Pathology - Liver and Pancreas Flashcards

0
Q

What is hepatorenal syndrome?

What is the presumed pathophysiology?

A

Hepatorenal syndrome refers to the appearance of renal failure in patients with cirrhosis and ascites where there is no identifiable cause for renal failure. It occurs in 8% of such patients per year.

Decreased renal perfusion, due to systemic vasodilation, leads to activation of the RAAS system and increased renin and sodium retention. Prognosis is poor; 2 weeks to 6 months.

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1
Q

How much function does the liver lose prior to hectic failure being manifest?

A

80-90%

Mortality from hepatic failure is approximately 80%

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2
Q

What is hepatopulmonary syndrome?

A

Intrapulmonary vascular dilatation (due to increased NO) causing shunting in the lung.

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3
Q

Cirrhosis as the end stage of chronic liver disease is defined by three histological characteristics:

A

Bridging fibrous septae (linking portal tracts to each other)
Parenchymal nodules (proliferating hepatocytes encircled in fibrosis)
Disruption of the hepatic parenchymal architecture.

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4
Q

What is the main source of fibrosis in cirrhosis?

A

Although portal fibroblasts also contribute collagen, the predominant source of fibrosis is proliferation and activation of stellate cells via PDGF beta.

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5
Q

What triggers activation and proliferation of fibroblasts and stellate cells in cirrhosis?

A

Proinflammatory cytokines (TNF-a, IL-1b)
Cytokines (PDGF-b, TGF-b)
Disruption of ECM
Direct toxin stimulation

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6
Q

How common are oesphageal varices in patients with cirrhosis?

A

40% of patients with advanced cirrhosis get OV.

Each bleed has a 30% mortality.

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7
Q

Describe the metabolism of peripheral haemoglobin to bilirubin in the hepatocyte:

A

After 120 days RBC cell membranes rupture and haemoglobin in phagocytozed by the reticuloendothelial system.

Haemoglobin is then split giving free iron and biliverdin. Biliverdin is quickly reduced to unconjugated bilirubin which is released by the macrophages.

This combines with plasma albumin and is taken back to the liver…

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8
Q

Describe the intra-hepatocyte metabolism of bilirubin:

A

Once the unconjugated bilirubin has passed into the liver, it is released from plasma albumin and thereafter conjugated about 80% with glucoronic acid to form bilirubin glucoronide, about 10% with sulfate to form bilirubin sulfate, and 10% other.

In these forms, bilirubin is excreted from the hepatocytes by an active transport process into the bile canaliculi and then into the intestines.

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9
Q

Describe the post-hepatocyte metabolism of bilirubin:

A

Once in the intestine, about half of the conjugated bilirubin is converted by bacterial action into urobilinogen, which is highly soluble. Some of this is reabsorbed and re-excreted back by the liver back into the gut; 5% is excreted by the kidneys.

Further down the GI tract, urobilinogen becomes oxidised and altered to become stercobilin.

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10
Q

Which hepatic endoplasmic transferase conjugates bilirubin to glucoronic acid?

A

UGT1A1

Glucoronosyltransferase 1 polypeptide A1

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11
Q

Name the unconjugated hereditary hyperbilirubinameias:

A

Crigler-Najjar Types 1 and 2:
Autosomal recessive and dominant respectively. Loss of UGT1A1

Gilbert syndrome:
30% reduction in UGT1A1

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12
Q

Name the conjugated hereditary hyperbilirubinameias:

A

Dubin-Johnson syndrome

Rotor syndrome

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13
Q

Features of HAV?

A

ssRNA virus
Indirectly cytopathic (via CD8 T cell response)
Accounts for 25% of acute hepatitis, fecal-oral route of spread
Acute infection demonstrated by IgM anti-HAV
IgG anti-HAV confers immunity.

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14
Q

Features of HBV?

A

dsDNA virus
Indirectly kills via CD8 cytotoxicity
Capable of integrating into genome, constituting a pathway for cancer development

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15
Q

What are potential outcomes of HBV infection?

A

80-90% get either acute hepatitis or have subclinical disease. Most of these people recover with incident.

5-10% will become healthy “carriers”

4% will get persistent infection, some 20-50% of whom will get chronic hepatitis, some 10% of whom will get HCC

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16
Q

What is the HBV carrier state?

A

The HBV carrier state is defined by the presence of HBsAG in the serum for 6 months or longer after the initial detection.

Some patients will exhibit HBsAG and HBeAg, and HBV DNA, usually with Anti-HBc and occasionally with Anti-HBs. These patients are susceptible to progressive liver damage.

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17
Q

Features of HCV?

A

ssRNA virus
Substantial genomic variability makes vaccination difficult, hence characteristic ebb and flow of infection
Like HBV cellular damage is immune mediated, though the virus is not effectively killed!
Potentially curable with IFN-y and Ribovarin

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18
Q

Features of HDV?

A

RNA virus which can only develop in conjunction with HBV.
Co infection with HBV leads to hepatitis which ranges from mild to fulminant, but rarely becomes chronic.
Vaccination against HBV is therefore protective.

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19
Q

Features of HEV?

A

ssRNA virus
Enterically transmitted, endemic in India
High rate (20%) of fulminant hepatitis in pregnant women

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20
Q

Features of hepatic cysts?

A

Usually bacterial or candidal in developed countries
Mortality ranges from 30-90%, early recognition improves survival
Rupture of echinococcal cysts may cause severe immune mediated shock.

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21
Q

What is the characteristic histological finding in AIH?

A

Clusters of peri-portal plasma cells.

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22
Q

Features of AIH?

A
Autoimmune hepatitis is a chronic, progressive hepatitis attributable to T-cell mediated autoimmunity (CD8 T cells and IFN-y)
Female preponderance (78% cases)

May be triggered by AIDisorders, drugs, or viruses.

Type 1 and 2 based on autoantibodies.

Untreated 6 month mortality is 40%, and 40% of survivors develop cirrhosis

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23
Q

Which drugs may cause fatty liver?

A

Ethanol, methotrexate, amiodarone, diltiazem, glucocorticoids, tetracycline.

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24
Q

What are the nutritional and metabolic causes of hepatic steatosis?

A

Metabolic:
Pregnancy, storage disorders, diabetes, metabolic syndrome

Nutritional:
TPN, malnutrition, gastric bypass, severe weight loss.

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25
Q

What are some other causes of hepatic steatosis?

A
HCV
Alpha-1 anti trypsin deficiency
IBD
HIV
CHF (past exam)
26
Q

What is the pathogenetic cause of haemochromotosis?

A

The most common mutation (70%) is a cysteine-to-tyrosine substitution at AA 282 (C282Y) that inactivates HFE and reduces Hepcidin expression.

This has variable penetrate, usually low.

27
Q

What is the pathogenetic cause of Wilson’s disease?

A

Mutation in ATP7B coding for a canalicular copper transporting ATPase

Cu. excretion is therefore reduced and ceruoplasmin secretion into the blood is inhibited (low ceruoplasmin is diagnostic). Serum copper values are of no benefit!

28
Q

Features of alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency?

A

Autosomal recessive disorder marked by very low levels of this protease inhibitor. Deficiency leads primarily to emphysema but also to hepatic disease.

29
Q

What is the most common alpha-1 antitrypsin genotype?

What is the pathophysiological process?

A

Although the gene is extremely polymorphic, 90% of people are PiMM.

PiZZ Homozygotes have circulating A-1 AT levels of 10%.

Their Pi protein fails to fold, preventing egress from the ER and eventual autophagy with NF-kb activation causing hepatitis.

30
Q

What are the major causes of neonatal jaundice?

Why is differentiation of biliary atresia so important?

A

50% of cases are idiopathic
20% of cases are caused by biliary atresia
15% are caused by alpha-1 AT deficiency.

Definitive treatment of biliary atresia is surgical.

31
Q

PBC is a disease of..?

PSC is a disease of..?

A

Middle aged women

Middle aged men

32
Q

Features of PBC?

A

Disease of Middle aged women
Insidious onset, death by liver failure, then varices.
Anti-mitochondrial ABs are highly characteristic (95%)
Extra hepatic manifestations (Sjogren’s, Scelroderma, thyroiditis)
Increased risk of HCC.

33
Q

Features of PSC?

A

Disease of Middle aged men
Inflammation of both IH and EH biliary tree
Beading on radiographs
Typically also have UC (70%)
Multiple autoantibodies
Increased risk of pancreatitis and HCC and CC

34
Q

Systemic hypoperfusion leads to what kind of pattern of necrosis in liver tissue?

A

Centrilobar necrosis about the central vein, as this is the aspect of the functional unit most distant to the arterial blood supply.

35
Q

What is nutmeg liver?

A

The macroscopic manifestation of centrilobar haemorrhaging necrosis from passive congestion necrosis of the liver.

Central areas of nutmeg liver are red and slightly depressed compared with the surrounding viable tan coloured parenchyma.

36
Q

In GVHD, which is more affected; hepatocytes or bile duct epithelium?

A

Bile duct epithelium.

37
Q

What is the most common cause of jaundice in pregnancy?

A

Viral hepatitis.

Remember that HEV has a 10-20% mortality associated with it in pregnancy.

38
Q

Features of the 2 common benign tumours of the liver:

A

Cavernous haemangiomas are the most common benign liver tumour.

Hepatic adenomas are benign neoplasms that occur commonly in women on the OC. Histologically, portal tracts with bile ducts are absent.

39
Q

Hepatoblastoma in childhood is associated with which two syndromes?

A

FAP

Beckwith-Weidemann

40
Q

What are the four major etiologic factors in HCC?

A

Chronic viral infection (HBV or HCV)
Chronic alcoholism
NASH
Food contaminants (aflatoxin)

41
Q

What is fibrolamellar carcinoma?

A

A distinct variant of HCC - constitutes about 5% of HCC

It usually occurs as a single scirrhous, hard tumour occurring in 20-40 year olds in the absence of chronic liver disease. It has a more favourable outlook than typical HCC.

42
Q

Prognosis of HCC?

A

Depends on resectability of tumour.

Mortality is secondary to cachexia, variceal bleeding, liver failure, or tumour rupture and haemorrhage.

43
Q

Features of HCC?

A

Geographical discrepancy: higher rates (2fold) in Africa, China, Korea.
More than 85% of HCC cases occur in countries with high rates of HBV infection. In the western world where HBV is not as prevalent, cirrhosis is associated with 80-90% of cases, rarely occurring in patients under 60.

2.4:1 M:F ratio

44
Q

Features of biliary atresia?

A

Causes approximately one third of neonatal cholestasis

Defined as extra hepatic biliary tree obstruction within the first 3 months of life. It occurs in 1:12,000 live births.

Fetal form due to aberrant biliary tree development.
Perinatal form is presumably due to infections or autoimmunity.

45
Q

What are the characteristic histological findings in biliary atresia?

A

Marked bile duct proliferation
Portal tract oedema
Fibrosis progressing to cirrhosis within 6 months.

In the early severe form (fetal form) 90% have atresia that extends above the porta hepatis, which is not amenable to surgery.

46
Q

Most gallbladder carcinomas are?

A

Adenocarcinomas. Histological appearance may vary from papillary to infiltrating and may range from moderately differentiated to undifferentiated.

Tumours are usually unresectable when discovered.

47
Q

What is the most common pancreatic anomaly?

What might it cause?

A

Pancreatic divisum; 3-10% incidence.

Causes the bulk of the pancreatic secretions to drain through the minor papilla, the relative stenosis predisposes to chronic pancreatitis.

48
Q

Which two genes are implicated in hereditary pancreatitis?

A

PRSS1 or Cationic Trypsinogen
SPINK1 or Serine Protease Inhibitor, Kazal Type 1

PRSS1 aids auto-inactivation of trypsin
SPINK1 codes for a trypsin inhibitor.

49
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of pancreatitis.

What is the net result?

A

Inappropriate activation of trypsin in the pancreas leads to conversion of proenzymes to active enzymes and prekallekrein to kallekrein, activating the kinin and clotting systems.

The net result is pancreatic inflammation and thrombosis with TISSUE PROTEOLYSIS, LIPOLYSIS, AND HAEMORRHAGE.

50
Q

What are the pathological effects of EtOH on the pancreas?

A
  1. Direct toxic effect on acinar cells
  2. Causes functional obstruction by constricting ampulla
  3. Increases pancreatic protein secretion leading to inspissated blockade of the ductal system.
51
Q

How does CF contribute to pancreatitis?

A

CFTR gene mutations lead to decreased ductal cell bicarbonate secretion, thereby promoting protein plugging leading to chronic pancreatitis.

52
Q

Which cells are spared in chronic pancreatitis?

A

The islets of Langerhans are relatively spared in chronic pancreatitis.

53
Q

What is Lymphoplasmacytic Sclerosing Pancreatitis?

A

A distinct autoimmune form characterised by mixed cell infiltrates, venulitis, and IgG4-producing plasma cells.

It responds to steroid therapy.

54
Q

What are the two broad categories of pancreatic neoplasms?

A

Cystic or Solid.

55
Q

Benign pancreatic neoplasms?

A

Serous cystadenomas are the only entirely benign pancreatic neoplasm.

Typically seen in women over 60. Solitary, well circumscribed. Resection is curative.

56
Q

What are mucinous cystic neoplasms?

A

A cystic pancreatic neoplasm, one third of which are malignant.

They almost always arise in women, and can be benign, borderline, or malignant. The cysts are filled with tenacious material and usually arise in the body or tail of the pancreas.

Resection and pathological inspection are the only way to determine malignancy.

57
Q

What are IPMN?

A

Intraductal papillary mucinous neoplasms, more common in men than in women. Most arise at the head of the gland. No dense stroma.

Similar malignant potential to mucinous cystic neoplasms.

58
Q

What are solid-pseudopapillary tumours?

A

Rare, round and well circumscribed tumours that have both solid and cystic components. Mainly occur in young women. Associated with mutations in beta-catenin. Complete resection is usually curative.

59
Q

What is the precursor to pancreatic cancer?

A

Pancreatic intraepithelial neoplasms.

Feature dramatic telomere shortening amount other things.

60
Q

What are the 2 most common molecular alterations in pancreatic cancer?

A

KRAS is the most frequently (90%) altered oncogene.

CDKN2A/p16 (an important checkpoint) is inactivated in 95%

61
Q

Morphology of pancreatic infiltrating ductal carcinoma?

Prognosis of pancreatic infiltrating ductal carcinoma?

A

60% of cancers arise in the head, 15% in the body, 5% in the tail.

20% are diffuse.

Extensive perineural and vascular invasion are common. 80% are unresectable at presentation. 5-year survival is 5%

62
Q

What is Trousseau syndrome?

A

Migratory thrombophlebitis which can occur with pancreatic cancer and other adenocarcinomas.