Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Robbins Pathology Renal (Chaptr 20,21) > Pathology Lectures (All Reading > Flashcards

Pathology Lectures (All Reading Flashcards

1
Q

What are the sminomatous tumors as part of the germ cell tumors

A
  • Seminoma

- Spermatocytic seminoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Alport syndrome will have which other clincal presentations

A

Chronic renal failure with nerve deafness, eye disorders such as lens dislocation, posterior cataracts, and corneal dystrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the most common renal cell carcinoma

A

Clear cell carcinoma (70-80%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What complication is acquired (dialysis-associated) cysts associated with

A

Renal cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Patients with analgesic nephropathy are associated with developing which condition

A

Urothelial carcinoma of the renal pelvis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Sickle cell nephropathy will usually show which morphological features

A
  • Diffuse cortical necrosis

- Cortex is pale due to ischemic necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the diseases of the renal medulla

A
  • Medullary sponge kidney

- Nephronephrothiasis cystic disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the tow Major histological findings of the progression to ESRF

A
  • Tubulointersitital fibrosis

- FSGS (focal segmental glomerulosclerosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the extrarenal manifestations of The autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD)

A
  • hepatic cysts
  • subarachnoid hemorrhages from Berry aneurysms
  • Mitral valve prolapse
  • Diverticular disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What cell type lines lol blood vessels

A

Endothelial cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Clear cell carcinoma the familial form with which deletions

A

98% have:

Chromosome 3 deletion, which is the VHL suppressor gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the the target antigen in Goodpasture

A

No collagenous regions of collagen type 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the single most important to ask a patient with suspected renal disease

A

“Have you had this before?”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the most common cause of vesicourital reflux

A

-Congenital, with partial or complete lack of oblique entry/angle of the intravesical portion of ureter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the localization of immune complexed in the glomerulus during membranous nephropathy

A

Epimembranous deposits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the most common genetic cause of ESRD

A

-Nephronopthisis-medullary cystic disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Clear cell carcinoma is most commonly which form

A

Sporadic (95%), but hereditary (4%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which condition in males is commonly the cause of papillary necrosis

A

Obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Tubulointerstital nephritis is generally characterized by which conditions

A
  • Azotemia

- Inability to concentrate urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the prognosis of anaplastic hisomorphology of Wilms tumors

A

Unfavorable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Atypical hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) is commonly caused by

A
  • Inherited mutations of proteins that regulate complement
  • Multiple squired causes of endothelial injury such as chemo
  • Antiphospholipid syndrome, pregnancy, systemic sclerosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the cause of post renal azotemia

A

Urine flow obstruction distal to the calyces and renal pelvis, which can be fixed with removal of the obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the cause of prerenal azotemia

A

Hypoperfusion of the kidneys that impairs renal function in the absence of actual parenchymal damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the pathogenesis of Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis (MPGN) type 2 (aka dense Deposition disease

A

Nephritic factor, aka C3NeF, is present and stabilizes the C3 convertase and chronic activation of the alternative pathway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the characteristics of the neonatal forms of The autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease (ARPKD)

A
  • 60% of renal collecting ducts are cystic, mild hepatic fibrosis
  • Due within months, usually due to renal failure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the most telling sign for the prognosis of bladder cancer

A

Depth of muscle invasion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the definition of acute kidney injury

A
  1. Rapid decline in GFR
  2. Severe forms show oliguria or anuria
  3. Can be reversible or progress to chronic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The large portion on UTIs are due to which bacteria

A

Enteric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the common endothelial injury triggers for thrombotic microangiopathies

A
  • Bacterial toxins
  • Cytokines
  • Viruses
  • Captain medications
  • Anti-Endothelial antibodies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the effect on renal function in the case of benign nephrosclerosis

A

Not usually associated with renal insufficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the histological findings of renal oncocytomas

A
  • Abundant acidophilus, granular cytoplasm

- Alvelar nesting, tubular or solid pattern

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the histological cell type in interstitial cystitis aka Hunner Ulcer

A

Mast cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are the main immune components involved in Membranous glomerulopathy

A

-IgG4 and MAC complex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the prognosis of Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis (MPGN) type 2 (aka dense Deposition disease

A

Worse than type 1, with recurrence in transplanted patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What type of tumor is a carcinoma in situ (CIS) aka flat non-invasive urothelial

A

Urothelial tumors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the effect of the neurological system due to uremia

A
  • Uremic encephalopathy such as fatigue, muscle weakness, malaise, asterisks
  • amyloid deposits in medial nerve neuropathy,carpal tunnel
  • Peripheral neuropathy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

The acquired diverticula is due to which cause

A

Prostatic enlargement producing obstruction to urine outflow and thickening of the bladder wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What percentage of patients progress to chronic glomerulonephritis if the have had crescentic GN

A

90%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Renal oncocytomas arise from which cells

A

Type A intercalated cells of the renal cortical collecting ducts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the most prognostic element in Wilms tumor

A

-Absence or presence of the diffuse anaplasia (will decide the prognostic element)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are the common histological findings in membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis (MPGN)

A
  • Alterations to the GBM
  • Proliferation of glomerular cells (mesangial cells primarily)
  • Leukocyte infiltration (neutrophils)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Rahbdomyosarcoma of the bladder is what kind of tumor

A

Malignant mesenchymal tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the typical findings for when acute proliferative glomerulonephritis presents

A

1-4 weeks following pharyngitis or skin infection (especially Strep B toxin (SpeB)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

How is post infectious glomerulonephritis due to staphylococcus different than otherswith regards to the immunoglobulin

A

IgA commonly, rather than IgG like normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Which tumor is aka hypernephroma

A

Clear cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

The autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD) Ultimately results in which conditions

A

Bilateral Multiple expanding cysts of both kidneys that destroy the renal parenchyma and results in renal failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the prognosis of membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis (MPGN) type 1 (primary and secondary)

A

50% develo chonic renal failure over 10 year span

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Papillary renal cell carcinoma is most commonly related to which condition

A

Trisomy 7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are the morphological findings of malacoplakia

A

Cystitis of bladder with inflammatory exudate and broad, flat plaques involving the entire bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

The majority of children with nephrotic syndrome are due to which cause

A

Primary glomerular disease, with minimal change disease being the highest (95%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are the usual histological findings in RPGN type 2

A

Cell proliferation within the glomerular tuft, along with crescent formation, along with granular IF staining

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are the collecting duct carcinoma characteristics

A

-Showing branching tubules lined by highly atypical cuboidal cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is the diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis characterized by

A

Marked hypercellularity, from the simple mesangial to complex endocapillary cell infiltrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is the prognosis of a primary malignant lymphoma

A

Good prognosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What are the genetic predispositions to urothelial carcinomas

A
  • Chromosome 9 monosomy or deletion

- Chromosome 17 deletions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Minimal change disease will usually develop and is associated following which events

A

Respiratory infection or immunization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

During diabetes, what seems to be the main mechanism of damage to the glomeruli

A

Persistent hyperglycemia causing glucotoxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

In electrophoresis, what is the most common serum proteins and where is it located on electrophoresis

A

-Albumin is the most common, and travels the farthest towards the positive electrode since it is negatively charged

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

During the recovery phase of acute kidney injury, what are the clinical issues

A
  • Hypokalemia

- Susceptibility to infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Goodpasture syndrome is charactertized by which immune components

A

Anti-GBM Antibodies, linear depositis of IgG, C3 in the GBM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Which portion of the kidney is involved in Alpert syndome

A
  • Hereditary

- Glomerular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Neurofibroma of the balder is what kind of tumor

A

Benign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Leiomyosarcoma is what kind of tumor

A

Malignant mesenchymal tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is the process of injury in acute tubular injury

A

Necrotic tubular epithelial cells will detach and localize in the tubule, resulting in obstruction of flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What are the typical findings in the majority of patients with urothelial carcinoma

A

-Non invasive, which can be removed with transurethral resection (TUR), or intravesical therapy, chemo or BCG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What patient population common has IgA nephropathies

A

Most common in the 20-30s and white and Asians, male with some family history

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

IgA nephropathy is which disease if there is no systemic disease

A

Berger disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is the usual clinical presentation of urothelial carcinoma

A

-Painless hematuria

“Dominant clinical finding, as well as typically the only finding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What are the histological findings of the kidney in those patients with DM

A
  • Diffuse, general thickened tubular basement membranes
  • Massive increased in mesangial matrix (narrows capillary lumen)
  • Messangial sclerosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is the localization of immune complexed in the glomerulus during lupus nephritis

A

Subendothelial deposits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is malacoplakia generally associated with

A

Defective phagosome function, usually with chronic infection of E. Coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

IN unilateral multicystic renal dysplasia commonly presents as what

A

Abdominal mass in a child

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What are the characteristics of acquired (dialysis associated) cysts

A

-Cortical and medullary locations, with numerous filled clear fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Which portion of the kidney is involved in wegener granulomatosis

A

Glomerular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What are the characteristics of RPGN or rapidly progressive (crescentic) glomerulonephritis

A

Collapsed, compacted glomerular tufts resulting in:

  • Crescent shaped mass of proliferating visceral and parietal epithelial cells
  • Rapid obliteration of urinary space
  • Infiltrates of macrophages and leukocytes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

During diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis, what is the leukocyte infiltration location

A

Exudative withing the glomerular tuft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What are the characteristics of the minority of patients with urothelial carcinoma

A

-Invasive, needing segmental cystectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

In the cause of urothelial cell carcinoma, what is the result of deletions on chromosome 9 with regards to the type

A

-Superficial and non invasive, with some invasive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What are the preexisting anatomical defeats that are usually present in pyelonephritis

A

Vesicoureteral reflux

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Typical hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) is associated with what

A

-Associated with diarrhea from consuming food with bacteria producing Shiga-like toxin (EHEC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Fibroma of the bladder is what kind of tumor

A

Benign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Which age group is commonly seen to have acute proliferative glomerulonephritis

A

Children

-Much more aversive and serious in adults, presenting with sudden hypertension and edema with elevated BUN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What percentage of papillary tumors are PUNLMP

A

Aka Papillary urothelial neoplasia of low malignant potential (PUNLMP)
-15-20%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

How does acute proliferative glomerulonephritis typically present in a patient

A

Malaise, fever, nausea, oliguria, hematuria with red cells or RBC casts

  • Periorbital edema
  • Hypertension
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Wilms tumor tends to be in which location of the kidney

A

Lower pole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

IN ischemic events, what is the pattern of damage to the tubules

A

Patchy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Polypoid cystitis can commonly be misdiagnosed for which condition

A

Papillary carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

TSC and tuberous sclerosis complex is which hereditary form and is associated with which tumors

A
  • Autosomal dominant

- Tumors or lesions of brain, skin, kidney, heart, lungs, eyes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What is the histology of the anaplasitc Wilms tumor

A
  • Focal or diffuse (diffuse is a bad prognosis)

- Anaplasia tends to be associated with p53 mutations and resistant to chemotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What is interstitial cystitis, aka Hunner Ulcer

A

inflammation and fibrosis of the bladder wall with fissure formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What is polypoid cystitis

A

Inflammatory condition resulting from irritation of the bladder mucosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Malignant arteriolosclerosis is which kind of disease

A

Small vessel disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

How is the most common benign kidney neoplasms defined

A

Aka renal papillary adenoma, defined by the size

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What is the genetic component that is associated with the increased risk for testicular tumors

A

Reduplication of 12p

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What are the general characteristics of NSGCT compared to seminomas

A

-More aggressive and have a poorer prognosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

During the maintenance portion of acute kidney injury, what is the often the clincal issue

A

Hyperkalemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

In patients with acute cystitis (pyruria) will show what

A

WBCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

In membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis (MPGN) type 1, what is the location of deposits

A

-Subendothelial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What is the most common cause of polyploid cystitis

A

Indwelling catheters, and can result in polyploid urothelium resulting from extensive submucosal edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Which portion of the kidney is involved in Henoch-Schonlein purpura

A

Glomerular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What is the prognosis of typical triphasic histomorphology

A

-Favorable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What is the characteristic IF finding in Membranous glomerulopathy

A

“Lumpy-bumpy” granular IgG deposits along the GBM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What age group is commonly affected by fibromusclular dysplasia

A

Younger age group in women

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Which percentage of diabetic kidney patients make up those with ESRD

A

30%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

In the cause of urothelial cell carcinoma, what is the result of deletions on chromosome 17p with regards to the type, and which factor is particularly a bad prognosis

A

Invasive and insitu carcinomas

*P53 deletion is particularly a bad sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What is the characteristic of The autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD)

A

-Enlarged kidneys with numerous small, radical arrayed cysts from the dilated collecting ducts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Most cases of multicystic renal dysplasia present with what

A

Absent ureter, ureteropelvic obstruction or lower GU abnormalities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

During antibody mediated glomerular injury, where is the location of circulating immune complexes depositing

A

Subendothelial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Membranous glomerulopathy shows which characteristics with regards to histology

A
  • Diffuse thickening or capillary walls without the increase in cellularity
  • Spikes seen with silver stain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

What are is the histology of tropical triphasic Wilms tumor

A
  • 3 cell types: blastemal, epithelial (tubules), stromal

- No significant anaplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

What are the primary nephritic syndromes that are associated with protein loss

A
  • Also rarely present with hematuria
  • Minimal change
  • Membranous glomerulopathy
  • Focal Segmental glomerulonephritis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

In anti GBM, where are the antibodies binding and the location of deposition

A

-The basement membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Which patients are at risk for hemorrhagic cystitis

A
  • Receiving cytotoxic anti-tumor drugs

- Adenovirus infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

What are the histological findings in a urothelial neoplasia, particularly the papillary carcinoma

A
  • Severe cytology atypical
  • Hyperchormatic huge nuclei
  • High nucleus/cytoplasmic ratio
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

In membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis (MPGN), what is the location of deposits

A

Intramembranous (aka dense deposit disease)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

What is the most common benign forms of renal neoplasia

A

-Renal papillary adenoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis (MPGN) type 2 (aka dense Deposition disease occurs as which kind

A

Primary, there is no secondary form

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

What are the nonseminomatous tumors as part of the germ cell tumors

A
  • Embryonal carcinoma
  • Yolk sac tumor (endodermal sinus)
  • Choriocarcinoma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis (MPGN) is classified as nephrotic or nephritis

A

Nephrotic, but shows microscopic hematuria along with some other nephritic syndrome features

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

What are the risk factors of renal cell carcinoma

A

Smoking increases by 2x

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

What is a common containing feature of seminomas

A

Contain syncytiotrophoblasts, which increases the levels of HCG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Which specific bacteria is responsible for the large portion of UTIs

A

E. Coli

123
Q

Wilms tumor is associated with which mutations

A

-WT1 mutations

124
Q

Papillary necrosis in those patients with DM commonly look like what

A

Pale, grayish necrosis limited to the papillae

125
Q

Patients with urothelial carcinoma of the kidneys have associated with which conditions

A
  • Concomitant bladder tumors

- Associated with analagesic and Balkan nephropathy

126
Q

What is the average prognosis of renal cell carcinoma

A

Papillary and clear cell

127
Q

What is the effect of uremia on the gastrointestinal system

A

Occult GI bleeding, as nausea and vomiting are common in patients with uremia. Uremic retro (ammonia or urinelike odor to the breath)

128
Q

Which portion of the kidney is involved in Microscopic polyarteritis

A

Glomerular

129
Q

Membranous glomerulopathy falls under which renal disease

A

Nephrotic syndrome

130
Q

Urothelial carcinoma of the kidney is originating from which cells

A

Urothelial of the renal pelvis

131
Q

What is the initial spread of testicular cancer

A

Lymphatic spread, with the para-aortic nodes being first

132
Q

What is the age group that commonly shows interstitial cystitis

A

Aka Hunner Ulncer*

-30-40 year old women

133
Q

The congenital diverticula of the bladder is due to which

A

-Focal failure of development of the normal musculature or some urinary tract obstructive during fetal development

134
Q

Which portion of the kidney is involved in amyloidosis

A

Glomerular

135
Q

Papillary necrosis is commonly caused in which 3 conditions

A
  • analgesia nephropathy
  • Obstruction
  • DM
136
Q

In membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis (MPGN) both type 1 and 2, what is a common result from mesangial proliferation

A

-Proliferation and increased mesangial matrix cause the dissection and “split” of the GBM

137
Q

IgA nephropathy is which disease if there is systemic dieases

A

-Nonoch Schonlein purpura (HSP), usually with skin manifestations and abdominal viscera

138
Q

Benign nephrosclerosis is classified as which kind of vascular diease

A

Small vessel disease

139
Q

Papillary necrosis in those patients with analgesia nephropathy commonly look like what

A

Necrotic papillae slough into calyces

140
Q

80% of patients with a family history of hematuria or recurrent hematuria during childhood have which disorders

A
  • Alport Syndrome

- Thin basement membrane disease (aka benign familial hematuria)

141
Q

Which mutation is in renal angiomyolipomas

A

Loss of TSC1 or TSC2 tumor suppressor genes

142
Q

What is the localization of immune complexed in the glomerulus during membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis

A

Subendothelial deposits

143
Q

IN toxic events, what is the pattern of damage to the tubules

A

Continuous, with some patchy in the ascending loop

144
Q

Nephronopthisis-medullary cystic disease is usually caused due to which mutations

A

MCKD1 and MCKD2

145
Q

What conditions can be found with cryptorchidism

A

Malformation in the GU tract, such as hypospadias

146
Q

Patients with The autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD) are at a higher risk of which conditions

A
  • Nephrolithiasis

- UTI

147
Q

Childhood polycystic kidney disease has what inheritance

A

Autosomal recessive

148
Q

What is the localization of immune complexed in the glomerulus during IgA nephropathy

A

Mesangial deposits

149
Q

What is the characteristic of thin basement membrane disease (aka benign familial hematuria)

A

Hematuria due to thinned glomerular basement membranes

150
Q

What biological factors are curcial in the development of prostate cancers

A

Androgens, as antiandrogens ias a treatment

151
Q

What does the appearance of the vessel look like in fibromusclar dysplasia

A

Almost like the trachea rings in the renal artery

152
Q

In children with recurrent UTI, 33% have which condition

A

Vesicoureteral reflux

153
Q

Urothelial carcinoma of the renal pelvis may lead to which conditions

A

-Hematuria and hydronephrosis and flank pain

154
Q

Clear cell carcinoma has its histological pattern because of what

A

-Glycogen and lipid accumulation

155
Q

What is the treatment for RPGN

A

Treatment of the underlying cause does not respond to plasmaphersis

156
Q

Which type of rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis is characterized in lupus nephritis

A

Type 2 (immune complex)

157
Q

What is the pathogenesis of unilateral renal artery stenosis

A
  • Stenosis causes sympathetic stimulation and hypotension
  • Causes the production of Renin and ACE
  • Increased vasoconstriction in retention of water and salt
158
Q

What percentage of patients progress to chronic glomerulonephritis if the have had Poststreptococcal GN

A

1-2%

159
Q

In a patient with a negative urine culture, what are the exceptions where cystitis can not be ruled out

A

-Patient on the antimicrobial therapy when culture is obtained

160
Q

What is the most common etiology of the large vessel diseases

A

70% are atherosclerosis

161
Q

Arteroembolic renal diseases is defined with which conditions

A
  • Trophy, fibrosis, hemorrhage, necrosis

- Leads to sudden obstruction of blood flow in the renal artery and ischemic kidney infarction with renal failure

162
Q

What is a non renal complication associated with Goodpasture

A

Cross reaction with lung alveolar BM, resulting in pulmonary hemorrhages

163
Q

What is that pathological morphological features of multicystic renal dysplasia

A

Extensive multiple cysts with poorly differentiated mesenchym with cartilage formations and immature collecting ducts

164
Q

What is the prognosis of large vessel diseases

A

Potentially curable form of hypertension

165
Q

Which portion of the kidney is involved in Fabry disease

A
  • Hereditary

- Glomerular

166
Q

What is the usual clinical presenting sign of Minimal change disease

A

Edema

167
Q

Exstrophy is due to what

A

Failure in the anterior wall of the abdomen and the bladder

168
Q

In patients with Nephronopthisis-medullary cystic disease, what is renal failure secondary to

A

Progressive cortical/tubulointersitial damage

169
Q

During antibody mediated glomerular injury, where is the location of In situ Heymann

A

Foot processes

170
Q

Patients with a exstrophy are at an increased risk for which condition

A

-Increased risk for adenocarcinoma

171
Q

What are the typical electron microscopy findings in acute proliferative glomerulonephritis

A

Subepithelial humps of immune complexes

172
Q

A daily dose of what may slow the decline or renal functions in people with chronic kidney disease

A

Folic acid

173
Q

What conditions are associated with Minimal change disease

A
  • Hodgkin lymphoma

- lymphoreticular disease

174
Q

Which portion of the kidney is involved in DM

A

-Glomerular

175
Q

Lipoma in the bladder are what kind of tumors

A

Benign

176
Q

Most primary renal diseases assocaited with rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis are which type and what percentage

A

50% are type 3 (pauci immune) on immunofluorescence

177
Q

Most patients are which with regards to thin basement membrane disease (aka benign familial hematuria)

A

Heterozygous and therefore carriers

178
Q

What conditions are commonly associated with IgA nephropathy

A
  • Hematuria if there is a significant infection
  • Gluten enteropathy
  • Liver disease
179
Q

What is the most common tumor in men from age 15 to 34

A

Testicular germ cell tumor

180
Q

Which factor is present in 95% of prostate cancers

A

PCA3

181
Q

What is the autoimmune antibody that is the cause of the majority of the Membranous glomerulopathy cases

A

PLA2 aka phospholipase A2 receptor

182
Q

What percentage of patients progress to chronic glomerulonephritis if the have had membranoproliferative GN

A

50%

183
Q

What are the morphologies of renal oncocytomas

A
  • Mahogany-brown and well circumscribed with central stellate scar
  • Simulate renal cell carcinoma
184
Q

How common is the adenoma of the prostate

A

Most common form of cancer in men

185
Q

What is the prognosis of acute proliferative glomerulonephritis in adults

A

Not good, as 60% recover completely

186
Q

What are the pathological effects in malignant arteriosclerosis

A
  • Ischemic kidneys

- Elevated renin

187
Q

Usually at the time of diagnosis, what is usually present with regards to urothelial carcinomas

A

-Multiple tumors at the initial diagnosis

188
Q

Which portion of the kidney is involved in bacteria also endocarditis

A

Glomerular

189
Q

What are the bio markers for germ cell tumors of the testis

A
  • HCG
  • AFP
  • Lactate dehydrogenase
190
Q

What diseases notible cause chronic antigenemia in secondary membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis (MPGN) type 1

A
  • Hepatitis C with cyroglobulemia
  • SLE, endocarditis
  • Malignancies
191
Q

What are the characteristics of nephritic syndrome

A
  • Glomerular disease with visible hematuria
  • mild to moderate proteinuria
  • Hypertension
192
Q

Which type of rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis is characterized in ANCA-associated

A

Type 3 (pauci-immune)

193
Q

Which condition has the histological appearance of cambium layer, defined as a cluster of tumor cells located directly beneath the epithelium, resulting in a nevoid appearance

A

Botryoid rhabdomyosarcoma

194
Q

In patients with patent urachus remnant/cysts are at a higher risks of developing which conditions

A

Infections, and then carcinomas of the cysts

195
Q

Which type of rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis is characterized in microscopic polyangiitis

A

Type 3 (pauci-immune)

196
Q

What is the most common cause of chronic renal failure/end stage renal disease

A

Diabetes

197
Q

How does nephronopthsis medullary cystic disease present

A

With polyuria and polydipsia

198
Q

What type of tumor is inverted papilloma tumor

A

Urothelial tumor

199
Q

What is the result of acute kidney damage that leads to a GFR reduction to 30-50% of normal

A

Progression to ESRF at a steady rate, completely independent of all other factors

200
Q

What are the predisposing factors for kidney stone formation

A
  • Increased concentration of stone constitutes
  • Changes in urinary pH
  • Decreased urine volume
  • Presence of bacteria
201
Q

Most spread of renal cell carcinoma is typically which spread

A

Hematogenous (usually invasion of the renal vein)

202
Q

Which type of rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis is characterized in Goodpastures

A 
Type 1 (Anti-GBM antibody) 
*Renal limited
203
Q

What are the characteristics in the urine cytology in urothelial neoplasia

A

High specificity (95%) but low sensitivity

204
Q

What is cryptorchidism and what risk does it increase

A

Complete or partial failure of the testes to descend, and is associated with an increased risk for testicular cancer

205
Q

What is the most frequent presentation of membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis (MPGN)

A

Combined proteinuria and hematuria

206
Q

What is the most morphology of the bladder cancers

A

Papilloma aka papillae carcinoma

207
Q

What is type 3 RPGN defined as

A

Lack of anti-GBM antibodies or immune complexes

208
Q

What type of tumor is a exophytic papilloma

A

Urothelial tumor

209
Q

In papillary renal cell carcinoma has which histological finding

A

Papillae and foamy macrophages in stalk

210
Q

Which part of the tubules are exceptionally susceptible to ischemia

A

Proximal tubular epithelial cells because of the high energy requirements

211
Q

What is the triad of symptoms in renal cell carcinoma

A
  • Hematuria (50%)
  • Costovertebral pain (20%)
  • Palpable flank mass (10%)
212
Q

Wilms tumors usually arise from which precursor lesions

A

Nephrogenic rests, 100% bilateral

213
Q

Which type of rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis is characterized in granulomatosis with polyangiitis

A

Type 3 (Pauci-immune)

214
Q

What are the characteristics of sarcomatoid renal cell carcinoma

A
  • Spindle cells stimulating a mesenchymal neoplasm

- May arise in part of renal cell carcinoma, which is an even worse prognosis

215
Q

What are the two most commone etiologies in causing nephrotic syndrome in systemic diseases

A
  • DM

- SLE

216
Q

Which condition is focal segmental glomerulosclerosis (FSGS) associated with

A

-HIV infection, which may even show the rare “collapsing form”

217
Q

What are the characteristics of rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis

A

Nephritic syndrome with rapid decline in GFR

218
Q

Lymphoma of the bladder is what kind of tumor

A

Malignant, usually Non-Hodgkin lymphoma

219
Q

What is the treatment for Minimal change disease

A

-Dramatic response to corticosteroid treatment, which almost serves as a diagnostic feature

220
Q

What is the prognosis of patients with exstrophy

A

Surgery will give high long term survival

221
Q

What is the characteristics finding of renal oncocytoma on electronmicrospy

A

Packed with mitochondria

222
Q

What is the best prognosis in renal cell carcinoma

A

-Chromophobe

223
Q

What is the epidemiology of urothelial carcinomas

A

-More common in white males in industrial areas

224
Q

Adult polycystic kidney disease has what inheritance

A

Autosomal dominant

225
Q

What is the most dominant clinical finding in Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis (MPGN) type 2 (aka dense Deposition disease

A

Hematuria with 50% having nephritic syndrome

226
Q

Which form of autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD), has a better prognosis

A

PDK2

227
Q

What is the immunofluorescence pattern of staining in all cases of Type 2 RPGN

A

Granular pattern of staining

228
Q

What is the triggering event that leads to acute proliferative glomerulonephritis

A
  • Immune complex injury triggered by exogenous bacterial, fungal, viral antigen
  • Especially Strep B
229
Q

Squamous cell carcinoma of the penis usually due to which factors

A

Poor hygiene and high HPV risk

230
Q

What is the fluorescent staining pattern in Goodpasture and anti-GBM

A

Linear with IgG

231
Q

What are the characteristics of the perinatal form of The autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease (ARPKD)

A
  • 90% of collecting ducts are cystic, with minimal hepatic fibrosis
  • Survival is only a few hours, usually with hypoplastic lungs
232
Q

Thrombin microangiopathies are commonly caused by which conditions

A

Resulting in the over activation of platelets:

  • Endothelial cell injury and activation, intravascular thrombosis (HUS)
  • Platelet Activation and aggregation (TTP)
233
Q

What is the clinical significance of renal angiomyolipoma

A

With renal cell carcinoma, but can massive hemmorhage, so there is initial presentation with shock

234
Q

Bence Jones proteinuria primarily affects which location of the kidneys

A

Tubules

235
Q

Which type of rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis is characterized in postinfetious glomerulonephritis

A

Type 2 (immune complex)

236
Q

Cystitis of the urinary tract are due to what

A

Infectious, usually bacteria

237
Q

What is the most common form fo non-epithelial tumors of the bladder and in general, how common are they

A

Non-epithelial tumors in general are uncommon, with he leiomyoma being the most common

238
Q

What is the prognosis of acute proliferative glomerulonephritis in children

A

Very good with 95% recovering

239
Q

Type 2 immune complex deposition RPGN are assoacited with which conditions

A

-Lupus

IgA nephropathy

240
Q

What is the prognosis of most Wilms tumor in children

A

> 90% survive 4 years

241
Q

What is the effect of uremia on cardiovascular system

A

Uremic pericarditis is very common, usually cause the conditions such as hypertension, atherosclerosis, CHF, and angina get worse during uremia

242
Q

What is the localization of immune complexed in the glomerulus during acute glomerulonephritis

A

Subepithelial humps

243
Q

Secondary membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis (MPGN) type 1 presents in which patients

A

Adults

244
Q

“Wire loops” and deposits in the mesangium are primarily due to which condition

A

SLE

245
Q

Which resisting conditions predispose a patient to pyelonephritis

A

Diabetes and pregnancy

246
Q

Angiomyolipomas have a strong association with which condition

A

-Tuberous sclerosis

247
Q

Thrombotic thrombocytopenia purpura (TTP) is defined by which conditions

A

Deficiencies in ADAMTS13, which regulates vWF

-Very prominent neurological involvement *****

248
Q

Which cases of The autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD) is more aggressive

A
  • African Americans
  • Male
  • Hypertension
249
Q

The majority of urinary bladder tumors are what origin

A

Urothial epithelial aka transitional cell tumors

250
Q

What are the known toxins that can lead to urethral neoplasia

A
  • Smoking
  • Certain dyes
  • phenacetin
  • Cyclophosphamide
251
Q

What are the typical immunofluorescence microscopy findings in acute proliferative glomerulonephritis

A

-Granular depositions of IgG, IgM, C3 along the mesangium leading to “humps”

252
Q

Malacoplakia is which type of condition

A

Special form of cystitis

253
Q

What is the makeup of the majority of the stones in the kidney

A

-Calcium oxalate and phosphate (70%)

254
Q

What are the characteristics of the chromophobe renal cell carcinoma

A

Pale, eosinophilic cells are arranged in solid sheets, well defined cell membranes with granular cytoplasms with perinuclear clear halos, usually around blood vessels

255
Q

Which syndrome is the cause of an electron microscopy of the basement membrane to look “frayed” or “moth eaten”

A

Alport syndrome

256
Q

What percentage of patients progress to chronic glomerulonephritis if the have had membranous nephropathy

A

30-50%

257
Q

What is the condition that is characterized histologically by infiltrates of multicellular giant cells, with laminated mineralized concretions in the macrophages, which are the result of deposition in abnormal enlarged lysosomes

A

Aka Michaelis-Gutmann bodies seen in malacoplakia

258
Q

What percentage of patients progress to chronic glomerulonephritis if the have had focal segmental glomerulosclerosis

A

50-80%

259
Q

Patients with Klinefelter syndrome are assoaicted with increased risk for which condition

A

Mediastinal germ cell tumors

260
Q

What are the risk factors for urothelial carcinomas

A
  • Cigarete smoke and industrial exposure to arylamines
  • Shistosoma hematobium (squamous cell carcinoma)
  • long term use of analgesic and cyclophosphamide (nitrogen mustard)
261
Q

What are the two most common forms of The autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease (ARPKD)

A
  • Perinatal (most common)

- Neonatal

262
Q

What percentage of patients progress to chronic glomerulonephritis if the have had IgA nephritis

A

30-50%

263
Q

Infarcts of the kidney are most commonly due to what

A

Embolism, usually with mural thrombosis form left side of heart

264
Q

What is a very bad prognosis for renal cell carcinoma

A

-Histology of collecting duct, sarcomatoid, and medullary

265
Q

What is nephrotic syndrome characterized by

A
  • Severe proteinuria
  • Hypoalbuminemia
  • Severe edema
  • Hyperlipidemia
  • Lipiduria
266
Q

Primary membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis (MPGN) type 1 primarily presents in which patients

A

Young adults and children

267
Q

What is the major histological finding of PUNLMP

A

Thickened epithelial covering the papillary projections

268
Q

“Flea bitten” appearance of the kidneys is the result of which condition

A

Malignant arteriolosclerosis

269
Q

What are the typical renal lesions seen in diabetic nephropathy

A
  • Glomerular lesions
  • Vascular lesions (arteriolosclerosis)
  • Pyelonephritis (necrotizing papillitis)
270
Q

Most patients with type 3, aka pauciimmune, RPGN have which circulating antibody

A

ANCA

271
Q

Which type of rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis is characterized in Henoch-Schonlein purpura

A

Type 2 (immune complex)

272
Q

Which portion of the kidney is involved in thin basement membrane disease

A
  • Hereditary

- Glomerular

273
Q

Xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis is commonly caused by which pathogen

A

Proteus

274
Q

What is the classical type of seminoma

A

Spermatocytic seminoma

275
Q

What is the characteristics and prognosis of a stage 1 bladder cancer

A

-high survival rate (95%), with high recurrence following treatment, but will not cause death

276
Q

What is the second most common cause of chronic renal failure/end stage renal disease

A

High blood pressure

277
Q

Most testicular germ cell tumors originate from which precursor lesion

A

-Intratubular germ cell neoplasia (ITGCN)

278
Q

Alport syndrome will show which characteristic in electron microscopy

A

Orregualr thickening of the basement membrane, lamination of the lamin densa, and foci of rarefacttion, giving a “moth eaten” or “frayed”look

279
Q

What is the result of steroid therapy for membranous glomerulopathy

A

Not very good, with high recurrence in transplanted patients

280
Q

What is the pathogenesis of thin basement membrane disease (aka benign familial hematuria)

A

Mutations in the genes for alpha3 or 4 in type 4 collagen

281
Q

In nephronopthsis, aka medullary cystic disease, where are the cysts localized to

A

Corticomedullary junction and medulla

282
Q

What commonly results in polar scarring of the kidneys

A

VUS with chronic pyelonephritis

283
Q

During antibody mediated glomerular injury, where is the location of in situ Deposition

A

Basement membrane

284
Q

What is the definition of benign nephrosclerosis and what is the effects

A

Hyaline sclerosis of the renal arterioles and small arteries, leading ot multifocal ischemia

285
Q

What is the result of toxic injury in acute kidney injury (ATN) due to ethylene glycol

A

Widespread proximal tubule epithelial injury, especially with the PCT showing swelling and vacuilization

286
Q

Which portion of the kidney is involved in Goodpastures syndome

A

Glomerular

287
Q

What kind of disease is fibromusclar dysplasia

A

Large vessel disease

288
Q

What is the result of a silver stain in Membranous glomerulopathy

A

-Showing “spikes” that produce a dome like protrusion

289
Q

What is the gene in autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD)

A
  • PKD1, which is a integral membrane glycoprotein (85% of cases)
  • PKD2, with is a calcium channel (15% of cases)
290
Q

Pyelonephritis is almost causes which which infection

A

Ascending infection of the bladder

291
Q

What is the most common overall cause of nephrotic syndrome in adults

A

Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis

292
Q

Which type of rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis is characterized in IgA nephropathy

A

Type 2 (immune complex

293
Q

What characteristics can be used to differentiate between FSGS and MCD

A
  • Higher incidence of hematuria, reduced GFR, and hypertension
  • Proteinuria is nonselective
  • Poor response to steroids
  • significant progression to ESRD
294
Q

What type of proteinuria is shown in Minimal change disease

A

Highly selective

295
Q

Most Wilms tumor patients are due to what

A

90% are Sporadic in normally healthy children with no congenital abnormalities or genetic syndromes

296
Q

What percentage of urothelial neosplasias are papillary and what is the characteristics

A

30%, usually with a high recurrence rate and high grade

297
Q

What are the effects of uremia seen in the cutaneous tissue

A

Fluid retention, pruritis associated with calcium phosphate depositions and nail atrophy

298
Q

Which portion of the kidney is involved in SLE

A

-Glomerular

299
Q

What is the azotemia

A

Biochemical abnormality that is due to elevation of the blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels as a result of decreased GFR

300
Q

What are the characteristics of the majority of benign renal neoplasms

A
  • Rarely clinical problems

- Small, but can cause oncocytomas or angiomyolipomas

301
Q

What is the localization of immune complexed in the glomerulus during Heymann glomerulonephritis

A

Epimembranous deposits

302
Q

What conditions is commonly associated with secondary membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis (MPGN) type 1

A

Chronic antigenemia leading to immune complex deposition

303
Q

How does a bladder presentation fo a flat lesion compare to that of a papillary lesions

A

Flat will just provide discomfort while the papilloma with cause hematuria

304
Q

In SLE, which antibody deposits and in which locations

A

IgG, usually in the mesangial and capillary wall

Robbins Pathology Renal (Chaptr 20,21) (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions