymphogranuloma venereum
-Syphilis
Which statement about herpes simplex virus (HSV) is correct?
- HSV-2 causes HPV
- HSV-1 causes shingles
- HSV-1 causes cold sores
- HSV-2 causes chickenpox
-HSV-1 causes cold sores
Which of the following is a predisposing factor for the alteration of normal nicroflora in postmenopausal women?
- Increased progestin
- Decreased progestin
- Increased estrogen
- Decreased estrogen
-Decreased estrogen
Which stage of gonococcal infection transmission involves bacteria attachment to epithelial cells by means of N-methyl phenylalanine?
- First
- Second
- Third
- Fourth
-First
HIV produces cellular immunity deficiency by depleting:
- Macrophages
- T lymphocytes
- Lymphocytes
- Monocytes
-T lymphocytes
Which one of the following is a gram-negative, intracellular, aerobic diplococcus sexually transmitted disease in men?
- Syphilis
- Gonorrhea
- Chlamydia
- HIV
-Gonorrhea
Which one of the following is caused by a single-celled flagellated protozoan and primarily infects the squamous epithelium in the urogenital tract?
- Gonorrhea
- Chlamydia
- Trichomoniasis
- Vaginal candidiasis
-Trichomoniasis
Which one of the following facilitates bacterial overgrowth in a patient who has bacterial vaginosis?
- Alkalization within the vagina
- Acidity within the vagina
- Increased progestin concentration
- Increased estrogen concentration
-Alkalization within the vagina
Which one of the following is NOT an area of the body infected by Trichomonas vaginalis?
- The vagina
- The cervix
- The bartholin glands
- The ovaries
-The ovaries
The type of hernia in which the hernial sac protrudes directly through the abdominal wall in the region of hesselbach triangle is called a(n):
- Inguinal hernia
- Umbilical hernia
- Femoral hernia
- Spigelian hernia
-Inguinal hernia
An incarcerated hernia in which blood supply to the entrapped bowel has been diminished is referred to as:
- Reducible
- Direct
- Indirect
- Strangulated
-Strangulated
Which of the following is a diffuse hepatic process characterized by fibrosis and conversion of the normal liver tissues into structurally abnormal nodules?
- Hepatitis
- Liver cancer
- Liver cysts
- Cirrhosis
-Cirrhosis
Inflammation of the pear-shaped, muscular sac that stores bile is called:
- Appendicitis
- Cholecystitis
- Pancreatitis
- Peptic ulcer disease
-Cholecystitis
Diarrhea is caused by an incomplete absorption of water from the:
- Stomach
- Jejunum
- Ileum
- Large intestine
-Large intestine
Which mechanism is NOT associated with the development of jaundice?
- Excessive production of bilirubin
- Increased hepatocyte uptake
- Decreased hepatocellular excretion
- Impaired bile flow
-Increased hepatocyte uptake
In evaluating a patient with nausea, the differential diagnosis that would include a central nervous system cause is:
- Biliary obstruction
- Vertigo
- Viral gastroenteritis
- Gastroesophageal reflux
-Vertigo
Factors that lead to reflux do NOT include:
- Cigarette smoking
- Obesity
- Hiatal hernia
- Constipation
-Constipation
Mechanical and chemical receptors in the GI tract that trigger nausea are communicated to the brain primarily by the:
- Vestibulocochlear nerve
- Trigeminal nerve
- Vagal nerve
- Hypoglossal nerve
-Vagal nerve
The most common cause of constipation originating outside the colon is a deficiency in:
- Fiber
- Calcium
- Protein
- Zinc
-Fiber
The most common cause of bilirubin overproduction, resulting in jaundice, is:
- Hemolytic anemia
- Cirrhosis
- Increased erythrocyte production
- Cholelithiasis
-Hemolytic anemia
One of the many sequelae associated with cirrhosis is hepatic encephalopathy. It is caused by the inability of the liver to:
- Detoxify ammonia
- Synthesize glycogen
- Produce bile
- Break down insulin
-Detoxify ammonia
The most common cause of infectious esophagitis is:
- Helicobacter pylori
- Staphylococcus aureus
- Herpes simplex virus
- Candida
-Candida
The most common site for diverticulosis to occur is the:
- Jejunum
- Small intestine
- Sigmoid colon
- Ileum
-Sigmoid colon
A 46-year-old construction worker seeks evaluation of a protruding mass he noticed after lifting a heavy rock. He is now experiencing pain with coughing. The history and symptoms are suspicious for:
- Femoral hernia
- Inguinal hernia
- Umbilical hernia
- Hiatal hernia
-Inguinal hernia
Hemolytic disease of the newborn may lead to accumulation of unconjugated bilirubin in the brain, which can cause kernicterus. A characteristic of unconjugated bilirubin is that it:
- Is not soluble in water
- Is soluble in water
- Increases bile production
- Is lipid soluble
-Is not soluble in water
A complication NOT commonly associated with Chron’s disease is:
- Anal fistulas
- Intestinal obstruction
- Vitamin B12 deficiency
- Peritonitis
-Peritonitis
Which of the following is associated with the development of conjugated hyperbilirubinemia?
- Excessive production of bilirubin
- Reduced hepatocyte uptake
- Impaired conjugation of bilirubin
- Impaired bile flow
-Impaired bile flow
Diverticulosis is common where diets are low in:
- Fat
- Fiber
- Protein
- Carbohydrates
-Fiber
Which type of hernia involves a bulging of the stomach through the diaphragm and into the chest?
- Inguinal hernia
- Umbilical hernia
- Hiatal hernia
- Epigastric hernia
-Hiatal hernia
A 50-year-old man is being evaluated for complaints of an umbilical mass that cannot be reduced by manipulation. The nurse practitioner suspects:
- Incarcerated hernia
- Colon cancer
- Abdominal aortic aneurysm
- Cholecystitis
-Incarcerated hernia
The backflow of gastric or duodenal contents into the esophagus is known as:
- Gastroesophageal reflux
- Cholelithiasis
- Esophageal spasm
- Peptic ulcer disease
-Gastroesophageal reflux
Five neurotransmitter sites are important in the vomiting reflex. The neurotransmitter NOT associated with vomiting reflex are:
- Dopamine
- Serotonin
- Histamine
- Glutamine
-Glutamine
A cluster of vascular tissue, smooth muscle, and connective tissue lining the anal canal is known as:
- Condyloma acuminatum
- Rectal prolapse
- Hemorrhoids
- Proctitis
-Hemorrhoids
Hepatic steatosis develops as a result of:
- Hepatocyte swelling and necrosis
- The accumulation of neutrophils around hepatocytes
- Diffuse nodularity and fibrosis of hepatocytes
- Accumulation of lipid droplets in hepatocytes
-Accumulation of lipid droplets in hepatocytes
Gastrointestinal infections with helicobacter infection cause:
- A decreased production of gastric acid
- An increased production of gastric acid
- A decrease in the pH of gastric acid
- An increase in the pH of gastric acid
-A decreased production of gastric acid
The pancreatic enzymes amylase and lipase are inactivated when the pH is below:
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
-5
Extraintestinal manifestations of Chron’s disease include:
- Heart failure
- Pedal edema
- Cholelithiasis
- Splenomegaly
-Cholelithiasis
Acute inflammation and autodigestion in the pancreas lead to an elevation in:
- Liver enzymes and metabolic markers
- Amylase and lipase levels
- Alanine aminotransferase and aspartate aminotransferase
- Lactate and blood glucose
-Amylase and lipase levels
Which one of the following is NOT an enzyme produced in the pancreas?
- Amylase
- Protease
- Lipase
- Pepsin
-Pepsin
A hiatal hernia occurs when a defect in the diaphragm permits protrusion of the:
- Transverse colon
- Esophagus
- Stomach
- Small intestine
-Stomach
Which statement about Chron’s disease is true?
- Chron’s disease affects the mucosal layer of the intestine only
- Granuloma development is not associated with Chron’s disease
- Chron’s disease only affects the entire small intestine
- Chron’s disease is characterized by mucosal ulceration and inflammation anywhere along the gastrointestinal tract
-Chron’s disease is characterized by mucosal ulceration and inflammation anywhere along the gastrointestinal tract
A patient with early satiety, small volume emesis, and bloating is most likely experiencing:
- Gastroenteritis
- Gastroparesis
- Constipation
- Reflux
-Gastroparesis
Normal function of the pancreas does NOT include the ability to:
- Produce digestive enzymes
- Decrease the serum concentration of fatty acids
- Neutralize gastric acid in the duodenum
- Produce insulin
-Decrease the serum concentration of fatty acids
Macular degeneration causes a loss of:
- Peripheral vision
- Total vision
- Night vision
- Central vision
-Central vision
The most common fungal pathogen associated with otitis externa is:
- Histoplasma
- Aspergillus
- Cryptococcus
- Pneumocystitis
-Aspergillus
A group of disorders characterized by elevated intraocular pressure is:
- Glaucoma
- Conjunctivitis
- Uveitis
- Keratitis
-Glaucoma
Which one of the following is the eye condition in which objects in close proximity are clear and objects in the distance are blurry?
- Hyperopia
- Astigmatism
- Myopia
- Presbyopia
-Myopia
Which form of glaucoma is characterized by a slow rise in intraocular pressure?
- Congenital
- Open-angle
- Angle-closure
- Partial-angle
-Open-angle
Sensorineural hearing loss is due to dysfunction of the:
- External canal
- Pinna
- Inner ear
- Cranial nerve IV
-Inner ear
Light that is focused behind the retina causes the visual disturbance known as:
- Hyperopia
- Astigmatism
- Myopia
- Presbyopia
-Hyperopia
The failure of one or both eyes to achieve normal visual acuity despite normal structural health is called:
- Myopia
- Presbyopia
- Amblyopia
- Hyperopia
-Amblyopia
The immediate symptom response in allergic conjunctivitis is due to the rupture of:
- Neutrophils
- Mast cells
- Epithelial cells
- Lymphocytes
-Mast cells
Infection of the palatine tonsils may become severe quickly because:
- They are made up of granular tissue
- They are salivary glands
- The area is composed of loose connective tissue
- A rich blood supply is present in the area
-The area is composed of loose connective tissue
The principal mediator in allergic rhinitis is:
- Cytokine
- Lysosomal enzyme
- Prostaglandin
- Histamine
-Histamine
Lymphadenopathy associated with a peritonsillar abscess will be evident in:
- Supraclavicular nodes
- Posterior cervical lymph nodes
- Submandibular lymph nodes
- Anterior cervical lymph nodes
-Anterior cervical lymph nodes
Positioned in front of the neck. Responsible for lymph fluid that drains from the back of the pharynx, throat, thyroid gland, and tonsils.
Which autoimmune disorder is characterized by dry eyes and dry mouth?
- Celiac disease
- Sjogren’s syndrome
- Lupus
- Type 1 diabetes
-Sjogren’s syndrome
An inflammation of the nasolacrimal sac that is caused by nasolacrimal duct obstruction or infection is termed:
- Conjunctivitis
- A colobomas
- Dacryocystitis
- Leukocoria
-Dacryocystitis
A factor that may affect the onset and severity of presbycusis is:
- Asian ethnicity
- Use of earphones
- Hypertension
- Pinnal damage
-Hypertension
Viral rhinitis is typically transmitted to the paranasal sinuses through:
- Nose blowing
- Sniffling
- Coughing
- Sneezing
-Nose blowing
What is the term for hemorrhage into the anterior eye chamber as a result of iris rupture?
- Hyphema
- Blepharitis
- Dacryostenosis
- Subconjunctival hemorrhage
-Hyphema
Complications of acute otitis media can include:
- Presbycusis
- Mastoiditis
- Tympanic membrane rupture
- Otitis externa
-Mastoiditis
Which of the following pathogens is the most likely cause of epiglottitis?
- Staphylococcus aureus
- Respiratory syncytial virus
- Moraxella catarrhalis
- Haemophilus influenza type b
-Haemophilus influenza type b
The process that is NOT associated with the progression of mastoiditis is:
- Hyperemia of the mucosal lining of the mastoid air cells
- Transudation and exudation of fluid within the cells
- Temporal bone reconstruction and increased septal vascularity
- Cell wall loss with coalescence into abscess cavities
-Temporal bone reconstruction and increased septal vascularity
Which of the following produces and releases leukotriene C4 and histamine into tear fluid during allergic response?
- Eosinophils
- Basophils
- Neutrophils
- Monocytes
-Eosinophils
Mastoiditis is most commonly caused by:
- Staphylococcus aureus
- Mycobacterium
- Streptococcus pneumoniae
- Pseudomonas aeruginosa
-Streptococcus pneumoniae
Fluid accumulation in the middle ear without evidence of infection is called:
- Acute otitis media
- Otitis externa
- Mastoiditis
- Otitis media with effusion
-Otitis media with effusion
Peritonsillar abscess is a complication of:
- Allergic rhinitis
- Tonsillitis
- Laryngitis
- Dental infection
-Tonsillitis
Thrush is most commonly caused by:
- Aspergillus flavus
- Candida albicans
- Cryptococcus neoformans
- Magnaporthe grisea
-Candida albicans
Which one of the following helps prevent infection by maintaining the acidic environment of the ear canal?
- Antihelix
- Acoustic meatus
- Cerumen
- Middle ear fluid
-Cerumen
Persistent overflow of tears over the lower lid margin is:
- Aqueous tear deficiency
- Epiphora
- Keratoconjunctivitis sicca
- Blepharitis
-Epiphora
Subjective tinnitus is thought to be caused by:
- Increased turbulence through the hair follicles
- Muscle spasms of the stapedius
- Abnormal neuronal activity
- Turbulent flow in blood vessels
-Abnormal neuronal activity
Which of the following vaccines protects against the pathogen that is primarily responsible for epiglottitis?
- Haemophilus influenza type B (Hib) vaccine
- Influenza vaccine
- Diptheria, tetanus, and pertussis (DTaP) vaccine
- Rotavirus (RV) vaccine
-Haemophilus influenza type B (Hib) vaccine
Epstein-Barr virus is NOT spread via:
- Kissing
- Contaminated food
- Sharing eating utensils
- Sexual contact
-Contaminated food
Normal intraocular pressure is:
- 2-5 mm Hg
- 5-10 mm Hg
- 10-23 mm Hg
- 25-40 mm Hg
- 10-23 mm Hg
The most common etiologic agent of the common cold is:
- Parainfluenza virus
- Adenovirus
- Rhinovirus
- Coronavirus
-Rhinovirus
Entropion is defined as:
- An inward turning of the lower eyelid
- An outward turning of the lower eyelid
- Drooping of the eyelid
- A retracted eyelid with a wide-eyed stare
-An inward turning of the lower eyelid
When a tooth is avulsed, a solution of amino acids and vitamins capable of inactivating enzymes that are harmful to peridontal ligament cells should be utilized. Which one of the following is the most commonly used solution?
- Hank’s balanced salt solution
- Isotonic saline
- Milk
- Saliva
-Milk
The most common cause of otitis externa is:
- Hearing aid use
- Seasonal allergies
- Swimming
- Foreign body
-Swimming
In patients who have allergic rhinitis, sneezing and itching are due to:
- Mucous gland hypoactivity
- Vasodilation
- Stimulation of sensory nerves
- Presence of drug bodies
-Stimulation of sensory nerves
The inability of ossicles to properly conduct sound in the ear is described as a(n):
- Conductive hearing loss
- Sensorineural hearing loss
- Auditory dyssynchrony
- Auditory neuropathy spectrum disorder
-Conductive hearing loss
Recurrent epistaxis in children is most often caused by:
- H. influenzae
- Platelet disorders
- Staphylococcus aureus
- Iron deficiency
-Staphylococcus aureus
The most common pathogen associated with otitis media is:
- Staphylococcus aureus
- Streptococcus pneumoniae
- Pseudomonas aeruginosa
- Escherichia coli
-Streptococcus pneumoniae
Which of the following is a cause of conductive hearing loss?
- Acoustic neuroma
- Cerumen impaction
- Toxoplasmosis
- Meniere’s disease
-Cerumen impaction
An acute inflammation in the supraglottic region of the oropharynx is most likely:
- Tonsillitis
- Pharyngitis
- Epiglottitis
- Peritonsillar abscess
-Epiglottitis
Herpes simplex virus (HSV) type 1 is more commonly associated with:
- Shingles
- Impetigo
- Orofacial lesions
- Genital lesions
-Orofacial lesions
Local nasal irritation that causes blood vessels to become exposed and break is likely to cause:
- Epistaxis
- Nasal congestion
- Orofacial pain
- Nausea
-Epistaxis
Which of the following symptoms is associated with the initial appearance of measurable histamines in a patient with allergic rhinitis?
- Coughing
- Fever
- Sneezing
- Nasal congestion
-Sneezing
Which one of the following processes does NOT transform sound waves into something that can be heard?
- Vibration of tympanic membranes
- Fluid vibrations in the cochlea
- Stimulation of the hair cells of the organ of Corti
- Interpretation of sound by the cochlear nerve
-Interpretation of sound by the cochlear nerve
The primary site of inoculation by rhinovirus is the:
- Nasopharyngeal sphincter
- Nasal mucosa
- Retromolar trigone
- Buccal cavity
-Nasal mucosa
Which one of the following is NOT a potential sequelae of streptococcal pharyngitis?
- Acute glomerulonephritis
- Peritonsillar abscess
- Toxic shock syndrome
- Meningitis
-Meningitis
A nontraumatic inflammation or irritation of the connective tissue of the eye is:
- Conjunctivitis
- Blepharitis
- Iritis
- Uveitis
-Conjunctivitis
Inflammation or infection of the eyelids associated with bacterial infection, dry eyes, and/or rosacea is:
- Blepharitis
- Sebaceous cell carcinoma
- Chalazion
- Hordeolum
-Blepharitis
Erythema, edema and narrowing of the diameter of the external auditory canal is most likely related to:
- Acute otitis media
- Mastoiditis
- Labrynthitis
- Otitis externa
-Otitis externa
Which one of the following statements is true about the lacrimal excretory system?
- The lacrimal excretory system does not usually become infected
- Occlusion of the lacrimal excretory system results in a chalazion
- The lacrimal excretory system collects tear film and drains it into the nasal cavity
- The lacrimal excretory system causes dacryostenosis
-The lacrimal excretory system collects tear film and drains it into the nasal cavity
The early allergic response is mediated by:
- Cytokines
- Mast cells and basophils
- Neutrophils and mononuclear cells
- Macrophages and immunoglobulin G
-Mast cells and basophils
The majority of epistaxis episodes occur in the anterior portion of the septum, which is known as:
- The superior nasal conchus
- Kiesselbach’s plexus
- The sphenoethmoidal recess
- The superior nasal meatus
-Kiesselbach’s plexus
An inflammation or infectious process in the mucous membrane of a newborn’s eye is:
- Neonatal conjunctivitis
- Dacryostenosis
- Orbital cellulitis
- Congenital glaucoma
-Neonatal conjunctivitis
An abnormal growth of squamous epithelium in the middle ear and mastoid is:
- Melanoma
- Otosclerosis
- Osteoma
- Cholesteatoma
-Cholesteatoma
Which immunoglobulin is responsible for the symptoms in a patient who has allergic rhinitis?
- IgE
- IgM
- IgE
- IgA
-IgE
A nonspherical curvature of the cornea or lens of the eye that causes light to focus at different points is called:
- Nystagmus
- Astigmatism
- Hyperopia
- Presbyopia
-Astigmatism
Transmission of rhinovirus:
- Is not possible from a contaminated object
- Is highly likely even with brief exposures to infected people
- May occur via hand-to-hand contact
- Is most likely to occur before the patient is symptomatic
-May occur via hand-to-hand contact
The inability of the brain to interpret sound that enters the ear normally is called:
- Auditory neuropathy spectrum disorder
- An acoustic neuroma
- Sensorineural hearing loss
- Conductive hearing loss
-Auditory neuropathy spectrum disorder
Hearing loss that occurs due to the tympanic membrane’s inability to vibrate in response to sound is known as:
- Sensorineural hearing loss
- Conductive hearing loss
- Auditory dyssynchrony
- Auditory neuropathy spectrum disorder
-Sensorineural hearing loss
A nonmalignant synovial swelling of the popliteal fossa resulting from distention of the gastrocnemial-semimebranous bursa is:
- A Baker’s cyst
- A lipoma
- A hematoma
- A xanthoma
-A Baker’s cyst
A 54-year-old woman reports left wrist stiffness at rest and with movement. An X-ray of the left wrist identifies joint space narrowing, bony erosion in the joint, and reduced bone density surrounding the joint. What is the probable diagnosis?
- Bursitis
- Osteoarthritis
- Systemic lupus
- Rheumatoid arthritis
-Rheumatoid arthritis
Osteomalacia is caused by a deficiency in:
- Iron
- Vitamin D
- Phosphate
- Vitamin C
-Vitamin D
Which of the following is a physical assessment test to assist in the diagnosis of Legg-Calve-Perthes disease?
- Ortolani’s sign
- Ely’s test
- Lachman test
- Trendelenburg sign
-Trendelenburg sign
The principal cellular mediators of inflammation are:
- Monocytes
- Leukocytes
- Eosinophils
- Neutrophils
-Leukocytes
Which one of the following is NOT an underlying neuromuscular disorder that causes developmental dysplasia of the hip?
- Cerebral palsy
- Myasthenia gravis
- Myelodysplasia
- Arthrogryposis multiplex congenita
-Myasthenia gravis
The pathologic hallmark of juvenile rheumatoid arthritis is:
- Inflamed synovial tissue
- Osteophyte development
- Subchondral sclerosis
- Popliteal cyst rupture
-Inflamed synovial tissue
Finkelstein maneuver is a test to assist in the diagnosis of:
- Carpal tunnel syndrome
- Epicondylitis
- DeQuervain’s tenosynovitis
- Bursitis
-DeQuervain’s tenosynovitis
At what age is maximal bone mass attained?
- 20 years
- 30 years
- 40 years
- 50 years
-30 years
Which one of the following is associated with slipped capital femoral epiphysis in a pediatric patient?
- Osteoporosis
- Osteoarthritis
- Osteonecrosis
- Osteopenia
-Osteonecrosis
The pediatric orthopedic condition best described as osteonecrosis of the capital femoral epiphysis due to interrupted vascular supply that results in ischemia and alteration in cartilage growth is:
- Toxic synovitis
- Legg-Calve-Perthes disease
- Spondyloepiphyseal dysplasia
- Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis
-Legg-Calve-Perthes disease
The orthopedic finding of metatarsalgia and callus formation in the plantar area of the MTP joint is called:
- Phalangeal exostosis
- Bursitis
- Hammer toe deformity
- Arthritis
-Hammer toe deformity
The condition characterized by low bone density and deterioration of bone tissue is:
- Osteoporosis
- Osteosclerosis
- Osteoarthritis
- Osteosarcoma
-Osteoporosis
Displacement of the femoral head that produces instability of the growth plate is called:
- Slipped capital femoral epiphysis
- Osgood-Schlatter disease
- Legg-Calve-Perthes disease
- Patellofemoral stress syndrome
-Slipped capital femoral epiphysis
Which risk factor is commonly associated with the trigger of a gouty attack?
- Smoking
- Hyperlipidemia
- Alcohol use
- Sedentary lifestyle
-Alcohol use
In which condition does the femoral head partially displace during a pediatric physical assessment?
- Dislocated hip
- Subluxable hip
- Acetabular dysplasia
- Bursitis of the hip
-Subluxable hip
Progressive destruction of the articular cartilage and subchondral bone causing joint pain is:
- Rheumatoid arthritis
- Tendonitis
- Pseudogout
- Osteoarthritis
-Osteoarthritis
Anterior dislocation of the hip is called:
- Teratologic dislocation
- Dislocatable hip
- Subluxable hip
- Acetabular dislocation
-Teratologic dislocation
A pathologic alteration in the musculotendinous origins of the extensor carpi radialis brevis muscle and longus tendons as a result of overuse is:
- Lateral epicondylitis
- Synovitis of the elbow
- Cubital tunnel syndrome
- Bursitis
-Lateral epicondylitis
Which of the following is NOT a result of nerve compression associated with carpal tunnel syndrome?
- Disorders of the intraneural microcirculation
- Lesions of the myelin sheath and axon
- Osteomalacia of the surrounding bones
- Alteration in supporting connective tissue
-Osteomalacia of the surrounding bones
A 50-year-old woman reports morning joint stiffness that lasts less than 1 hour and resumes after activity. During physical examination, the NP detects crepitus. This symptom indicates:
- Rheumatoid arthritis
- Bursitis
- Tendonitis
- Osteoarthritis
-Osteoarthritis
A congenital deformity of the foot that causes plantar flexion is:
- Metatarsus adductus
- Talipes equinovarus
- Stress fracture
- Plantar fascitis
-Talipes equinovarus
Which one of the following conditions is the entrapment neuropathy that causes mechanical compression and local ischemia damage to the median nerve?
- Carpal tunnel syndrome
- Cervical radiculopathy
- De Quervain’s tenosynovitis
- Peripheral neuropathy
-Carpal tunnel syndrome
The posterior fontanelle of the newborn:
- Is a circle-shaped junction between the two parietal bones of the skull
- Usually closes at about 4 months of age
- Closes as a result of ossification and turns to bone tissue
- Should be bulging until the first month of life
-Closes as a result of ossification and turns to bone tissue
Synovial fluid does NOT:
- Reduce the friction between articular cartilage of synovial joints during movement
- Provide nutrition to the avascular articular cartilage
- Regenerate bone epiphyses
- Aid in shock absorption
-Regenerate bone epiphyses
The agents responsible for bone resorption in the process of bone remodeling are:
- Myeloid stem cells
- Mesenchymal cells
- Osteoclasts
- Osteoblasts
-Osteoclasts
Which orthopedic condition produces joint pain and inflammation due to deposition of monosodium urate crystals into joints?
- Rheumatoid arthritis
- Gout
- Septic joint
- Cellulitis
-Gout
Stabilizing the pelvis with one hand and adducting the opposite hip by applying a posterior force is known as:
- Galeazzi’s sign
- Ortolani’s sign
- Barlow’s maneuver
- McMurray’s sign
-Barlow’s maneuver
The most common site of curvature in a patient with scoliosis is:
- The left cervical spine
- The right lumbar spine
- The left lumbar spine
- The right thoracic spine
-The right thoracic spine
The bone that is most frequently fractured at birth is the:
- Femur
- Clavicle
- Coccyx
- Ulna
-Clavicle
An X-ray of the right knee in a 10-year-old boy reporting right knee pain shows calcified thickening and heterotopic ossification of the tibial tuberosity and soft tissue swelling. What is the diagnosis?
- Patellofemoral syndrome
- Osgood-Schlatter disease
- Neoplasm of the tibia
- Bursitis of the tibial plateau
-Osgood-Schlatter disease
Rickets is a disorder caused by:
- Inadequate vitamin D
- Inadequate calcium
- Inadequate phosphate
- Inadequate sodium
-Inadequate vitamin D
Which of the following substances may be associated with the production of crystals in the joints of a patient with gout?
- Uric acid
- Calcium
- Ammonia
- Sodium
-Uric acid
Osteoporosis prevention involves a recommended intake of:
- Progestin and vitamin D
- Calcium and vitamin D
- Magnesium and calcium
- Estrogen and progestin
-Calcium and vitamin D
The skeletal disorder characterized by loss of total bone mass and increased bone fragility is termed:
- Rickets
- Osteomalacia
- Osteopenia
- Osteoporosis
-Osteoporosis
In the case of septic arthritis secondary to septicemia, bacteria initially deposit in the:
- Bone
- Synovial membrane
- Cartilage
- Skin
-Synovial membrane
The major clinical manifestation of rheumatoid arthritis is:
- Joint swelling
- Deep tendon hyporeflexia
- Decreased range of motion
- Ecchymosis in the affected side
-Joint swelling
Which orthopedic condition is described as an abnormality of the epiphyseal ossification of the tibial tubercle?
- Patellofemoral syndrome
- Neoplasm of the tibia
- Osgood-Schlatter disease
- Avulsion of the tibial tubercle
-Osgood-Schlatter disease
Which one of the following diseases is associated with neuromuscular scoliosis?
- Fibromyalgia
- Spinal stenosis
- Cerebral palsy
- Multiple sclerosis
-Cerebral palsy
A lateral deviation of the spinal column that may cause rotation or deformity in the vertebrae is termed:
- Scoliosis
- Osteoporosis
- Legg Calve Perthes disease
- Osgood Schlatter disease
-Scoliosis
The most common cause of a septic arthritis is:
- Staphylococcus aureus
- Klebsiella pneumoniae
- Group A Streptococcus
- Corynebacterium
-Staphylococcus aureus
Which of the following symptoms would be a clinical manifestation noted during the tertiary stage of syphilis?
a. A single painless lesion, chancre, on the genital area
b. Absence of symptoms
c. Rash marked by red or reddish-brown, penny-sized lesions over the palms and soles
d. Poor muscle coordination
d. Poor muscle coordination
* APEA QUIZ BANK -STI
Which stage of syphilis includes findings of a symmetrical, reddish-pink, non-itchy rash on the trunk and extremities, including the palms and soles of the feet?
a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Latent
d. Tertiary
b. Secondary
* APEA QUIZ BANK -STI
Which type of virus causes oral and genital lesions through sexual contact?
a. Chancroid
b. Herpes simplex virus (HV-1)
c. Herpes zoster
d. Syphilis
b. Herpes simplex virus (HV-1)
* APEA QUIZ BANK -STI
Which sexually transmitted disease (STD) is caused by infection with a protozoan parasite?
a. Chlamydia
b. Genital herpes
c. Trichomoniasis
d. Syphilis
c. Trichomoniasis
* APEA QUIZ BANK -STI
Which stage of syphilis is described as having serologic proof of infection without symptoms of disease?
a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Latent
d. Tertiary
c. Latent
* APEA QUIZ BANK -STI
A chancre is defined as a:
a. group of small scattered vesicles
b. painless ulceration
c. papule of many shapes
d. non-tender penile indurated nodule
b. painless ulceration
* APEA QUIZ BANK -STI
Which gynecological assessment finding includes a fish-like odor with white vaginal discharge on physical presentation and clue cells on microscopic exam?
a. Chlamydia
b. Gonorrhea
c. Trichomoniasis
d. Bacterial vaginosis (BV)
d. Bacterial vaginosis (BV)
* APEA QUIZ BANK -STI
Which sexually transmitted disease (STD) in men causes a yellowish discharge from the penis, accompanied by itching and burning?
a. Chlamydia
b. Gonorrhea
c. Trichomoniasis
d. Syphilis
b. Gonorrhea
* APEA QUIZ BANK -STI
Which sexually transmitted disease (STD) can lead to serious neurological conditions if left untreated?
a. Chlamydia
b. Gonorrhea
c. Trichomoniasis
d. Syphilis
d. Syphilis
* APEA QUIZ BANK -STI
What is the most commonly reported sexually transmitted disease (STD) in the United States?
a. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
b. Syphilis
c. Chlamydia
d. Gonorrhea
c. Chlamydia
* APEA QUIZ BANK -STI
Which of the following is NOT considered a sexually transmitted disease (STD)?
a. Chlamydia
b. Gonorrhea
c. Trichomoniasis
d. Bacterial vaginosis (BV)
d. Bacterial vaginosis (BV)
* APEA QUIZ BANK -STI
Which is NOT a type of diagnostic test for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)?
a. Antibody test
b. Combination antibody and antigen test
c. Cluster of differentiation 4 (CD4)
d. Nucleic acid tests (NATs)
c. Cluster of differentiation 4 (CD4)
* APEA QUIZ BANK -STI
Which sexually transmitted disease (STD) is known as a ‘silent’ infection and often lacks abnormal physical examination findings?
a. Syphilis
b. Chlamydia
c. Trichomoniasis
d. Bacterial vaginosis
b. Chlamydia
* APEA QUIZ BANK -STI
Hairy leukoplakia may be associated with:
a. Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)
b. Addison’s disease
c. Cushing’s disease
d. Diabetes
a. Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)
* APEA QUIZ BANK -STI
What is the sexually transmitted disease (STD) caused by infection with Haemophilus ducreyi and characterized by painful necrotizing genital ulcers?
a. Herpes simplex virus
b. Chancroid
c. Syphilis
d. Herpes zoster
b. Chancroid
* APEA QUIZ BANK -STI
When examining the external genitalia of a female patient, excoriations and itchy, small, red maculopapulares were noted. These lesions may be suggestive of:
a. Genital herpes
b. Pediculosis pubis
c. Chlamydia trachomatis
d. Genital warts
b. Pediculosis pubis
* APEA QUIZ BANK -STI
What type of cells are found on the wet mount slide of a patient with bacterial vaginosis (BV)?
a. Lactobacilli
b. Yeast cells
c. Clue cells
d. White blood cells
c. Clue cells
* APEA QUIZ BANK -STI
What cluster of differentiation 4 (CD4) lab result suggests that a patient with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) has developed acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)?
a. 150 cells/mm3
b. 300 cells/mm3
c. 500 cells/mm3
d. 650 cells/mm3
a. 150 cells/mm3
* APEA QUIZ BANK -STI
What is the gold standard method for diagnosing bacterial vaginosis (BV)?
a. Bimanual examination
b. Urine culture
c. Gram stain
d. Rectal examination
c. Gram stain
* APEA QUIZ BANK -STI
Which genital infection can cause cervicitis, pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), tubal factor infertility, and ectopic pregnancy in women if untreated?
a. Chlamydia
b. Syphilis
c. Trichomoniasis
d. Bacterial vaginosis (BV)
a. Chlamydia
* APEA QUIZ BANK -STI
Which of the following signs and symptoms are consistent with genital warts?
a. Pain or itching in the genital area and the presence of small, red papules or vesicles
b. Small, flesh-colored or grey lesions and itching in the genital area
c. Presence of vaginal or penile discharge
d. Painful bowel movements, anal itching, and painful or swollen testicles or abnormal menstrual bleeding.
b. Small, flesh-colored or grey lesions and itching in the genital area
* APEA QUIZ BANK -STI
