Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

First Aid > Pathology Day 2 > Flashcards

Pathology Day 2 Flashcards

1
Q

In what stage of wound healing do you see clot formation?

A

Inflammatory (up to 3 days after wound)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the time periods for the 3 stages of wound healing?

A
  1. Inflammatory = 0 days - 3 days
  2. Proliferative = 3 days - weeks
  3. Remodeling = 1 week - 6 months

*memory: If you take a week (7 days) and split it in half, you get the layout…. 0-3, 3-7, and 7+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

In what stage of wound healing do you see angiogenesis?

A

Proliferative (granulation tissue= angiogenesis and fibroblasts)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

In what stage of wound healing do you see wound contraction?

A

Proliferative (the myofibroblasts in the granulation tissue pull it in)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

In what stage of wound healing do you see clot dissolution?

A

Proliferative (clot formation = inflammatory)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

In what stage of healing do you see type 1 collagen?

A

Remodeling (type 3 is replaced by type 1, with the help of collagenase and zinc)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Why does vitamin C deficiency cause delayed wound healing?

A

Because vitamin C is a co-factor for the hydroxylation of proline and lysine residues on pro-collagen, so that the alpha triple helix can be made –> no hydroxylation = looser triple helix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Why does zinc deficiency cause poor wound healing?

A

Collagenase (removes type 3 collagen to be replaced with type 1) needs zinc as a cofactor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the 8 infectious diseases that cause granulomas?

A
  1. Bartonella henselae (cat scratch disease)
  2. Francisella tularensis
  3. Listeria monocytogenesis (infantiseptica)
  4. M. leprae (Leprosy/Hansen disease)
  5. M. tuberculosis
  6. Treponema pallidum (syphilis… tertiary only)
  7. Schistosomiasis
  8. Fungal infections
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What vessel polyangiitis disease cause granulomas? How is each diagnosed?

A
  1. Wegeners (Granulomatosis with polyangiitis) – bloody nose, cough, urine
    * *C-ANCA**
  2. Churg-Strauss (Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis) - asthma, neuropathy
    * *P-ANCA**
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What stain do we use for TB?

A

AFB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What stain do we use for fungi?

A

silver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which abdominal problem causes granulomas?

A

Crohn’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How are granulomas maintained?

A

Th1 -> IFN gamma -> macrophages -> TNFalpha

*memory: T-I-Me To make a granuloma (Th1, iiiiinterferon, mmmmacrophages, tttttnf)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Before starting anti-TNF alpha therapy for ankylosing spondylitis, what other disease must you check for?

A

Tuberculosis, because anti-TNFalpha drugs can cause sequestering granulomas to break down, leading to disseminated TB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Transudate vs. exudate: Which is protein rich?

A

exudate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Transudate vs. exudate: Which is cellular?

A

exudate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the cutoff for a specific gravity value of transudate vs. exudate?

A

1.020 (exudate is higher, transudate is lower)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What 3 processes cause exudate?

A
  1. Inflammation
  2. Malignancy
  3. Lymphatic obstruction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What 3 processes cause transudate?

A
  1. Heart failure (increased hydrostatic pressure)
  2. Cirrhosis (decreased oncotic pressure)
  3. Sodium retention
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the physiologic reason why ESR indicates inflammation?

A

Products of inflammation, like fibrinogen, coat RBCs and cause them to aggregate, which makes them heavier, so they will have a higher ESR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Does PREGNANCY cause a high or low ESR?

A

high

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Does SICKLE CELL cause a high or low ESR?

A

Low (sickled cells don’t fall as fast, they have like little parachutes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Does POLYCYTHEMIA cause a high or low ESR?

A

Low (dilutes out aggregation factors)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Does HEART FAILURE cause a high or low ESR?
Low *memory: Think of everything failing including your fragment stuff
26
Does CANCER cause a high or low ESR?
High
27
What shape does amyloid like to take on?
Beta pleated sheet
28
What causes AL amyloid?
Multiple myeloma (Ig light chains)
29
What causes AA amyloid?
Chronic inflammation (RA, IBD, spondyloarthritis, infection) -- serum amyloid A accumulation
30
What causes dialysis-related amyloid?
Fibrils of beta2-microglobulins *memory: you want 2B dialysis free NOTE: Can present as carpal tunnel
31
What causes heritable amyloid?
transthyretin gene mutation
32
What causes senile/age-related amyloidosis?
transthyretin
33
Which form of amyloid is often asymptomatic?
Senile/age-related (present in 25% of people over 80 yrs old)
34
What cause amyloid deposition in Alzheimer disease?
Beta-amyloid protein (cleaved from Amyloid Precursor Protein) NOTE: This is present on chromosome 21, which is why Downs syndrome more likely to get Alz *memory: remember to ALZo B A (beta-amyloid) Perfect Person (APP)
35
What type of amyloid is seen in type 2 diabetics?
Amylin deposition -> Islet amyloid polypeptide (IAPP)
36
What is lipofuscin?
A "wear and tear" pigment associated with normal aging. Formed by oxidation and polymerization of autophagocytosed roganellar membranes
37
What is the difference between dysplasia and carcinoma in situ?
Carcinoma in situ has increased N:C ratios, clumped chromatin, and takes up the whole thickness of the epithelium (whole epithelium is when CIN3 becomes CIS)
38
What is P-glycoprotein? What disease is it associated with?
A multi drug resistance protein (MDR1) classically seen in adrenal cell carcinoma that pumps out chemotherapeutic agents, so allows cancer cells to resist chemotherapy
39
What is the difference between metaplasia and dysplasia?
``` metaplasia = replaced by another MATURE cell type dysplasia = replaced by immature cells ```
40
What is anaplasia?
Loss of cell differentiation; reverting to immature. May see big cells with single large nucleus or several nuclei.
41
Is neoplasia = malignant?
No, you can get benign neoplasia. Neoplasia is just an excessive clonal proliferation.
42
What is desmoplasia?
Fibrous tissue formation in response to a neoplasm (ex: linitis plastica in diffuse stomach cancer)
43
How do most carcinomas spread?
lymphatics
44
How do most sarcomas spread?
blood
45
What mediates cachexia?
TNF-alpha (cachexia, fever, granulomas)
46
Which carcinomas are STRANGE in that they like to spread via blood instead of lymphatics?
1. Renal cell carcinoma (renal vein) 2. Hepatocellular carcinoma (hepatic vein) 3. Choriocarcinoma 4. Follicular thyroid carcinoma *memory: Folliculary thyroid Flows to the blood
47
Where does ovarian cancer like to seed?
omentum (omental caking)
48
What is acanthuses nigricans associated with?
1. Insulin resistance | 2. Malignancy
49
What does Barrett esophagus predispose to?
Adenocarcinoma (NOT squamous!)
50
Wht does chronic atrophic gastritis predispose to?
Gastric adenocarcinoma (Can be a T-cell atrophic gastritis that causes B12 deficiency, or can be an H-pylori gastritis)
51
What disease predisposes you to colonic adenocarcinoma?
Ulcerative colitis
52
What is the precursor to SCC of the skin?
Actinic keratosis
53
What does dermatomyositis and polymyositis predispose to?
Genitourinary malignancy | Note: Btoh do symmetric progressive proximal muscle weakness derma = CD4, rash (poly = CD8)
54
What is the precursor to malignant melanoma?
Dysplastic nevus
55
What does Paget disease of the bone predispose you to?
Osteosarcoma + fibrosarcoma
56
What does Plummer-Vinson syndrome predispose you to?
SCC of the esophagus | PVS = dysphagia, iron-deficiency anemia, esophageal webs, beefy red tongue
57
What are the clinical signs of tuberous sclerosis?
HAMARTOMAS ``` Hamartomas Angiomyolipoma (ex: over both kidneys) Mental retardation Ash-leaf spots (white skin) Rhabdomyoma (esp. cardiac) Ts O autosomal dOminant Mitral regurg Angiofibroma (spots on skin) Seizures Shagreen patches (bumpy/fungus skin) ``` subependymal astrocytomas ungual fibromas
58
What cancers does AIDS predispose to? Immunodeficiency in general?
AIDS: Lymphoma, Kaposi Immunodef: Lymphoma, Melanoma, RCC
59
What does hashimoto's thyroiditis predispose to?
Lymphoma
60
What does SLE predispose to?
Lymphoma
61
What cancer does Down syndrome predispose to?
ALL *memory: we ALL fall DOWN
62
What cancers are involved in Li-Fraumeni syndrome? What mutation is it associated with?
Sarcoma, breast, leukemia, adrenal gland p53 mutation
63
What cancers does radiation predispose to?
Leukemia, sarcoma, papillary thyroid, breast
64
What gene product and tumor is associated with BCR-ABL?
Tyrosine Kinase CML, ALL *memory: Ty-ro-sine is 3 syllables, and ALL CaMeLs have 3 humps (lets pretend they do)
65
What gene product and tumor is associated with BCL-2?
Apaf-1 (no apoptosis) Follicular lymphoma, undifferentiated lymphoma *memory: BCL-2 takes care of YOU (its anti-apoptic) and your Feelings (Follicular)
66
What gene product and tumor is associated with BRAF?
Serine/threonine kinase Melanoma, Non-hodgkin Lymphoma *memory: Sir Brave (Serine, BRAF) is tall, dark (Melanoma) and over 21 (Non-hodgkin)
67
What gene product and tumor is associated with c-kit?
Cytokine receptor GIST (gastrointestinal stromal tumor) *memory: C-kid, its a Cytokine, you get the GIST
68
What gene product and tumor is associated with c-myc?
Transcription factor Burkitt Lymphoma *memory: microphones (myc) in a factory (transcription factor) AND *memory: kids seem-like (c-myc) they are booking it (Burkitt) from ages 11 to 14 (t11;14)
69
What gene product and tumor is associated with HER2/neu?
Tyrosine kinase Breast, ovarian, gastric *memory: women have breasts, ovaries, and big tummies Same as erbB2
70
What gene product and tumor is associated with erbB2?
Tyrosine kinase Breast, ovarian, gastric *memory: women have breasts, ovaries, and big tummies Same as HER2/neu
71
What gene product and tumor is associated with L-myc?
Transcription factor Lung tumor * memory: microphones in a factory (myc stuff will always be transcription factors) * memory: LLLLL myc for LLLLung
72
What gene product and tumor is associated with N-myc?
Transcription factor Neuroblastoma * memory: microphones in a factory (myc = transcription factor stuff) * memory: NNNNN my for NNNNueroblastoma
73
What gene product and tumor is associated with RAS?
GTPase Colon, lung, pancreatic cancer *memory: It's a RACE (ras) to Get To the toP (GTPase), so you jump from colon -> pancreas -> lung
74
What gene product and tumor is associated with RET?
Tyrosine kinase Men 2A, Men 2B, medullary thyroid cancer *memory: from the endocrine section! Men like to WRECK (RET) things
75
What are the tumors associated with MEN1?
Parathyroid Pancreas (ZE, VIPoma, insulinoma) Pituitary *memory: Theres always that ONE MAN that wants to be your pa-pa-pi
76
What are the tumors associated with MEN 2A?
Medullary thyroid carcinoma Parathyroid Pheochromocytoma *memory: Men love to go TO A (2A) MEDiocre PoRn Film
77
What are the tumors associated with MEN 2B?
Medullary thyroid carcinoma Pheochromocytoma Ganglioneuromas/mucosal neuromas *memory: Men love TO BE (2B) MEDiocre Film Guests
78
What single physical finding are MEN 2A and 2B associated with?
Marfinoid habitus
79
What tumor is associated with APC?
Colorectal cancer *memory: Appreciate your Colon
80
What gene product and tumor is associated with BRCA1/BRCA2?
DNA repair Breast and ovarian cancer *memory: BRCA repairs DNA BReaks
81
What tumor is associated with DCC?
colon cancer *memory: Deleted in Colon Cancer
82
What tumor is associated with DPC4/SMAD4?
pancreatic cancer *memory: Deleted in Pancreatic Cancer
83
What gene product is associated with MEN1?
Menin
84
What gene product and tumor is associated with NF1?
Ras GTPase activation protein = neurofibromin = a negative regulator of Ras (because GTPase cleaves Ras to give the signal) Neurofibromatosis type 1 ---> hamartomas, pheochromocytomas, optic gliomas, neurofibromas
85
What gene product and tumor is associated with NF2?
Merlin protein = schwannomin protein Neurofibromatosis type 2 --> bilateral acoustic neuromas *memory: Its elusive, like a wizard (merlin)
86
What gene product and tumor is associated with p16?
Cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitor 2A Melanoma *memory: Every 16 year old Princess tans so much as to get Melanoma. She should Stop the Cycle.
87
What gene product and tumor is associated with p53?
Blocks G1 -> S phase by being a transcription factor for p21 Li-Fraumeni syndrome (and tons of other cancers)
88
What tumors are associated with PTEN?
Breast, prostate, endometrial *memory: private areas you want to PreTENd don't get cancer
89
What gene product and tumor is associated with Rb?
Blocks G1->S phase by inhibiting E2F Retinoblastoma, Osteosarcoma
90
p53 and Rb are both loss of function or gain of function mutations?
loss of function (both alleles must be lost)
91
What gene product and tumor is associated with TSC1?
Hamartin protein Tuberous sclerosis --> subependymal astrocytomas, ungural fibromas, rhabdomyoma, angiomyoma, angiofibroma, hamartoma *memory: Hammer Time (hamartin for 1, tuber in for 2)
92
What gene product and tumor is associated with TSC2?
Tuberin protein Tuberous sclerosis *memory: Hammer Time (hamartin for 1, tuber in for 2)
93
What gene product and tumor is associated with VHL?
Inhibits hypoxia inducible factor 1a | VHL disease --> hemangioblastoma, pheochromocytoma, renal cell carcinoma
94
What gene product and tumor is associated with WT1 and WT2?
Nephroblastoma (Wilm's tumor)
95
Can tumor markers be used to diagnose cancer?
NO! Only for screening and to monitor recurrence/response to therapy
96
What is Alk Phos a marker for?
Mets to the bone Mets to the liver Paget disease of the bone Seminoma (from the placenta?)
97
What is AFP a marker for?
Hepatocellulcar carcinoma Hepatoblastoma Yolk sac tumor (from the endodermal sinus?) Mixed germ cell tumor Pregnancy (transient) Neural tube defects Abdominal wall defects If low: Down syndrome
98
Significance of high b-HCG?
Hydatiform mole Choriocarcinoma Testicular cancer Mixed germ cell tumor NOTE: made by syncytiotrophoblasts
99
Significance of high CA 15-3?
Breast cancer
100
Significance of high CA 27-29?
Breast cancer
101
Significance of high 19-9?
Pancreatic adenocarcinoma *memory: the number 9 looks like the letter p for pancreas
102
Significance of high CA 125?
Ovarian cancer
103
Significance of high Calcitonin?
Medullary thyroid carcinoma HINT: Watch out for this in MEN2A and Men2B. Medullary thyroid (mediocre) and film (pheochromo) are in both... parathyroid (porn) and guest (glioma) is different
104
Significance of high CEA?
Very non-specific, but found in: Colorectal cancer Pancreatic cancer *memory: Casually Estimate And guess (CEA) And sometimes in: Gastric Breast Medullary thyroid
105
Significance of high chromogranin?
Neuroendocrine tumors (carcinoid)
106
Significance of high PSA?
Prostate cancer BPH Prostatitis
107
Which cancers are associated with Ebstein-Barr virus?
Burkitt Lymphoma Hodgkin Lymphoma Nasopharyngeal carcinoma (neck mass in chinese man) If immunocompromised: Primary CNS lymphoma *memory: you get the kissing disease if you are Dr. Burke (Burkitt), you're young and sexy (Hodgkin), a neck slut (Nasopharyngeal), or crazy in the head (CNS lymphoma)
108
Which cancers are associated with HBV and HCV?
Hepatocellular carcinoma
109
Which cancers are associated with HHV-8? How does treatment change depending on the patient?
Kaposi sarcoma If in an old man: Excise it If in an AIDS patient: Boost immunity
110
Which cancers are associated with HPV? Which types?
Cervical carcinoma Penile carcinoma Anal carcinoma Head and neck cancer Types: 16,18
111
Which cancers are associated with H Pylori?
``` Gastric adenocarcinoma (chronic gastritis) MALT lymphoma ```
112
Which cancers are associated with HTLV1?
Adult T cell leukemia/lymphoma
113
Which cancers are associated with Liver Fluke (clonorchis sinensis)?
Cholangiocarcinoma *memory: think of a little (Liver) fluke getting up into your bile ducts
114
Which cancers are associated with schistosomiasis?
SCC of the bladder
115
Which cancers are associated with Aflatoxins?
Hepatocellular carcinoma
116
Which cancers are associated with Alkylating agents? How do alkylating agents work?
Leukemia/lymphoma Attach an alkyl group to guanine in DNA Ex: If you treated someone with Wegners granulomatosis with polyangitis with cyclophosphamide
117
Which cancers are associated with Aromatic amines like 2-naphthylamine?
Bladder (transitional cell carcinoma)
118
Which cancers are associated with Arsenic, like in cig smoke? How would you test for this?
Angiosarcoma of the liver Lung cancer Squamous cell carcinoma of the skin
119
What are the carcinogens in cig smoke? Which is most important?
``` Polycyclic Hydrocarbons *most important Arsenic Aromatic amines (2-naphthylamine) ```
120
Which cancers are associated with Asbestos? Which is more likely?
Mesothelioma | Bronchogenic lung carcinoma **more likely
121
Which pathologies are associated with CCl4?
Centrilobular necrosis of the liver Fatty change in the liver NOTE: Induced by free radicals. First cells swell, then fatty change, then necrosis.
122
Which 7 cancers are associated with cig smoke?
``` Esophageal - SCC or Adeno Larynx - SCC Lung - SCC or Small Cell Kidney - RCC Bladder - Transitional cell Pancreas - Adeno Cervix ```
123
Which cancers are associated with ethanol?
SCC of the esophagus Pancreatic cancer Hepatocellular carcinoma
124
Which cancers are associated with ionizing radiation?
Papillary thyroid carcinoma AML CML *memory: PAC in that radiation
125
Which cancers are associated with nitrosamines/smoked foods?
Gastric cancer (intestinal type) - esp in Japan
126
Which cancers are associated with Radon?
Lung cancer *#2 cause of lung cancer after cig smoke
127
Which cancers are associated with Vinyl Chloride (an occupational thing found in PVC pipes)?
Angiosarcoma of the liver *memory: ANGIE is either looking for ARSe (arsenic) or flirting with Vinny (vinyl chloride) high yield because a definitive study was done
128
Which cancers cause high 1,25-OH-D?
Hodgkin lymphoma | Non-hodgkin lymphoma
129
Which cancers cause excess ACTH?
Small cell lung carcinoma | Renal cell carcinom
130
Which cancers cause excess ADH?
Small cell lung carcinoma | Intracranial neoplasms
131
Which cancers cause antibodies against presynaptic calcium channels at the NMJ (Lambert-Earton)?
Small cell lung carcinoma
132
Which cancers cause elevated EPO?
``` Renal cell carcinoma Hemangioblastoma Hepatocellular carcinoma Leimyoma Pheochromocytoma ```
133
Which cancers cause elevated PTHrp?
Squamous cell lung carcinoma Renal cell carcinoma Breast cancer
134
Which cancers cause psammoma bodies?
Papillary carcinoma of the thyroid Serous adenocarcinoma of the ovary Meningioma Mesothelioma
135
What are the #1,2,3 cancers by incidence?
1. Prostate/Breast 2. Lung 3. Colon/Rectum
136
What are the #1,2,3 cancers by mortality?
1. Lung 2. Prostate/Breast 3. Colon/rectum
137
What are the #1,2,3 causes of death in the US in adults?
1. CV disease 2. Cancer 3. Stroke
138
What are the #1,2,3 causes of death in the US in kids?
1. Accidents 2. Cancer 3. Congenital
139
Where do brain mets usually come from?
Lung > breast > prostate > melanoma > GI *memory: Log on to Brainscape for your Paper Money Guarantee
140
Where do liver mets usually come from?
Colon >>> Stomach > Pancreas *memory: Cool Colors Steal the Prize (2 C's for super >>)
141
Where do bone mets usually come from?
Prostate, Breast > kidney, thyroid, lung *memory: PBKTL (lead kettle)
142
What % of brain tumors are from mets?
50%
143
What do mets to the brain usually look like?
Well-circumscribed (WEIRD!) tumors at the gray/white junction
144
What are the 2 most common sties of mets in general?
Liver and Lung | *memory: Love the Liver and Lung remember red infarcts likely in liver, lung, and intestines because good blood supply
145
What % of bone tumors are mets?
A lot. Way more common than primary bone tumor.
146
Which bone mets are blastic? (the rest are lytic)
Prostate mets | sometimes breast mets
147
Where in the skeleton do bone mets tend to go?
Akial skeleton
148
What tumor is associated with t(14;18)?
Follicular lymphoma *memory: BCL2 takes care of YOU (antiapoptotic) but Following you (follicular) until you are an adult (18)
149
What chromosome has immunoglobulin heavy chain on it? What tumors are involved with it?
Chromosome 14 (*memory: I Got Good looking at age 14... IgG, 14) Burkitt lymphoma = t(8;14) (c-myc) *kids CeeM to Bookit from ages 8 to 14 Mantle cell lymphoma = t(11;14) (cyclin D1) *you start to want the D at ages 11 to 14, you put boys on a MANTLE Follicular lymphoma = t(14;18) (Bcl2) *Bcl2 takes care of YOU by Following you around until you are an adult age 18

First Aid (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions