Pathology of the musculoskeletal system Flashcards

1
Q

Classification of primary osteoporosis

A
  • Senile

- Postmenopausal: due to decreased estrogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Etiology of secondary osteoporosis

A
  • Endocrine disorders: hyperparathyroidism, hypo/hyperthyroidism, hypogonadism, pituitary tumors
  • GI disorders: malnutrition, malabsorption
  • Drugs: antiocoagulants, chemotherapy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Osteoporosis: pathogenesis

A
  • Age: decreased osteoblast activity with age
  • Hormonal: decline in estrogen -> increased cytokine production -> increased RANK-RANKL activity -> suppression of OPG -> increased osteoclast activity
  • Physical activity: induces bone remodelling
  • Genetic: vitamin D polymorphisms
  • Glucocorticoid therapy: increased resorption and decreased bone synthesis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Rickets and osteomalacia: pathogenesis

A
  • Diet lacking calcium and vitamin D
  • Limited sunlight exposure

Less common causes:

  • Renal disorders caused decreased synthesis of 1,25 (OH)2-D
  • Phosphate depletion
  • Malabsorption disorders
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Clinical features of Rickets

A
  • Occurs in children

- Deranged bone growth produces skeletal deformities, such as pigeon-breast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Clinical features of Osteomalacia

A
  • In adults
  • The formed bone is undermineralized, causing weak bones with increased risk for fractures
  • Decreased calcium and phosphate
  • Increased serum PTH
  • Elevated ALP
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Etiology/types of osteomyelitis

A
  • Pyogenic osteomyelitis: caused by bacteria, usually S. aureus
  • Tuberculosis osteomyelitis: complication of pulmonary TB
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Stages of Paget disease (3)

A
  1. Osteolytic stage: hyperactive, regional osteclast activity and bone resorption; osteoclasts are abnormally large
  2. Mixed osteoclastic-osteoblastic stage: lots of bone formation by osteoblasts; marrow is replaced by CT
  3. Osteosclerotic stage: exhaustion of cellular activity by osteoclasts; cortex is softened and prone to deformation and fracture
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Paget disease: clinical features

A
  • Usually affects the axial skeleton or proximal femur
  • Symptoms are usually mild, but may include bone pain, hearing loss and lion-like face
  • Isolated increased APP
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Paget disease: pathogenesis

A
  • Rather unknown, but paramyxovirus infection is suggested
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Bone-forming tumors

A
  • Osteoma: benign, usually seen on the surface of facial bones
  • Osteoid osteoma: arises in the cortex of long bones; osteoblasts surrounded by a rim of reactive bone; < 2 cm large
  • Osteoblastoma
  • Osteosarcoma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Osteoid osteoma vs. osteoblastoma

A

Osteoid osteoma

  • In the cortex of long bones
  • < 2 cm
  • Pain is resolved with aspirin

Osteoblastoma

  • In the vertebral column
  • > 2 cm
  • Pain is not resolved by aspirin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Osteosarcoma: etiology, pathogenesis and morphology

A
  • Proliferation of osteoblasts
  • Peak incidence among teenagers
  • Risk factors: RB gene mutation, Paget’s disease, radiation
  • Usually arises in the metaphysis of long bones
  • Pathologic fractures are seen with bone pain and swelling
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Cartilage-forming tumors and their major features

A
  • Osteochondroma: benign cartilage-covered outgrowths attached by a bony stalk
  • Chondroma: benign tumor of hyaline cartilage usually seen in small bones of hand and feet
  • Chondrosarcoma: malignant tumor producing cartilage; usually seen in the pelvis or central skeleton; painful, progressively enlarging masses
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Giant cell tumor of bone: major features

A
  • Contains multinucleated giant cells and stromal cells
  • In young adults
  • Arises in the epiphysis of long bones, usually around the knee
  • “Soap bubble” appearance on x-rays
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Ewing sarcoma and primitive neuroectodermal tumor: major features

A
  • Basically the same tumor, with the same chromosomal abnormality (t(11;22)); they only differ in their degree of differentiation
  • Arise from neuroectoderm
  • Found in the medullary cavity of the diaphysis of long bones
17
Q

Sources of metastases to the bone

A

In adults: prostate, breast, kidney, lung
In children: neuroblastoma, Wilms’ tumor, osteosarcoma, Ewing sarcoma, rhabdomyosarcoma

  • Usually involves the axial skeleton
18
Q

Causes of muscular atrophy

A
  • Neuropathic atrophy: loss of innervation
  • Atrophy caused by disuse: bed rest, immobilization
  • Glucocorticoids: Cushing syndrome
  • Endogenous hypercortisolism
  • Myopathy atrophy
19
Q

Types of muscular dystrophy

A
  • Duchenne and Becker muscular dystrophy
  • Autosomal muscular dystrophies: affect specific muscle groups
  • Myotonic dystrophy: the main symptom of autosomal muscular dystrophies; AD inheritance associated with CTH trinucleotide repeats
20
Q

Tenosynovial Giant Cell tumor: types and their differences

A

TGCT is a collective term for closely-related benign neoplasms of the synovium. The main ones are pigmented villonodular synovitis and giant cell tumor of tendon sheath.

  • PVNS: diffusely involves joints; monoarticular arthritis; pain, locking and swelling; aggressive lesions erode into adjacent bone and tissue
  • GCT: single tendon sheath nodule; solitary, slowly growing painless mass; usually involves wrist and finger tendon sheaths