Pathology of the Placenta and Gestational Trophoblastic Disease Flashcards

1
Q

How does ectopic pregnancy change hCG levels?

A

It delays/lowers the rise of hCG.

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2
Q

Trophoblastic disease presents with __________ hCG levels.

A

Initially delayed but then excessive hCG rise (that is, above 10,000 mIU/mL)

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3
Q

What is the discriminatory zone?

A

The DZ is the hCG range above which a uterine pregnancy should be visible on ultrasound.

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4
Q

What is gestational trophoblastic disease?

A

A group of rare tumors that involve abnormal growth of cells… starting in the cells that would normally develop into the placenta

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5
Q

___________ DNA stimulates placental development.

A

Paternal

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6
Q

What is the difference between complete and partial moles?

A

• Complete: diandric diploid (46, XY or XX), meaning the sperm contributed all of the genetic material • Partial: diandric triploid (69, XXY), meaning two sperms fertilized one egg or one sperm fertilized one egg and then divided intra-egg

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7
Q

How will partial and complete moles appear on ultrasound?

A

Partial moles can have fetal parts and complete moles do not have parts and have a “snowstorm” appearance.

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8
Q

On gross exam, complete molar pregnancies have a ___________ appearance.

A

grape-like

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9
Q

20% of complete moles will develop into ______________.

A

gestational trophoblastic disease

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10
Q

Why do providers ask women who’ve recently had a complete molar pregnancy to take birth control?

A

Follow-up is done by monitoring hCG levels (every 1-2 weeks until three consecutive negatives, the every 3 months for a year), so if a woman gets pregnant then the hCG levels will not be reliable.

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11
Q

How are complete molar pregnancies treated?

A

Curettage and (if hCG remains elevated) methotrexate

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12
Q

The key histologic finding in choriocarcinoma is _____________.

A

a biphasic tumor: mononuclear trophoblasts and multinuclear syncytiotrophoblasts

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13
Q

The most common site of choriocarcinoma metastasis is _____________.

A

the lungs

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14
Q

The placenta is divided into two sides, terminologically: ________________.

A

the fetal surface is where the cord attaches

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15
Q

What does IUFD stand for?

A

Intra-uterine fetal demise

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16
Q

Fetal vasculature enters the placenta in the _____________ spaces.

A

villous

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17
Q

The maternal blood enters the ___________ spaces.

A

intervillous (maTERnal = inTERvillous)

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18
Q

What can the attachment point of the umbilical cord tell you about the baby?

A

Most of the time, the umbilical cord attaches to the center of the placenta. In some cases, the cord can attach to the periphery. If it’s somewhat loosely/distantly attach – called velamentous – then there’s a greater chance that the child had hypoxic episodes due to repeated pressure occlusions.

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19
Q

There are two umbilical _________ but only one umbilical ____________.

A

arteries; vein

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20
Q

Increased _____________ increases risk of entanglement.

A

umbilical cord length

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21
Q

What is fetus papyraceus?

A

If a twin dies in a di/di, then the fetus that survives grows and presses onto the remnant sac of the other and can leave a fibrous impression.

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22
Q

Yellow blotches on a placenta can indicate _____________.

A

Listeria infection

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23
Q

Explain the extensive GP nomenclature system.

A

G = pregancies P = outcomes, denoted TPAL (term, preterm, abortion, living) Example: G5P2032 is five pregnancies, two of which were term, zero were preterm, three were aborted, and two are living

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24
Q

What most commonly causes acute chorioamnionitis?

A

Group B Strep

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25
Listeria leads to ___________ inflammation, whereas most other placental infections lead to ___________ inflammation.
acute; chronic
26
At 39 weeks' gestation, about 15% of fetuses \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
have passed meconium
27
C-sections raise risk of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
placenta accreta
28
Histologically, what two layers will be touching in placenta accreta?
The villi will abut the myometrium.
29
Hypertension and proteinuria after 20 weeks' gestation indicate \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
pre-eclampsia
30
How common is pre-eclampsia?
It occurs in about 5% of U.S. pregnancies.
31
What are the sequelae of pre-eclampsia?
• 35% risk of stillbirth • Preterm delivery • Fetal hypoxia, neurologic injury • Maternal DIC, stroke, HTN, and pulmonary edema
32
The only treatment for pre-eclampsia is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
delivery
33
What is placental detachment called?
Placental abruption
34
What does the obstetric acronym SAB stand for?
Spontaneous Abortion
35
What's the difference between symmetric and asymmetric intrauterine growth restriction?
• Symmetric: genetic etiology • Asymmetric: non-genetic, physical malformation (such as oligohydramnios)
36
If a first trimester SAB has a cystic hygroma, what is the likely karyotype?
45, XO
37
Which trisomy increases the risk of omphalocele?
Edward's (trisomy 18) and Patau's (trisomy 13)
38
Neural tube defects can be detected by elevated levels of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
AFP
39
What is the incidence of ectopic pregnancies?
1:150
40
In addition to hydropic villi, partial hydatidiform moles will have \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
fibrotic villi
41
Most complete moles arise from \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
one sperm that divides in an empty ovum
42
What is the incidence of complete hydatidiform moles?
1:1,500 pregnancies
43
Explain the utility of p57 staining.
p57 is maternally expressed, so it will be absent in complete moles.
44
There can be remnant _____________ in the umbilical cord.
GI epithelium (from when the GI tract bulged out into the cord)
45
The spiral arteries empty into the intervillous space after passing through the decidua \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
parietalis
46
What are signs of congenital HSV2 infection?
Same as in adults: temporal encephalitis, herpetic lesions
47
Compare and contrast the two types of villitis.
Infectious villitis: • Maternal and fetal illness • Early pregnancy • Less chance of recurrence • Very rare Villitis of unknown etiology: • Less likely to have maternal and fetal illness • Late pregnancy • Greater chance of recurrence • More common
48
Placenta accreta is thought to form due to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
failed decidual development
49
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is when the placenta invades the myometrium.
Placenta increta
50
Pre-eclampsia results from \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
impaired flow of blood from the spiral arteries to the intervillous space
51
What are symptoms of abruptio placentae?
• Rapid uterine contractions • Vaginal bleeding • Back pain
52
What causes acute abruption?
Rupture of villi due to ischemic injury
53
What is the incidence of Down syndrome?
1:700
54
what type of umbilical cord is shown?
eccentric (normal)
55
what type of umbilical cord is shown?
marginal
56
what type of umbilical cord is shown?
velamentous
57
what does this placenta suggest?
acute chorioamnionitis
58
what are the ToRCHeS infections
usually given to the infant trans-placentally or at delivery - Toxoplasmosis - Rubella - CMV - HIV - HSV2 - Syphilis
59
whats this indicative of?
this is an owl eye inclusion suggestive of CMV
60
whats this indicative of?
villitis of unknown origin