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Pathology Semester 1 > Pathology Semester 2 > Flashcards

Pathology Semester 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What does VITAMIN D stand for?

A

Vascular, Inflammatory, Trauma, Autoimmune, Metabolic and hormonal, Idiopathic, Neoplastic, Developmental and Degenerative

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2
Q

What are the layers in skin histologically?

A

Basal lamina and basal layer of cells. Melanocytes in epidermis. Stratum spinosum with Langerhans cells, stratum granulosum at top with superficial keratin. Superficial and deep dermis, then hypodermis.

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3
Q

2 glands associated with hair follicle?

A

sebaceous and apocrine

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4
Q

3 phases of hair growth?

A

Anagen and catagen and telogen

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5
Q

acantholysis v acanthosis

A

loss of keratinocyte adhesion, increase in thickness of stratum spinosum

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6
Q

ballooning degeneration

A

intracellular oedema

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7
Q

bullae

A

collection of fluid

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8
Q

folliculitis v furunculosis

A

inflm of mural, luminal or perifollicular follicle. perifollicular inflammation due to hair follicle rupture - a pyogranulomatous reaction

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9
Q

hyperkeratosis

A

increase in keratin thickness. can be with (para) or without (ortho) keratotic.

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10
Q

pigmentary incontinence

A

melanin granules and melanophages in dermis.

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11
Q

seborrhoea

A

increase scale formation with or without greasiness

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12
Q

spongiosis

A

epidermal intercellular oedema

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13
Q

vesicle v pustule

A

fluid filled blister <1cm. Pustule is cavity filled with inflammatory cells.

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14
Q

Vascular GROSS skin lesions

A

multifocal, target shaped, deep red colour due to infarctions

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15
Q

Vasculitis skin lesions CAUSE

A

Endotheliotropic organisms (R. rickettsia), immune complex deposition, septic emboli (E. rhusopathiae).

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16
Q

Predilection sites for vasculitis lesions

A

ears, lips, tail

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17
Q

HISTO of vasculitis skin

A

karyorrhectic cell debris and fibrinoid necrosis of vessel wall with fibrin and haemorrhage. If chronic, faded vessel outline.

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18
Q

3 types of vasculitis

A

neutrophilic, lymphoplasmacytic, eosinophilic

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19
Q

Types of superficial bacterial pyoderma?

A

impetigo, exudative epidermitis, dermatophilosis

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20
Q

impetigo synonym, severity and gross

A

superficial pustular dermatitis, least severity, erythematous papule (pustules)

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21
Q

exudative epidermitis synonym, organism, patho

A

greasy pig, S. hyicus, exotoxin cleaves btw stratum corneum and granulosum.

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22
Q

dermatophilosis synonym, organism

A

rain scald, D. congolensis, continuous invasion, inflammation and regeneration

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23
Q

Deep pyoderma organisms

A

staph spp, strept spp, corynebacterium spp, pseudomonas spp

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24
Q

Deep pyoderma GROSS

A

papules and pustules, crusts and coalescing ulcers with alopecia. dark red nodules with fistulae. lymphadenopathy, fever and epidermal acanthosis.

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25
Q

deep pyoderma HISTO

A

neutrophilic folliculitis and furunculosis

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26
Q

Abscess and cellulitis GROSS

A

focal, non-specific suppurative inflammation of deep dermis, assoc with fever and LNadenopathy. can progress to necrotising fasciitis

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27
Q

Abscess and cellulitis HISTO

A

circumscribed core of necrotic material and degenerative Np with granulation tissue. Cellulitis poorly circumscribed extensive suppurative or pyogranulomatous inflammation with oedema, haemorrhages and thrombosis

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28
Q

Cutaneous bacterial granulomas organisms and type of inflm

A

Actinomyces and Nocardia spp also Mycobacterium bovis and tuberculosis - pyogranulomatous dermatitis and panniculitis

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29
Q

Gross of cutaneous bacterial granulomas

A

fibrotic and ulcerative nodules with draining fistulae

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30
Q

3 viral family causes of inflammatory dermatitis - diff btw the inclusion bodies?

A

pox and herpes and papilloma. Pox is intracytoplasmic, Herpes is Intranuclear. papilloma proliferative squamous disease.

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31
Q

general viral infection histo

A

spongiosis and eosinophilic cellular inclusion

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32
Q

2 pox virus skin organisms, gross

A

Orf parapoxvirus, Cowpox orthopoxvirus. cause vesicular and proliferative lesions

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33
Q

cowpox

A

felids, face and forepaws, ulcers, papules and pustules, fibrinonecrotic exudate

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34
Q

orf

A

‘CPD’ - lambs and kids. from lips, muzzle and sometimes legs. mf-to-c raised, flat, grey crusts

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35
Q

feline herpes cause and gross and histo

A

Felid herpes virus 1. nasal planum and face skin, recurring crusts and ulcers. ulcerative and necrotising dermatitis, mixed dermal infiltration

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36
Q

cutaneous fungal infections

A

Malessezia, dermatophytosis

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37
Q

WHWT skin condition common

A

M. pachydermatitis. face, ears, neck, legs. erythema, alopecia, greasiness, lichenification and hyperpigmentation. Histo parakeratotic hyperkeratosis, epidermal hyperplasia with spongiosis. yeasts in aggregates in stratum corneum.

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38
Q

dermatophytosis

A

Ringworm, Microsproum or Trichophytan. Non-pruritic. Fungi cause furunculosis and folliculitis.

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39
Q

Kerion

A

mycotic pyogranuloma

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40
Q

Histo of dermatophytosis

A

ortho and parakeratotic hyperkeratosis and acanthosis, with luminal folliculitis and furunculosis.

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41
Q

subcutaneous fungal dermatitis

A

eumycotic mycetoma (disease name). tumour-like lesion with tumefaction, fistula and grains in discharge. caused

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42
Q

eumycotic mycetoma organism and histo

A

Actinomyces spp. Focal chronic suppuration with numerous granules of fungal hyphae with prominent fibrosis

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43
Q

systemic fungal dermatitis

A

haematogenous dissemination of… Cryptococcus, Blastomyces or Coccidiodes spp

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44
Q

2 skin-affecting protozoa

A

Leishmania and Besnoitiosis

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45
Q

2 forms of leishmania

A

alopecic (Th1 response) and nodular (Th2 response)

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46
Q

GROSS leishmania

A

head, limbs and dorsal midline - nodules, alopecia, ulcers or pustules.

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47
Q

leishmania histo

A

hyperkeratotic nodular to diffuse superificial and deep granulomatous dermatitis, with variable plasma cells

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48
Q

Parasites affecting skin

A

myiasis, sarcoptic mange, demodectic mange

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49
Q

Myiasis inflm type and organisms

A

eosinophilic and lymphocytic. Cuterebra spp (rabbit, rodent, cats). Hypoderma bovis/lineatum (cattle). Lucilia calliphora (sheep).

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50
Q

Sarcoptic mange gross and histo

A

inner pinna, head neck and legs. sever acanthosis, ortho and parakeratosis, spongiosis, leukocyte exocytosis and eosinophilic pustules

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51
Q

demodectic mange gross and histo

A

alopecia, sacling and comedones (squamous form). pustules, folliculitis, furunculosis (pustular form). ears, lips, eyes and extremitis. severe suppurative folliculitis and furunculosis

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52
Q

3 types of trauma/chemical damage to skin

A

physical (hot/cold/burn), chemical, actinic (direct solar effect)

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53
Q

which cells are present after a bruise has occurred?

A

haemosiderin laden macrophages

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54
Q

name the order of haemorrhages in size

A

petechiae, purpura, ecchymosis, haematoma

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55
Q

2 broad classes of ‘immune’ disease of skin

A

autoimmune (pathological self reaction) and hypersensitivity (exaggerated reaction to foreign matter)

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56
Q

MOA for hypersensitivity reaction?

A

IgE produced in response to antigens, if linked to membrane then eosinophils release lytic granules, causes histamine release, VD, oedema.

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57
Q

Urticaria Gross, Histo and Path

A

type 1 hypersensitivity, acute. oedematous skin lesions. localised or widespread. circumscribed erythematous oedematous lesions. non-specific and variable histo.

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58
Q

Atopic dermatitis gross, histo and path

A

intense pruritus, excoriations, papules, pustules, hyperpigmentation and lichenifiction secondary to trauma to self. perivascular to interstitial lymphoplasmacytic dermatitis with oedema, eosinophils, macrophages and some epidermal hyperplasia.

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59
Q

specific regions for insect allergy? histo

A

lumbosacral. eosinophil dominated dermal perivascular to diffuse dermatitis with lymphocytes and low M*

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60
Q

3 broad classes of autoimmune skin disease?

A

phemigo-complex disease, lupus erythematosus, erythema multiforme

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61
Q

phemigo-complex classes?

A

bullous phemigus, phemigus foliaceus, phemigus vulgaris

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62
Q

bullous phemigus target?

A

BPAG1 and 2

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63
Q

phemigus foliaceus target and gross?

A

desmoglein-1. skin only, starts from periocular and nasal skin, ears neck and ventral abdomen. erythematous maculae, pustules and erosions and crusts

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64
Q

phemigus foliaceus and histo?

A

acantholytic subcorneal or intragranular pustular dermatitis

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65
Q

phemigus vulgaris target? common or not? where are lesions?

A

Desmoglein-3. most severe and rare form. lesions on mucous membrane and mucocutaneous junctions, ulcerations and vesicles.

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66
Q

phemigus vulgaris histo?

A

spongiosis, vacoulation of suprabasilar layer, vesicles and bullae above basal layer. mild dermatitis.

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67
Q

types of lupus erythematous?

A

systemic, discoid

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68
Q

sytemic lupus erythematous (SLE) gross, histo and pth

A

skin around eyes, mouth, nostrils, genitalia and perineal area aswell as many organs. B cell hyperactivity, autoantibodies against nuclear contents. histo lichenoid interface dermatitis with hydropic degeneration of basal cells and lymphohistiocytic to plasmacytic infiltrate of dermo-epithelial junction.

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69
Q

discoid lupus gross, histo and path

A

skin only, photosensitised nasal dermatitis. nasal planum, eyrthema, depigmentation, scaling, crusting, alopecia, ulcers. Histo similar to SLE but more epidermal hyperplasia, denser infiltrate of lymphocytes.

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70
Q

erythema multiforme gross histo and path

A

uncommon, type 3+4 hypersensitivity. immune complexes in vessels and basal membrane. EM minor (symmetrical bilateral target lesions), EM major (widespread mucosal leisons, necrotising and vesiculobullous skin lesions and systemic illness). histo necrotic keratinocytes and satellitosis and epidermal necrosis.

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71
Q

3 vitamin responsible dermatoses?

A

vit A, Vit E, Vit B

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72
Q

Vit A hypovitaminosis

A

squamous epithelial hyperkeratosis (follicular keratosis)

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73
Q

Vit E hypovitaminosis

A

panniculitis due to steatonecrosis (lack of antioxidant protectant)

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74
Q

Vit B hypovitaminosis

A

dry sebborhoea with alopecia

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75
Q

Skin related mineral deficiency?

A

zinc. important in pigs and ruminants for DNA/RNA repair

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76
Q

zinc skin deficiency gross and histo

A

symmetrical and bilateral on distal legs and around eyes, ears and tail. erythematous maculae, papules covered in dark thick crust. histo acanthosis and epithelial hyperplasia with parakeratotic hyperkeratosis and prominent basal cell mitotic activity

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77
Q

dermatoses related to hormonal imbalances (3)

A

cushings, hyperoestrogenism, hypothyroidism

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78
Q

cushings synonym and gross/histo for skin

A

non pruritic, calcinosis cutis often. bilateral and symmetrical hypotrichosis and alopecia of trunk. skin thin and less elastic. hyperpigmented and comedones. cutaneous atrophy with orthokeratotic hyperkeratosis and follicular keratosis

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79
Q

'’red white blue’’ disease?

A

superficial necrolytic dermatitis (hepatocutaneous syndrome)… chronic hepatic disease. alternating parakeratotic hyperkeratosis (red), spongiosis and oedema spinous layer (white), and basal layer hyperplasia (blue). Assoc with glucagonoma and liver disease

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80
Q

hepatocutaneous syndrome gross/histo

A

symmetrical and bilateral on lips, periocular skin, pinna and distal extremities. histo erythema, erosion, ulcer and crust

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81
Q

general endocrinopathy skin histo

A

follicular atrophy, orthokeratotic hyperkeratosis, follicular keratosis with lumen distension. epidermal hyperpigmentation and dermal atrophy.

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82
Q

idiopathic skin diseases (2)

A

eosinophilic diseases and eosinophilic nodular diseases

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83
Q

two classes of eosinophilic diseases?

A

feline and equine

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84
Q

feline eosinophilic diseases?

A

eosinophilic plaques, granulomas and indolent ulcer.

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85
Q

eosinophilic plaque (feline)

A

pruritic lesions of haired skin of inguinal/axillary and lateral thigh areas. diffuse and perivascular eosinophilic dermatitis with epidermal acanthosis and spongiosis

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86
Q

eosinophilic granuloma (feline)

A

raised, pink pruritic nodular lesions on both haired and oral mucosa. diffuse eosinophilic inflm with granulomas centred around degenerated collagen bundles with degenerate degranulating eosinophils (flame figures)

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87
Q

indolent ulcer

A

uni or bilateral ulcerated-plaque lesion on UPPER lip only. non painful and non pruritic

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88
Q

2 equine eosinophilic skin diseases

A

Eosinophilic granuloma and multisystemic eosinophilic epitheliotropic disease (MEED)

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89
Q

nodular eosinophilic diseases of equines? (3)

A

Collagenolytic granuloma, axillary nodular necrosis, unilateral papular dermatosis. mainly all have coagulative necrosis and eosinophilia

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90
Q

3 types of tumour of skin (broad classes)?

A

epithelial, mesenchymal, round cell

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91
Q

non-neoplastic lesion of skin

A

epidermal cyst (lamellar keratin lined by continuous squamous epithelium).

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92
Q

2 main aet assoc with epithelial tumours (skin)

A

UV and viral

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93
Q

2 broad types of epithelial tumour (skin)

A

papilloma and squamous cell carcinoma

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94
Q

papillomatosis types (2)

A

cutaneous and fibro

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95
Q

cutaneous papilloma gross and histo

A

filiform exophytic and hyperkeratotic epidermal projections with thin dermal stalks. histo solitary benign and exophytic proliferations, mature fibrovascular stalk. Koilocytes present (eccentric pyknotic nuclear and peripheral clear halo due to ballooning degeneration in keratinocytes). sometimes intranuclear inclusions.

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96
Q

fibropapillomas and assoc cause

A

plaque-like lesions with predominent dermal proliferation . aet = feline fibropapilloma and equine sarcoids)

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97
Q

idiopathic squamous papilloma (skin)

A

gross similar to squamous papilloma but no cytopathic effects, higher prev in older animals

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98
Q

squamous cell carcinoma in skin

A

locally invasive and destructive. UV-light involved and also viral papillomatosis. single expansile hyperplastic ulcerated or nodular skin lesions. mainly on head. Invasive islands/cords of neoplastic cells within dermis. Anisocytosis, anisokaryosis and high mitotic index. keratin pearls present. inflm and desmoplasia. neutrophilic pustules due to abnormal keratin formation and necrosis.

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99
Q

3 types of cutaneous adnexa tumours

A

follicular tumours, sebaceous gland tumours, ceruminous gland tumours

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100
Q

follicular tumours types

A

infundibular keratinising acanthoma, tricholemmoma, pilomatricoma, trichoepithelioma, trichoblastoma

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101
Q

3 classifications of sebacious gland tumours

A

adenoma, epithelioma, adenocarcinoma

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102
Q

ceruminous gland tumour location, species and gross

A

ulcerative, nodular, pedunculated masses with yellow cut surface in ear canal of cats mainly.

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103
Q

4 types of skin mesenchymal tumour

A

fibrous tissue, haemangiopericytoma, vascular tissue, muscle tissue

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104
Q

fibroma/fibrosarcoma

A

skin and subcutis of cats and dogs. often reoccur. solitary palpable masses, soft to firm, grey to white. poorly demarcated with central necrosis. Histo bands of fibrous tissue with high mitotic index, fibroblasts interlaced with multinucleated cells.

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105
Q

cats fibroma/fibrosarcoma

A

viral or vaccination related

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106
Q

post-vaccinal fibrosarcoma

A

locally invasive spindle cell sarcoma at injection site. time between injection and development is extremely variable. histo lymphocytic infiltration and multinucleate giant cells at periphery of neoplasia.

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107
Q

equine sarcoid

A

type of fibrous tissue tumour. locally aggressive fibroblastic skin tumour in horses. factors are bovine papilloma virus 1/2, genetic and trauma. does not metastasise but reoccur following surgery.

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108
Q

equine sarcoid gross

A

variable. verrucous to occult. biphasic tumour both epidermal and dermal component although CT is mainly proliferative tissue involved.

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109
Q

equine sarcoid histo

A

resemble fibroma/fibrosarcoma

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110
Q

haemangiopericytoma

A

common in boxer, GSD, springer spaniel. rarely ulcerative. whirling histology

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111
Q

epitheliotropic cutaneous lyphoma (mycosis fungoides)

A

pautrier’s microabscesses.

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112
Q

non-epitheliotropic cutaneous lymphoma (NECL)

A

more aggressive, systemic involvement.

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113
Q

lipoma

A

benign tumour of adipose tissue. encapsulated with fibrous tissue

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114
Q

melanoma

A

common in dark pigmented skin. occur often on face, trunk, gums, palate, lips. common metastasis site is to the mouth.

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115
Q

calcinosis cutis

A

mineralisation of dermal collagen and BM of adnexa. occurs in cushings commonly

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116
Q

calcinosis circumscripta

A

‘tumoural calcinosis’… solitary, dermal lesions of young large dogs or horses. localised bony prominences or repeated trauma. chalky white lakes stain with von kossa surrounded by inflm and fibrosis. in chronic lesions osseous or cartilagenous metaplasia can occur.

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117
Q

anopthalmia

A

absence of eye

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118
Q

micropthalmia

A

reduced size of eye

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119
Q

cyclopia

A

central eye instead of two

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120
Q

synopthalmia

A

fusion of two eyes into one

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121
Q

dermoid/choristoma

A

ectodermal skin on cornea

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122
Q

coloboma

A

failure of optic fissure to close

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123
Q

retinal dysplasia

A

imperfect retinal development

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124
Q

aphakia

A

absence of lens

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125
Q

Veratum calcifornicum assoc with what eye conditon

A

cyclopia. Day 14-15 gestation of ewe.

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126
Q

blepharitis is…

A

inflm of eyelid

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127
Q

tarsal inflammation 2 types

A

internal hordeolum (purulent) or chalazion (granulomatous)

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128
Q

lacrimal gland inflammation

A

dacryoadenitis

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129
Q

inflm of zeis/moll glands

A

external hordeolum (purulent)

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130
Q

Bacterial/Viral causes of conjunctivitis

A

IBR/FHV/Chlamydiophyla psitacci/Mycoplasma felis

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131
Q

IBR/FHV eye gross

A

serous to purulent with possible fibrin conjunctivitis

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132
Q

Mycoplasma eye gross and histo

A

pseudo-dyphteric fibrin. histo erosions and presence of coccoid bacteria

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133
Q

Chlamidyophila eye gross and histo

A

unilateral usually. Np, M* Lymphocytes and inclusion bodies

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134
Q

FHV/IBR eye condition often assoc w/

A

keratitis and upper resp disease

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135
Q

3 examples of non-infectious conjuncitivitis

A

dissication, allergy, idiopathic

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136
Q

eosinophilic conjunctivitis gross and histo

A

ulcerative marginal blepharitis. histo hyperplasia/squamous metaplasia of epithelium/eosinophils and lymphocytes

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137
Q

Parasitic conjunctivitis

A

larval Draschia megastoma, Habronema microstoma via Musca fly vector. in horses. medial canthus, ulcerative, oozing, viable larvae. Histo granulomatous inflm with eosinophils and larvae.

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138
Q

keratitis definition

A

inflm of cornea

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139
Q

non-infectious keratitis causes

A

trauma, sunlight, tear film lack

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140
Q

how can trauma cause keratitis

A

trauma -> stromal imbibition -> ulcer -> secondary bacs (streps) -> neovascularization -> restitutio ad integrum

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141
Q

pannus keratitis histo

A

lymphocytes, plasma cells, M*, granulation tissue and epithelium is intact.

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142
Q

cheratitis sicca

A

hyperplasia of corneal epithelium, squamous metaplsia of conjunctiva.

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143
Q

descemeocele

A

hernation of descemets membrane

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144
Q

anterior staphyloma

A

protrusion of uvea through ulcer

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145
Q

Infectious keratitis causes

A

FHV1, Moraxella bovis, Aspergillus, Alternaria, Penicillium

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146
Q

Mycotic keratitis common if on what treatment

A

long term AB/corticosteroids

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147
Q

FHV1/Moraxella bovis gross

A

ulcerative keratitis

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148
Q

mycotic keratitis gross

A

deep ulcerative with purulent exudate, keratomalacia

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149
Q

FHV1 keratitis histo

A

eosinophilic intranuclear inclusions

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150
Q

mycotic keratitis histo

A

fungal hyphae within corneal stroma, neurophils

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151
Q

moraxella bovis keratitis histo

A

stromal oedema and neovascularisation

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152
Q

2 diseases of the lens?

A

cataracts and lens luxation

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153
Q

how is a cataract formed?

A

imbalance between nutrition of lens and enzymatic activity, loses hydration, denatures lens fibrous proteins

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154
Q

histo of a cataract?

A

Morganian globules and ‘bladder cells’

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155
Q

lens luxation aetiology

A

tumour compression or increase in pressure

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156
Q

how does lens luxation associate with glaucoma?

A

can cause or be caused by glaucoma

157
Q

uveitis infectious agents?

A

FIP, CAV1, MCF. Cryptococcus spp, parasitic larva migrans of Toxocara canis.

158
Q

what is phacoclastic uveitis?

A

lens rupture and release of lens proteins causes inflm reaction

159
Q

FIP/CAV1/MCF path of eye

A

haematogenous spread of agent and autoimmunity

160
Q

Cryptococcus uveitis histo

A

yeasts present, soap bubble appearance of choroid/retina. pyogranulomatous reaction.

161
Q

FIP uveitis histo

A

pyogranulomatous and vasculitis

162
Q

Lens rupture histo

A

lymphocytes, plasma cells and fragments of lens

163
Q

Equine recurrent uveitis

A

immune mediated reaction to Leptospira interrogans var Pomona - overproduction of Ab causes inflammation. grossly thickening of iris, with pigmentation and change in shape.

164
Q

histo of equine recurrent uveitis

A

neutrophils (acute) followed by lymphocytes with lymph follicle formation in ciliary body. hallmark is formation of hyalinised membrane in the inner ciliary body (amyloid).

165
Q

Retinal dysplasia is common in what breeds

A

samoyed, collie, labrador

166
Q

Agent that can cause retinitis

A

toxoplasma

167
Q

glaucoma, Vit A/C/E/taurine deficiency and bracken fern toxin can all cause what eye condition?

A

retininal degeneration/atrophy

168
Q

gonodiodyegenesis

A

imperforate pectinate ligament in eye or trabecular hypoplasia (loss of trabecular network)

169
Q

uveitis and posterior sinechia can cause what condition?

A

secondary causes of glaucoma

170
Q

bupthalmia is..

A

enlargement of the globe

171
Q

2 epithelial tumours of the eye

A

meibomian gland tumour, conjunctival squamous cell carcinoma

172
Q

intraocular melanomas can develop from…

A

iris, ciliary body, choroid

173
Q

cats get what type of eye melanoma?

A

diffuse iris melanoma

174
Q

adenoma or adenocarcinoma in eye arise from…

A

non-pigmented epithelium

175
Q

feline tumour with complete bulb destruction and never metastases

A

feline primary intraocular sarcoma

176
Q

retrobulbar tumours examples

A

adenoma, fibrosarcoma, neural tumours, lymphoma

177
Q

what are the 4 conducting systems of ventricles in teh CNS?

A

lateral, third, aqueduct, fourth, lateral apertures and spinal canal

178
Q

cells originating from neuroectodermal origin? (4)

A

neurones, astrocytes, oligodendrocytes and ependymocytes

179
Q

cells originating from mesenchymal origin in CNS (3)

A

microglia, BV, cells of meninges

180
Q

Nissl substance…

A

RER of neurones,

181
Q

astrocyte role

A

BBB integrity. Uptake NTs recycling. Maintain pH and osmotic pressure.

182
Q

oligodendrocytes role

A

small cells picnotic nucleus. Interfascicular and satellite type. produce myelin within CNS. halo on histo (lipid).

183
Q

microglia

A

M* like cells. ameboid shape after activation (rod cells).

184
Q

3 layers of meninges?

A

dura mater (collagen rich), arachnoid (fine trabecules with vessels), pia mater (thin contact layer).

185
Q

spheroids

A

cross section of enlarged axons present in acute to subacute degeneration

186
Q

neuropil

A

dense unmyelinated sheaths of many axons

187
Q

why are neurones susceptible to damage?

A

highly metabolic, large span, cannot proliferate, metabolic limitations

188
Q

excitotoxicity and hypoxia of neurones causes

A

red hypoxic neurones

189
Q

oxidative stress and lack of antioxidants in neurones cases

A

chromatolytic neurones

190
Q

other effects of damage to neurones histologically?

A

apoptosis, intracytoplasmic accumulations, vacuolation, intranuclear and intracytoplasmic inclusions

191
Q

astrocyte response to damage

A

astrogliosis (+ in number) and astrocytosis (+ in size). cell swelling and cell hypertrophy (become gemistocytes, reactive astrocytes). alzheimer type 2 astrocytes, scar tissue formation…

192
Q

oligodendrocyte damage response

A

impaired myelin formation and myelin destruction phagocytosis.

193
Q

leukodistrophy

A

primary or congenital oligodendrocyte dysfunction causing abnormal myelin formation

194
Q

microglia damage response

A

neuronophagic nodules, gitter cell formation, rod cell proliferation.

195
Q

4 reasons for oedema in CNS

A

1) cytotoxic type (intracellular accumulation of fluid). 2) vasogenic type (vascular barrier injury). 3) hydrostatic type (elevated ventricular pressure). 4) hypo-osmotic type (imbalance of osmotic pressures).

196
Q

main signs of a vascular CNS lesion

A

focal/MF, malacic/haemorrhagic, acute development of lesions

197
Q

why is CNS susceptible to vascular damage

A

high metabolic rate, cannot store glycogen, occurs below 60% normal blood flow.

198
Q

penumbra

A

area of local reduced blood flow round a central core of ischaemia in CNS.

199
Q

consequences of ischaemic brain infarcts

A

pale centre with red neurones, spheroids and penumber of hyperaemia and astrocytosis. chronically would see liquefactive necrosis in centre with astrogliosis, penumbra of glial scar formation.

200
Q

inflammatory routes to brain infection

A

deposition of immunecomplexes (FIP), direct infection of endothelial cells (CSF), trojan horse (viruses), retrograde axonal transport (Listeria, Rabies, Herpes virus).

201
Q

CNS inflammatory hallmarks

A

focal (abscessation) mf or disseminate. malacic, haemorrhagic, firm (granulomatous). No clinical or diagnosit hallmark!!

202
Q

encephalitis

A

brain/encephalon inflammation

203
Q

myelitis

A

spinal cord inflammation

204
Q

polioencephalitis

A

grey matter inflammation

205
Q

polioencephalomyelitis

A

grey matter and spinal cord inflammation

206
Q

leucoencephalitis

A

white matter inflammation

207
Q

leucoencephalomyelitis

A

white matter and spine inflammation

208
Q

meningoencephalitis

A

leptomeninges and brain inflammation

209
Q

pachimeningitis

A

dura mater inflammation

210
Q

choroiditis

A

choroid plexus inflammation

211
Q

perivascular cuff

A

presentation of inflammation in Virkow-Robin Space due to inflammation

212
Q

viral CNS inflm pattern

A

non-suppurative with neuronophagic nodules

213
Q

viral CNS inflm distribution

A

selectively targeting neurons or specific sub-populations

214
Q

Rabies virus CNS inflm

A

mild, non-suppurative polioencephalomyelitis. eosinophilic round intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies (Negri bodies)

215
Q

Pseudorabies (Aujesky disease) and clinical signs

A

DNA, Suid Herpes Virus 1. Non-supp meningo-polioencephalomyelitis with glial nodules and neuronal necrosis with neuronophagia. Pruritus and head mutilation

216
Q

Swine polioencephalomyelitis (Teschen disease)

A

Picornaviridae enterovirus. Non-supp polioencephalitis with neuronal necrosis, glial nodules and neuronophagia. tropism for lower motor neurones in spinal cord. mainly piglets <10w

217
Q

Canine Distemper CNS

A

Morbillivirus, Paramyxoviridae. De-myelinating leukoencephalomyelitis. Acute gliosis and macrophages and if chronic then non-supp inflm with cavitation.

218
Q

Non-supp polioencephalitis with inclusion bodies present in which post-vaccine disease?

A

distemper

219
Q

Borna disease CNS

A

borna virus. Non-supp polioencephalomyelitis with neuronal degeneration and neuronphagia. Patomniomonic inclusion bodies but rarely seen. affect hippocampus (horse) and brainstem (cat).

220
Q

West Nile Encephalitis

A

Flaviviridae (Arbovirus group). Non-supp polioencephalomyelitis. grey matter of thoraco-lumbar spinal cord and brainstem

221
Q

Visna

A

maedi-visna virus (lentivirus, retroviridae). granulomatous leucoencephalomyelitis. Chronic lymphoplasmacytic infiltration that gives granulomatous appaearance. cavitation and malacia with choroiditis and meningitis.

222
Q

FIP CNS condition

A

feline coronavirus. Ag-AB complexes in vessel walls, immune mediated aggression, diffuse pyogranulomatous meningo-chorio-subependemitis. can cause pyogranulomatous eye lesions too.

223
Q

Louping ill

A

flavivirus from ticks. non-supp polioencephalitis with neuronal necrosis, glial nodules and neuronophagia. tropism for purkinje cells, gliosis and leptomeningitis.

224
Q

4 viral vasculitis CNS causes

A

Classical Swine Fever, Rubarth’s Disease (CAV1), Malignant Catarrhal Fever, Herpetic encephalomyelitis

225
Q

classical swine fever CNS

A

pestivirus, disseminated non-supp meningoencephalitis

226
Q

hepatitis contagiosa canis (Rubarth’s disease)

A

rubarth’s disease. canine adenovirus 1. amphophilic inclusion bodies in endothelium with mixed vasculitis and haemorrhages

227
Q

malignant catarrhal fever CNS

A

ovine herpes virus 2 + alcephaline herpes virus 1. Mononuclear necrotising vasculitis.

228
Q

Herpetic encephalomyelitis

A

equine herpes virus 1. petechial or ecchymotic haemorrhages in white and grey matter or spine. vasculitis, with thrombosis, suppurative myelitis and haemorrhages.

229
Q

general CNS bacterial infection findings

A

suppuration, tissue lysis and gliotic reaction. disseminated or focal/multifocal. with pyrexia and other organ invasion.

230
Q

thrombotic meningoencephalitis (TME/Sleeper syndrome).

A

Histophilus somni. Young cattle post-pneumonia commonly. Fibrinopurulent meningitis, multifocal haemorrhagic and necrotising encephalitis.

231
Q

Listeria monocytogenes CNS condition

A

haematogenous spread, can be from otitis media. retrograde axonal flow. MF-C microabscesses. oral cavity, cranial nerves and brainstem transmission. small leukomalcic areas.

232
Q

mycotic encephalitis examples

A

Aspergillus spp, Mucor spp, Absidia spp.

233
Q

mycotic encephalitis (yeasts)

A

Cryptococcus neoformans, Candida, Coccidiodes immitis, Blastomyces dermatididis. Necrotising nad suppurative granulomatous meningoencephalitis or myelitis. also necrotic vasculitis and thrombosis.

234
Q

3 protozoal cns infectious agents

A

Neospora, Toxoplasma, Encephalitozoonosis

235
Q

Encephalitozoonosis CNS

A

E. cuniculi (Microsporidia). Rabbits, rodents and dogs. Disseminated granulomatous encephalitis. compact epitheliod macrophages. Mf to massive dissemination throughout encephalon

236
Q

Toxoplasmosis/Neospora CNS

A

T. gondii. Coupled with myocarditis/myositis. non-supp polioencephalitis with glisois. in adult causes necrotizing an granulomatous encephalitis

237
Q

Granulomatous meningo-encephalitis (GME)

A

usually female young dogs. anti-GFAP antibodies? mf-to-c granulomatous meningoencephalitis. perivascular cuffs frequent.

238
Q

CNS Trauma injury examples

A

Hansen 1 (extrusion of disc material) and Hansen 2 (protrusion without rupture of AF).

239
Q

2 neural tube closure defects

A

cranium bifidum and spina bifida

240
Q

holoprosencephaly

A

lack of cerebral hemisphere development, agenesis of corpus callosum

241
Q

agyria, pachygyria and polymicrogyria are a result of

A

neuronal migration disorders and sulcation defects.

242
Q

cerebellar agenesis and hypoplasia result from

A

malformation of caudal fossa

243
Q

diff btw SB Occulta and SB aperta

A

occulta is covered by skin, aperta is open

244
Q

meningocele v meningomyelocele

A

fluid filled hernial sac v fluid filled hernial sac containing some neuroparenchyma

245
Q

hydrocephalus is an increase in

A

CSF volume.

246
Q

syringomelia

A

fluid filled cavity within spinal cord following rupture of ependymal covering

247
Q

syringobulbia

A

fluid filled cavity within brainstem following rupture of ependymal covering

248
Q

hydromelia

A

fluid filed cavity within spinal cord, lined by ependyma

249
Q

metabolic/toxic general path features CNS

A

symmetrical, malacia, specific cell necrosis, spongy state. progressively worsening condition affecting any age and sex.

250
Q

Polioencephalomalacia (CCN corticocerebral necrosis)

A

of cortical structures or deep nuclei. thiamin deficiency related in carnivores and sulfur intoxication. Acute = oedema, red hypoxic neurones, swollen brain. chronic = cavitation, gitter cell proliferation, glial scar formation.

251
Q

aspartate excitotoxicity commonly related with what CSN condition?

A

CCN. due to hypoglycaemia

252
Q

leukoencephalomalacia

A

equine LEM, swayback

253
Q

encephalomalacia

A

focal symmetrical encephalomalacia, oedema disease

254
Q

Carnivore thiamin deficiency CNS…

A

often food with thiaminases or chronic deficiencies

255
Q

chastek’s paralysis

A

foxes and minks, form of neuronal and axon/myelin degeneration due to thiamin deficiency

256
Q

Focal Symmetrical Encephalomalacia

A

Cl. type D in ruminants. Microvascular damage and neuronal excitotoxicity. Chronically severs symmetrical encephalomalacia. Also caused by STEC in swine.

257
Q

Equine leukoencephalomalacia (mouldy corn disease)

A

Ingestion of Fusarium moniliformis. Yellow-brown haemorrhagic malacic foci that progress to fluid-filled cavities (corona radiata). Toxin fumonisin B1 -> vascular necrosis and microthrombi -> leukomalacia -> vasogenic oedema, gitter cells and mild inflammation.

258
Q

Swayback

A

congenital copper deficiency in lambs. Present from birth. Blind/ataxic, immobile and leads to death. Ventricular distension with bilateral rarefaction of periventricular grey matter.

259
Q

Enzootic ataxia

A

post-natal dietary deficiency of copper. Bilateral symmetrical demyelination and axonal damage of spinal funiculi and motor neuron chromatolysis.

260
Q

Hepatic encephalopatbhy

A

moderate/chronic or severe/acute. provoke a toxic encephalopathy. Astrocytes overwhelmed by +NH3, metabolised glutamine, cytotoxic oedema. severe spongy state of white matter. also assoc with CKD.

261
Q

6 primary tumours of CNS

A

astrocytoma, oligodendroglioma, meningioma, choroid plexus papilloma/carcinoma, ependymoma

262
Q

astrocytoma

A

common in brachycephalics, supratentorially, white, undemarcated. Can be malignant, see neoangiogensis and necrosis.

263
Q

Oligodendroglioma

A

brachycephalic breeds common. induce angiogenesis and intratumoral haemorrhages. Well circumscribed, gelatinous. areas of necrosis, cystic appearance and honeycomb appearance on histo

264
Q

meningioma

A

lobulated, granular, white to tan. Can contain mineralised centres (Psammoma bodies).

265
Q

Choroid plexus papilloma/carcinoma

A

mainly in 4th ventricle. large, granular with rough texture. carcinomas induce haemorrhage in ventricle wall.

266
Q

ependymoma

A

arise from ependyma lining the ventricles, assoc with obstructive hydrocephalus. large well demarcated tan solid mass. on histo can get pseudorosettes.

267
Q

degeneration CNS characteristics

A

symmetrical, bilateral, with microanatomical focus. usually start at young age and become slowly progressive.

268
Q

histo degeneration of CNS

A

depletion of neuron subpopulations, intracellular accumulation of material, white matter degenerations

269
Q

5 degenerative CNS diseases

A

motor neuron disease, cerebellar cortical abiotrophy, degeneration of myelin (CNS+PNS), storage diseases, prion diseases

270
Q

motor neuron disease CNS

A

neurons die from oxidative stress (Free radical damage). Neuronal chromatolysis, neuronal depletion and gliosis.

271
Q

cerebellar cortical abiotrophy

A

familial. loss of purkinje cells first, slow progressive onset of worsening cerebellar signs. finally atrophy of cerebellar folia, transneuronal retrograde degeneration of functionally connected cells (granular cells e.g.)

272
Q

Degeneration of myelin (2)

A

leukodystrophies and myelin dysgenesis

273
Q

myelin dysgenesis (hypomyelinogenesis)

A

shaking puppy syndrome (X-linked defect of PLP protein) causing abnormal myelin and grossly diffuse grey translucent white matter.

274
Q

storage diseases CNS

A

enzymatic defects causing intracytoplasmic storage of non-degradable catabolites > neuron degeneration. classified on nature of compound accumulation.

275
Q

neuronal ceroid-lipofucsinoses… .

A

accumulation in neurons with lipofucsin followed by degeneration. Can be mitochondrially linked instead of lysosome defect.

276
Q

prion diseases (6) and their histo appearance

A

Kuru, vCJD, Scrapia, BSE, CWD, TME. Neuronal vacuolation, neuropil vacuolation, astrogliosis and NO inflammatory signs.

277
Q

terms for inflm of spinal ganglia, spinal ganglia and related nerves, nerves only

A

ganglionitis, ganglineuritis, neuritis

278
Q

Wallerian degeneration (PNS), histo

A

axonal segmental degeneration caudally to site of insult. Many spheroids, necrosis, schwann cell proliferation. not the consequence of ischaemia/trauma, caused by lack of conduction.

279
Q

Vascular PNS disease

A

ilio-aortic thromboembolism (saddle thrombus). sudden paraperesis or paraplegia with painful hard muscle lacking femoral pulse.

280
Q

acute polyneuritis/polyradiculoneuritis

A

autoimmune inflm of PNS, including ganglia. E.g. coon hound paralysis (Raccoon bites in USA). Non-supp inflm of proximal motor nerves. Transient ascending paresis/paralysis.

281
Q

cauda equina neuritis

A

pyogranulomatous inflm of cauda equina of horse. chronic and progressive with paralysis of sphincter and tail.

282
Q

neuropraxia

A

structurally intact nerve, temporary impairment, but do fully recover

283
Q

axonotmesis

A

axon damaged, basal lamina intact, can regenerate over long time depending on distance from organ.

284
Q

neurotmesis

A

entire nerve truncated, no regeneration possible

285
Q

caudal compression of cauda equina

A

assoc w/ stenosis of lumbosacral spinal canal, chronic axonal degeneration.

286
Q

dysautonomia (2 types) PNS

A

Equine dysautonomia (Equine) and Feline dysautonomia (Key-Gaskell syndrome).

287
Q

equine dysautonomia PNS and histo

A

grass sickness. can be chronic or acute. grazing animals only. Cl. botulinum type C. Histo see shortened intestinal villi, inflm and accum of mucus.

288
Q

3 forms of grass sickness histologically

A

acute (plexuses marked chromatolysis), subacute (plexuses reduced number of neurones but proliferation of non-neuronal elements), chronic (plexuses reduced severely in neurons and overcome with non-neuronal cell proliferation).

289
Q

Key-Gaskell syndrome

A

feline dysautonomia. sporadic worldwide. Possible Cl. botulinum type C involved.

290
Q

Metabolic neuropathy (4) PNS

A

Salinomycin poisoning, canine hypothyroidism, diabetic polyneuropathy, paraneoplastic neuropathy

291
Q

salinomycin poisoning PNS

A

primary axonal degeneration of both sensory and motor nerves

292
Q

canine hypothyroidism PNS

A

partially inconsistent reports of degeneration and demyelination

293
Q

diabetic polyneuropathy PNS

A

rare in dogs. plantigrade posture of hindlimbs.

294
Q

paraneoplastic neuropathy PNS

A

autoimmune inflm response, degeneration and regeneration.

295
Q

difference between lamellar and woven bone

A

woven is immature, lamellar is mature. lamellar can be compact or spongy.

296
Q

embryologically bone is dervied from

A

mesoderm, either cartilage or connective tissue

297
Q

two types of ossification

A

endochondral or intramembraneous

298
Q

zones in the endochondral growth plate

A

resting zone, proliferating zone, maturation zone, calcification zone, woven bone formation, capillary invasion…

299
Q

osteoprogenitor cells can produce which cell types

A

osteoblasts or osteoclasts.

300
Q

which cells are precursors to osteoblasts

A

peritrabecular stromal cells

301
Q

osteoid is made up of what and what is its fate?

A

90% collagen (type1) plus chondroitin and osteocalcin). after 10d, undergoes primary mineralisation, then after few months secondary mineralisation. at the beginning it is unmineralized matrix. creates the osteoid seam.

302
Q

type 1 and type 2 collagen are found mostly where

A

bone type 1, cartilage type 2.

303
Q

what is howships lacunae

A

where osteoclasts erode the bone (proteolytic enzymes and low pH).

304
Q

3 actions of peritrabecular stromal cells

A

produce EPO, progenitor cells, react to PTH, act as strain gauge and activate remodelling

305
Q

RANK-L and OPG regulate which cells?

A

RANK-L ++ osteoclats, OPG – osteoclasts

306
Q

which cells are inhibited by calcitonin and promoted by IL1 + TNFa

A

osteoclasts

307
Q

osteoblast activation occurs by? inhibition?

A

osteoclasts producing matrix bound ground substance. inhibited by PTH.

308
Q

what signs are assocaitd histo with bone injury?

A

resting and reversal lines

309
Q

sirenomelia

A

lack of hind limbs

310
Q

peromelia

A

lack of distal part of limbs

311
Q

scoliosis, lordosis, kyphosis and kyphoscoliosis

A

lateral divert, ventral divert, dorsal divert

312
Q

chondrodysplasia is a defect in which process? mainly assoc with what cause?

A

endochdonral ossification. genetic.

313
Q

3 examples of BOVINE chondrodysplasias

A

bulldog calf, telemark lethal, snorter

314
Q

bulldog calf

A

dexter/holstein. born dead w/ small limbs, short jaw and domed head. on histo lack growth plates, disorganised chondrocytes

315
Q

telemark lethal

A

telemark breed. chondrodysplasia. born alive but die soon.

316
Q

snorter

A

hereford/angus genetic chondrodyplasia. not lethal. short legs and broad head. irregular columns of hypertrophied chondrocytes on histo.

317
Q

ovine chondrodysplasia

A

arachnomyelia. fibroblast growth factor receptor 3 defect. semi-lethal. Suffolk and hampshire breeds. small ossification centres in nodules on histo. hypertrophic cartilage. assoc with fracture.

318
Q

osteogenesis imperfecta

A

defect in collagen type 1 gene. brittle bones. calcified cartilage spicules in primary spongiosa. pink teeth, joint laxity blue sclera.

319
Q

osteopetrosis/marble bone disease

A

in angus, hereford, simmental. osteoclastic resoprtion/remodelling of primary spongiosa. long bones are short and fragile. no marrow cavity, avascular metaphysis and medulla occupied by cartilage matrix. assoc anaemia.

320
Q

congenital hyperostosis

A

pigs, stimulation of extracortical bone production. stillborn or dies after birth, radius and ulna commonly. woven bone.

321
Q

craniomandiublar osteopathy/lion jaw

A

dogs, WHWT commonly. bilateral bone ankylosis and tympanic bullae filled with new bone. histo see bone formation and resorption (resting and reversal).

322
Q

hypertrophic osteopathy/marie’s disease

A

linked to neoplastic or thoracic inflm masses. changes in forelimb circulation causes increases periosteal bone production. hyperaemia and oedema on histo with fibrovascular periosteal proliferation.

323
Q

bone pigmentations

A

icterus, porphyria, melanosis, tetracycline

324
Q

Osteonecrosis

A

lack of bone blood supply, necrosis of osteoclasts, inflm reaction against dying bone. dry periosteum with tan bone. in histo see empty lacuna with pyknotic nuclei.

325
Q

Claviceps purpurea can cause what bone condition

A

osteonecrosis

326
Q

Legg-Calve Perthes Disease

A

genetic autosomal recessive. ischaemic episodes, delayed incorporation of vessels in femoral head. weight bearing leads to infarcts and necrosis. fracture, collapse of necrotic bone and femoral head.

327
Q

osteoporosis common causes. what is the pathogenesis?

A

old age, calcium deficiency, starvation, GI parasitism, inflm bowel disease, corticosteroids, disuse of bone. Happens because increase osteoclastic activity but can occur through various mechanisms.

328
Q

4 mechanisms of osteoporosis

A

starvation, parasitism (reduced calcium absorption), corticosteroids (collagen synthesis inhibition), disuse (reduced weight bearing, increase OC activity).

329
Q

gross appearance of osteoporosis and histo

A

reduced bone quantity, quality of bone is normal. on histo see smaller trabeculae with normal calcification

330
Q

Rickets and osteomalacia cause and pathogenesis and histo

A

hypovitaminosis D and hypophosphataemia. defective mineralisation at sites of bone growth or remodelling. newly formed osteoid is poor quality. on histo see tongues of cartilage extending into the metaphysis. common in chickens

331
Q

fibrous osteodystrophy causes (4) and pathogenesis

A

primary PTH secreting tumour, secondary renal hyperparathyroidism, low ca/high P diet, PTH-like secreting tumour. huge increase in PTH causes stromal cells to mass produce collagen, which cant be absorbed by OCs.

332
Q

fibrous osteodystrophy gross and histo

A

bone enlarged, fractures, floppy texture. on histo see bone resorption (OC activty) with fibrous proliferation.

333
Q

process of fracture to repair

A

haemorrhage, haematoma, proliferation of collagen, ossification or chondrification (if O2 low), remodelling or endochondral ossification.

334
Q

terms for inflm of outside of bone, of bone, of bone and marrow, of all structures of the bone

A

periosteitis, osteitis, osteomyelitis, panosteitis.

335
Q

common causes of bacterial osteomyelitis in all species. where and why do they infect?

A

Actinomycosis, tuberculosis, brucellosis, yersiniosis, salmonellosis. capillary loops due to fenestrated endothelium, lack of phagocytes and blood flow turbulence.

336
Q

bacterial osteomyelitis foal

A

e. coli, strept, salmonella, rhodococcus, klebsiella.

337
Q

bacterial osteomyelitis calf

A

actinobacterium pyogenes, salmonella.

338
Q

bacterial osteomyelitis dog/cat

A

secondary to penetration injury… staph intermedius, streps, proteus, e.coli

339
Q

coccidiodes immitis (dog) causes…

A

mycotic osteomyelitis

340
Q

viral osteomyelitis

A

distemper virus

341
Q

bovine mandibular osteomyelitis

A

actinomyces bovis. pyogranulomatous osteomyelitis. purulent exudates and splendore-hoepplie figures.

342
Q

metaphyseal osteopathy (hypertriohic osteodystrophy)

A

large young dogs. bilateral and symmetrical periosteal proliferation in radius and ulna. on histo see suppuration in cartilage tongues at physis.

343
Q

canine panosteitis (juvenile osteomyelitis)

A

giant young dog. possible distemper link. only see Xray changes - radiodensity in medulla near nutritional foramen. on histo no inflm but some inflm cells, fibrovascular tissue and woven bone in bone marrow.

344
Q

chondrosarcoma

A

nodular, expansile usually in ribs. infiltrative but not metastasising. on histo well differentiated chondrocytes with abundant matrix. disorganised in physis.

345
Q

osteosarcoma

A

destructive and proliferative. often in weight bearing bones. poorly differentiated osteoblasts with high mitotic activity on histo.

346
Q

4 types of joint

A

syndemosis, symphyses, diarthrosis, synsarcosis

347
Q

types of cell in synovial membrane

A

macrophage like and fibroblast like

348
Q

aggrecans has a role in

A

joint pressure maintenance

349
Q

what is a chondrone and ebumation. what occurs before eburnation?

A

group of chondrocytes which form in response to injury, eburnation is loss of synovial surface so bone is exposed. fibrillation occurs first.

350
Q

DJD proper names are

A

osteoarthritis or arthrosis

351
Q

gross and histo of DJD

A

rough, yellow fibrillation, ulceration and eburnation. can get osteophytes and joint mice. histo villous hypertrophy, inflm cells and necrotic cartilage.

352
Q

Osteochondrosis aetiology and common species

A

rapid growth, over nutrition, mineral imbalances, trauma, genetics. young pigs, male dogs elbow dysplasia, horses.

353
Q

osteochondrosis pathogenesis, gross and histo

A

ischaemic damage to growing cartilage, necrosis, cyst and detachment. white foci lesions leading to cartilage ulceration. histo see cartilage cores, cysts, hypertrophic cartilage.

354
Q

GSD lack of conformity btw femoral head and acetabulum…

A

hip dysplasia

355
Q

congenital patellar luxation

A

common in toy breeds and horses. hypoplasia of femoral trochlea.

356
Q

Intervertebral disc disease

A

age related or congenital. degeneration of nucleus pulposus, rupture of annulus fibrosus, herniation of nucleus pulposus. ventral or dorsal herniation. dorsal has 2 types (Hansen 1/2). chondroid metaplasia/mineralisation of the herniation.

357
Q

spondylosis

A

seconary degeneration of ventral annulus fibrosus. formation of osteophytes at ventral/lateral margins of vertebral bodies.

358
Q

wobblers syndrome proper name

A

cervical vertebral stenotic myelopathy

359
Q

wobblers syndroms aet

A

malformation of vertebrae causing pressure on spinal cord. various grades.

360
Q

bacterial arthritis agents

A

streps, staphs, e.coli, erysipelas, haemophilus parasuis, actinobacillus equuli

361
Q

bacterial arthritis path, gross and histo

A

either penetrating wound or septicaemic spread. various exudative forms, mainly purulent. villous hyperplasia and inflm cell infiltration

362
Q

erysipelas bacterial arthritis

A

serofibrinous exudate

363
Q

mycoplasma species causing arthritis in pig, goat, sheep, cow

A

M. hyorhinis (pig), M. mycoides (goat and cow), M. capricolum (sheep)

364
Q

mycoplasma arthritis gross, histo

A

serofibrinous arthritis with villous hypertrophy. Non-degenerate neutrophils and mononuclear infiltration

365
Q

viral arthritis agents (2) and histo

A

caprine arthritis encephalitis virus (CAEV) or sheep maedi visna virus. non-supp inflm.

366
Q

rheumatoid arthritis gros and histo

A

complement cascade attacking self synovium. polyarthritis. oedema, pannus. hypertrophy and hyperplasia of villi.

367
Q

synovial sarcoma

A

large breed dog. often stifle/elbow. indistinct border, infiltrates along planes. polygonal to spindeloid cells, oval nuclei can have cleft or cavities with proteinaceous/mucoid material.

368
Q

histiocytic sarcoma

A

tumour of dendritic (langerhan) cells near synovial membrane. nodular swelling on joint.

369
Q

explain colours of type1/2 muscle types

A

white = lots of mitochondria, fatigue resistant, oxidative. red = relies on glycolysis.

370
Q

myotube forms when

A

damage to muscle, segmental necrosis.

371
Q

histo of muscle atrophy

A

reduced myocyte size, infiltration with fibrour or fat tissue.

372
Q

congenital musclar hypertrophy

A

belgian blue cattle and callipyge sheep. myostatin gene defect.

373
Q

splayleg

A

myofibrillar defect in pigs. reduced myofibre diameter with decreased myofibrils and cytoplasmic glycogen

374
Q

muscular dystrophy/X linked muscular dystrophy

A

congenital defect in gene coding for dystrophin (sarcolemmal protein). get muscular atrophy and pale muscles streaks in dogs. in cats get muscular hypertrophy over neck and shoulders and oes/diaphragm.

375
Q

malignant hyperthermia

A

pigs defect in ryanodine receptor, over excitation of contraction, over release of calcium, excessive contraction and heat production. PSE meat and rapid rigor.

376
Q

myaesthenia gravis histo

A

can only be seen on electron microscopy. associated with thymoma and is caused by autoantibodies against AcCh receptors

377
Q

nutritional myopathy aka white muscle disease

A

Vit E/Selenium deficiency. lack of anti-oxidant acitivty, rhabdomyolysis. bilateral symmetrical white streaks in muscle. histo see multifocal degeneration of contractile elements and adipose tissue necrosis (yellow fat disease in horses).

378
Q

exertional myopathy/equine exertional rhabdomyolysis/monday morning disease

A

exercise without training. insufficient ATP production causes excess glyolysis, lactic acid production, rhabdomyolysis, kidney damage. mainly in gluteals, femoral and lumbar muscles

379
Q

bacterial myositis types (2)

A

suppurative and chronic pyogranulomatous fibrosing nodular myositis

380
Q

suppurative myositis

A

streptococcus zooepidemicus (horse), arcanobacterium pyogenes (cattle/sheep), corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis (CLA), pasteurella multocida (cats). often purulent exudates and abscesses in muscle

381
Q

chronic pyogranulomatous fibrosing nodular myositis

A

actinobacillus ligneresii (wooden tongue in cattle) or staphylococcus auerus (botryomycosis in pig and horse). fibrosing, granulomatous inflm in muscle. central radiating clubs of amorphous eosinophilic material.

382
Q

malignant oedema

A

clostridium septicum/perfringens/novyi. penetrate muscle through skin wound, produce toxins creating tissue damage. gas bubbly appearance.

383
Q

blackleg

A

clostridum chauvoei. latent spore activation in muscles, colonised by previous ingesta, reactivation by stressors. muscle dark red, oedematous dry centre and porous pattern.

384
Q

parasitic myositis

A

N. caninum, T. gondii, T. spiralis, Sarcocystic spp, Cysticercus spp

385
Q

eosinophilic myositis

A

sarcocystis spp. cattle/sheep. reaction against the cyst. demarcated green focal stripes. on histo see eosinophil dominated inflm and granulomas.

386
Q

immune-mediated myositis

A

autoimmune antibodies produced against myosin type 2 (only in masticatory muscles). atrophy of masticatory muscles, see eosinophilic myositis. chronically see fibrosis mutlifocal lymphocytes.

387
Q

neoplasia of muscles (2)

A

rhabdomyoma and rhabdomyosarcoma

388
Q

strap cells and sarcomeric differentation are common in

A

muscle tumours. elongated mutlinucleate cells and ‘racket cells’ are ovoid shaped.

Pathology Semester 1 (3 decks)

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