Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

First Aid > Pathology Day 2 > Flashcards

Pathology Day 2 Flashcards

1
Q

In what stage of wound healing do you see clot formation?

A

Inflammatory (up to 3 days after wound)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the time periods for the 3 stages of wound healing?

A
  1. Inflammatory = 0 days - 3 days
  2. Proliferative = 3 days - weeks
  3. Remodeling = 1 week - 6 months

*memory: If you take a week (7 days) and split it in half, you get the layout…. 0-3, 3-7, and 7+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

In what stage of wound healing do you see angiogenesis?

A

Proliferative (granulation tissue= angiogenesis and fibroblasts)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

In what stage of wound healing do you see wound contraction?

A

Proliferative (the myofibroblasts in the granulation tissue pull it in)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

In what stage of wound healing do you see clot dissolution?

A

Proliferative (clot formation = inflammatory)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

In what stage of healing do you see type 1 collagen?

A

Remodeling (type 3 is replaced by type 1, with the help of collagenase and zinc)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Why does vitamin C deficiency cause delayed wound healing?

A

Because vitamin C is a co-factor for the hydroxylation of proline and lysine residues on pro-collagen, so that the alpha triple helix can be made –> no hydroxylation = looser triple helix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Why does zinc deficiency cause poor wound healing?

A

Collagenase (removes type 3 collagen to be replaced with type 1) needs zinc as a cofactor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the 8 infectious diseases that cause granulomas?

A
  1. Bartonella henselae (cat scratch disease)
  2. Francisella tularensis
  3. Listeria monocytogenesis (infantiseptica)
  4. M. leprae (Leprosy/Hansen disease)
  5. M. tuberculosis
  6. Treponema pallidum (syphilis… tertiary only)
  7. Schistosomiasis
  8. Fungal infections
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What vessel polyangiitis disease cause granulomas? How is each diagnosed?

A
  1. Wegeners (Granulomatosis with polyangiitis) – bloody nose, cough, urine
    * *C-ANCA**
  2. Churg-Strauss (Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis) - asthma, neuropathy
    * *P-ANCA**
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What stain do we use for TB?

A

AFB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What stain do we use for fungi?

A

silver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which abdominal problem causes granulomas?

A

Crohn’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How are granulomas maintained?

A

Th1 -> IFN gamma -> macrophages -> TNFalpha

*memory: T-I-Me To make a granuloma (Th1, iiiiinterferon, mmmmacrophages, tttttnf)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Before starting anti-TNF alpha therapy for ankylosing spondylitis, what other disease must you check for?

A

Tuberculosis, because anti-TNFalpha drugs can cause sequestering granulomas to break down, leading to disseminated TB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Transudate vs. exudate: Which is protein rich?

A

exudate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Transudate vs. exudate: Which is cellular?

A

exudate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the cutoff for a specific gravity value of transudate vs. exudate?

A

1.020 (exudate is higher, transudate is lower)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What 3 processes cause exudate?

A
  1. Inflammation
  2. Malignancy
  3. Lymphatic obstruction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What 3 processes cause transudate?

A
  1. Heart failure (increased hydrostatic pressure)
  2. Cirrhosis (decreased oncotic pressure)
  3. Sodium retention
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the physiologic reason why ESR indicates inflammation?

A

Products of inflammation, like fibrinogen, coat RBCs and cause them to aggregate, which makes them heavier, so they will have a higher ESR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Does PREGNANCY cause a high or low ESR?

A

high

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Does SICKLE CELL cause a high or low ESR?

A

Low (sickled cells don’t fall as fast, they have like little parachutes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Does POLYCYTHEMIA cause a high or low ESR?

A

Low (dilutes out aggregation factors)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Does HEART FAILURE cause a high or low ESR?

A

Low

*memory: Think of everything failing including your fragment stuff

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Does CANCER cause a high or low ESR?

A

High

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What shape does amyloid like to take on?

A

Beta pleated sheet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What causes AL amyloid?

A

Multiple myeloma (Ig light chains)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What causes AA amyloid?

A

Chronic inflammation (RA, IBD, spondyloarthritis, infection) – serum amyloid A accumulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What causes dialysis-related amyloid?

A

Fibrils of beta2-microglobulins

*memory: you want 2B dialysis free

NOTE: Can present as carpal tunnel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What causes heritable amyloid?

A

transthyretin gene mutation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What causes senile/age-related amyloidosis?

A

transthyretin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which form of amyloid is often asymptomatic?

A

Senile/age-related (present in 25% of people over 80 yrs old)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What cause amyloid deposition in Alzheimer disease?

A

Beta-amyloid protein (cleaved from Amyloid Precursor Protein)

NOTE: This is present on chromosome 21, which is why Downs syndrome more likely to get Alz

*memory: remember to ALZo B A (beta-amyloid) Perfect Person (APP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What type of amyloid is seen in type 2 diabetics?

A

Amylin deposition -> Islet amyloid polypeptide (IAPP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is lipofuscin?

A

A “wear and tear” pigment associated with normal aging. Formed by oxidation and polymerization of autophagocytosed roganellar membranes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the difference between dysplasia and carcinoma in situ?

A

Carcinoma in situ has increased N:C ratios, clumped chromatin, and takes up the whole thickness of the epithelium (whole epithelium is when CIN3 becomes CIS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is P-glycoprotein? What disease is it associated with?

A

A multi drug resistance protein (MDR1) classically seen in adrenal cell carcinoma that pumps out chemotherapeutic agents, so allows cancer cells to resist chemotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the difference between metaplasia and dysplasia?

A 
metaplasia = replaced by another MATURE cell type
dysplasia = replaced by immature cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is anaplasia?

A

Loss of cell differentiation; reverting to immature. May see big cells with single large nucleus or several nuclei.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Is neoplasia = malignant?

A

No, you can get benign neoplasia. Neoplasia is just an excessive clonal proliferation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is desmoplasia?

A

Fibrous tissue formation in response to a neoplasm (ex: linitis plastica in diffuse stomach cancer)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

How do most carcinomas spread?

A

lymphatics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

How do most sarcomas spread?

A

blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What mediates cachexia?

A

TNF-alpha (cachexia, fever, granulomas)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Which carcinomas are STRANGE in that they like to spread via blood instead of lymphatics?

A
  1. Renal cell carcinoma (renal vein)
  2. Hepatocellular carcinoma (hepatic vein)
  3. Choriocarcinoma
  4. Follicular thyroid carcinoma

*memory: Folliculary thyroid Flows to the blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Where does ovarian cancer like to seed?

A

omentum (omental caking)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is acanthuses nigricans associated with?

A
  1. Insulin resistance

2. Malignancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What does Barrett esophagus predispose to?

A

Adenocarcinoma (NOT squamous!)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Wht does chronic atrophic gastritis predispose to?

A

Gastric adenocarcinoma (Can be a T-cell atrophic gastritis that causes B12 deficiency, or can be an H-pylori gastritis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What disease predisposes you to colonic adenocarcinoma?

A

Ulcerative colitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the precursor to SCC of the skin?

A

Actinic keratosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What does dermatomyositis and polymyositis predispose to?

A

Genitourinary malignancy

Note: Btoh do symmetric progressive proximal muscle weakness
derma = CD4, rash
(poly = CD8)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is the precursor to malignant melanoma?

A

Dysplastic nevus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What does Paget disease of the bone predispose you to?

A

Osteosarcoma + fibrosarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What does Plummer-Vinson syndrome predispose you to?

A

SCC of the esophagus

PVS = dysphagia, iron-deficiency anemia, esophageal webs, beefy red tongue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What are the clinical signs of tuberous sclerosis?

A

HAMARTOMAS

Hamartomas
Angiomyolipoma (ex: over both kidneys)
Mental retardation
Ash-leaf spots (white skin)
Rhabdomyoma (esp. cardiac)
Ts
O autosomal dOminant
Mitral regurg
Angiofibroma (spots on skin)
Seizures
Shagreen patches (bumpy/fungus skin)

subependymal astrocytomas
ungual fibromas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What cancers does AIDS predispose to? Immunodeficiency in general?

A

AIDS: Lymphoma, Kaposi
Immunodef: Lymphoma, Melanoma, RCC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What does hashimoto’s thyroiditis predispose to?

A

Lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What does SLE predispose to?

A

Lymphoma

61
Q

What cancer does Down syndrome predispose to?

A

ALL

*memory: we ALL fall DOWN

62
Q

What cancers are involved in Li-Fraumeni syndrome? What mutation is it associated with?

A

Sarcoma, breast, leukemia, adrenal gland

p53 mutation

63
Q

What cancers does radiation predispose to?

A

Leukemia, sarcoma, papillary thyroid, breast

64
Q

What gene product and tumor is associated with BCR-ABL?

A

Tyrosine Kinase
CML, ALL

*memory: Ty-ro-sine is 3 syllables, and ALL CaMeLs have 3 humps (lets pretend they do)

65
Q

What gene product and tumor is associated with BCL-2?

A

Apaf-1 (no apoptosis)
Follicular lymphoma, undifferentiated lymphoma

*memory: BCL-2 takes care of YOU (its anti-apoptic) and your Feelings (Follicular)

66
Q

What gene product and tumor is associated with BRAF?

A

Serine/threonine kinase
Melanoma, Non-hodgkin Lymphoma

*memory: Sir Brave (Serine, BRAF) is tall, dark (Melanoma) and over 21 (Non-hodgkin)

67
Q

What gene product and tumor is associated with c-kit?

A

Cytokine receptor
GIST (gastrointestinal stromal tumor)

*memory: C-kid, its a Cytokine, you get the GIST

68
Q

What gene product and tumor is associated with c-myc?

A

Transcription factor
Burkitt Lymphoma

*memory: microphones (myc) in a factory (transcription factor)
AND
*memory: kids seem-like (c-myc) they are booking it (Burkitt) from ages 11 to 14 (t11;14)

69
Q

What gene product and tumor is associated with HER2/neu?

A

Tyrosine kinase
Breast, ovarian, gastric

*memory: women have breasts, ovaries, and big tummies

Same as erbB2

70
Q

What gene product and tumor is associated with erbB2?

A

Tyrosine kinase
Breast, ovarian, gastric

*memory: women have breasts, ovaries, and big tummies

Same as HER2/neu

71
Q

What gene product and tumor is associated with L-myc?

A

Transcription factor
Lung tumor

  • memory: microphones in a factory (myc stuff will always be transcription factors)
  • memory: LLLLL myc for LLLLung
72
Q

What gene product and tumor is associated with N-myc?

A

Transcription factor
Neuroblastoma

  • memory: microphones in a factory (myc = transcription factor stuff)
  • memory: NNNNN my for NNNNueroblastoma
73
Q

What gene product and tumor is associated with RAS?

A

GTPase
Colon, lung, pancreatic cancer

*memory: It’s a RACE (ras) to Get To the toP (GTPase), so you jump from colon -> pancreas -> lung

74
Q

What gene product and tumor is associated with RET?

A

Tyrosine kinase
Men 2A, Men 2B, medullary thyroid cancer

*memory: from the endocrine section! Men like to WRECK (RET) things

75
Q

What are the tumors associated with MEN1?

A

Parathyroid
Pancreas (ZE, VIPoma, insulinoma)
Pituitary

*memory: Theres always that ONE MAN that wants to be your pa-pa-pi

76
Q

What are the tumors associated with MEN 2A?

A

Medullary thyroid carcinoma
Parathyroid
Pheochromocytoma

*memory: Men love to go TO A (2A) MEDiocre PoRn Film

77
Q

What are the tumors associated with MEN 2B?

A

Medullary thyroid carcinoma
Pheochromocytoma
Ganglioneuromas/mucosal neuromas

*memory: Men love TO BE (2B) MEDiocre Film Guests

78
Q

What single physical finding are MEN 2A and 2B associated with?

A

Marfinoid habitus

79
Q

What tumor is associated with APC?

A

Colorectal cancer

*memory: Appreciate your Colon

80
Q

What gene product and tumor is associated with BRCA1/BRCA2?

A

DNA repair
Breast and ovarian cancer

*memory: BRCA repairs DNA BReaks

81
Q

What tumor is associated with DCC?

A

colon cancer

*memory: Deleted in Colon Cancer

82
Q

What tumor is associated with DPC4/SMAD4?

A

pancreatic cancer

*memory: Deleted in Pancreatic Cancer

83
Q

What gene product is associated with MEN1?

A

Menin

84
Q

What gene product and tumor is associated with NF1?

A

Ras GTPase activation protein = neurofibromin = a negative regulator of Ras (because GTPase cleaves Ras to give the signal)

Neurofibromatosis type 1 —> hamartomas, pheochromocytomas, optic gliomas, neurofibromas

85
Q

What gene product and tumor is associated with NF2?

A

Merlin protein = schwannomin protein

Neurofibromatosis type 2 –> bilateral acoustic neuromas

*memory: Its elusive, like a wizard (merlin)

86
Q

What gene product and tumor is associated with p16?

A

Cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitor 2A
Melanoma

*memory: Every 16 year old Princess tans so much as to get Melanoma. She should Stop the Cycle.

87
Q

What gene product and tumor is associated with p53?

A

Blocks G1 -> S phase by being a transcription factor for p21

Li-Fraumeni syndrome (and tons of other cancers)

88
Q

What tumors are associated with PTEN?

A

Breast, prostate, endometrial

*memory: private areas you want to PreTENd don’t get cancer

89
Q

What gene product and tumor is associated with Rb?

A

Blocks G1->S phase by inhibiting E2F

Retinoblastoma, Osteosarcoma

90
Q

p53 and Rb are both loss of function or gain of function mutations?

A

loss of function (both alleles must be lost)

91
Q

What gene product and tumor is associated with TSC1?

A

Hamartin protein
Tuberous sclerosis –>
subependymal astrocytomas, ungural fibromas, rhabdomyoma, angiomyoma, angiofibroma, hamartoma

*memory: Hammer Time (hamartin for 1, tuber in for 2)

92
Q

What gene product and tumor is associated with TSC2?

A

Tuberin protein
Tuberous sclerosis

*memory: Hammer Time (hamartin for 1, tuber in for 2)

93
Q

What gene product and tumor is associated with VHL?

A

Inhibits hypoxia inducible factor 1a

VHL disease –> hemangioblastoma, pheochromocytoma, renal cell carcinoma

94
Q

What gene product and tumor is associated with WT1 and WT2?

A

Nephroblastoma (Wilm’s tumor)

95
Q

Can tumor markers be used to diagnose cancer?

A

NO! Only for screening and to monitor recurrence/response to therapy

96
Q

What is Alk Phos a marker for?

A

Mets to the bone
Mets to the liver
Paget disease of the bone
Seminoma (from the placenta?)

97
Q

What is AFP a marker for?

A

Hepatocellulcar carcinoma
Hepatoblastoma
Yolk sac tumor (from the endodermal sinus?)
Mixed germ cell tumor

Pregnancy (transient)
Neural tube defects
Abdominal wall defects

If low: Down syndrome

98
Q

Significance of high b-HCG?

A

Hydatiform mole
Choriocarcinoma
Testicular cancer
Mixed germ cell tumor

NOTE: made by syncytiotrophoblasts

99
Q

Significance of high CA 15-3?

A

Breast cancer

100
Q

Significance of high CA 27-29?

A

Breast cancer

101
Q

Significance of high 19-9?

A

Pancreatic adenocarcinoma

*memory: the number 9 looks like the letter p for pancreas

102
Q

Significance of high CA 125?

A

Ovarian cancer

103
Q

Significance of high Calcitonin?

A

Medullary thyroid carcinoma

HINT: Watch out for this in MEN2A and Men2B. Medullary thyroid (mediocre) and film (pheochromo) are in both… parathyroid (porn) and guest (glioma) is different

104
Q

Significance of high CEA?

A

Very non-specific, but found in:
Colorectal cancer
Pancreatic cancer

*memory: Casually Estimate And guess (CEA)

And sometimes in:
Gastric
Breast
Medullary thyroid

105
Q

Significance of high chromogranin?

A

Neuroendocrine tumors (carcinoid)

106
Q

Significance of high PSA?

A

Prostate cancer
BPH
Prostatitis

107
Q

Which cancers are associated with Ebstein-Barr virus?

A

Burkitt Lymphoma
Hodgkin Lymphoma
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma (neck mass in chinese man)

If immunocompromised: Primary CNS lymphoma

*memory: you get the kissing disease if you are Dr. Burke (Burkitt), you’re young and sexy (Hodgkin), a neck slut (Nasopharyngeal), or crazy in the head (CNS lymphoma)

108
Q

Which cancers are associated with HBV and HCV?

A

Hepatocellular carcinoma

109
Q

Which cancers are associated with HHV-8? How does treatment change depending on the patient?

A

Kaposi sarcoma

If in an old man: Excise it
If in an AIDS patient: Boost immunity

110
Q

Which cancers are associated with HPV? Which types?

A

Cervical carcinoma
Penile carcinoma
Anal carcinoma
Head and neck cancer

Types: 16,18

111
Q

Which cancers are associated with H Pylori?

A 
Gastric adenocarcinoma (chronic gastritis)
MALT lymphoma
112
Q

Which cancers are associated with HTLV1?

A

Adult T cell leukemia/lymphoma

113
Q

Which cancers are associated with Liver Fluke (clonorchis sinensis)?

A

Cholangiocarcinoma

*memory: think of a little (Liver) fluke getting up into your bile ducts

114
Q

Which cancers are associated with schistosomiasis?

A

SCC of the bladder

115
Q

Which cancers are associated with Aflatoxins?

A

Hepatocellular carcinoma

116
Q

Which cancers are associated with Alkylating agents? How do alkylating agents work?

A

Leukemia/lymphoma

Attach an alkyl group to guanine in DNA

Ex: If you treated someone with Wegners granulomatosis with polyangitis with cyclophosphamide

117
Q

Which cancers are associated with Aromatic amines like 2-naphthylamine?

A

Bladder (transitional cell carcinoma)

118
Q

Which cancers are associated with Arsenic, like in cig smoke? How would you test for this?

A

Angiosarcoma of the liver
Lung cancer
Squamous cell carcinoma of the skin

119
Q

What are the carcinogens in cig smoke? Which is most important?

A 
Polycyclic Hydrocarbons *most important
Arsenic
Aromatic amines (2-naphthylamine)
120
Q

Which cancers are associated with Asbestos? Which is more likely?

A

Mesothelioma

Bronchogenic lung carcinoma **more likely

121
Q

Which pathologies are associated with CCl4?

A

Centrilobular necrosis of the liver
Fatty change in the liver

NOTE: Induced by free radicals. First cells swell, then fatty change, then necrosis.

122
Q

Which 7 cancers are associated with cig smoke?

A 
Esophageal - SCC or Adeno
Larynx - SCC
Lung - SCC or Small Cell
Kidney - RCC
Bladder - Transitional cell
Pancreas - Adeno
Cervix
123
Q

Which cancers are associated with ethanol?

A

SCC of the esophagus
Pancreatic cancer
Hepatocellular carcinoma

124
Q

Which cancers are associated with ionizing radiation?

A

Papillary thyroid carcinoma
AML
CML

*memory: PAC in that radiation

125
Q

Which cancers are associated with nitrosamines/smoked foods?

A

Gastric cancer (intestinal type) - esp in Japan

126
Q

Which cancers are associated with Radon?

A

Lung cancer *#2 cause of lung cancer after cig smoke

127
Q

Which cancers are associated with Vinyl Chloride (an occupational thing found in PVC pipes)?

A

Angiosarcoma of the liver

*memory: ANGIE is either looking for ARSe (arsenic) or flirting with Vinny (vinyl chloride)

high yield because a definitive study was done

128
Q

Which cancers cause high 1,25-OH-D?

A

Hodgkin lymphoma

Non-hodgkin lymphoma

129
Q

Which cancers cause excess ACTH?

A

Small cell lung carcinoma

Renal cell carcinom

130
Q

Which cancers cause excess ADH?

A

Small cell lung carcinoma

Intracranial neoplasms

131
Q

Which cancers cause antibodies against presynaptic calcium channels at the NMJ (Lambert-Earton)?

A

Small cell lung carcinoma

132
Q

Which cancers cause elevated EPO?

A 
Renal cell carcinoma
Hemangioblastoma
Hepatocellular carcinoma
Leimyoma
Pheochromocytoma
133
Q

Which cancers cause elevated PTHrp?

A

Squamous cell lung carcinoma
Renal cell carcinoma
Breast cancer

134
Q

Which cancers cause psammoma bodies?

A

Papillary carcinoma of the thyroid
Serous adenocarcinoma of the ovary
Meningioma
Mesothelioma

135
Q

What are the #1,2,3 cancers by incidence?

A
  1. Prostate/Breast
  2. Lung
  3. Colon/Rectum
136
Q

What are the #1,2,3 cancers by mortality?

A
  1. Lung
  2. Prostate/Breast
  3. Colon/rectum
137
Q

What are the #1,2,3 causes of death in the US in adults?

A
  1. CV disease
  2. Cancer
  3. Stroke
138
Q

What are the #1,2,3 causes of death in the US in kids?

A
  1. Accidents
  2. Cancer
  3. Congenital
139
Q

Where do brain mets usually come from?

A

Lung > breast > prostate > melanoma > GI

*memory: Log on to Brainscape for your Paper Money Guarantee

140
Q

Where do liver mets usually come from?

A

Colon&raquo_space;> Stomach > Pancreas

*memory: Cool Colors Steal the Prize (2 C’s for super&raquo_space;)

141
Q

Where do bone mets usually come from?

A

Prostate, Breast > kidney, thyroid, lung

*memory: PBKTL (lead kettle)

142
Q

What % of brain tumors are from mets?

A

50%

143
Q

What do mets to the brain usually look like?

A

Well-circumscribed (WEIRD!) tumors at the gray/white junction

144
Q

What are the 2 most common sties of mets in general?

A

Liver and Lung

*memory: Love the Liver and Lung
remember red infarcts likely in liver, lung, and intestines because good blood supply

145
Q

What % of bone tumors are mets?

A

A lot. Way more common than primary bone tumor.

146
Q

Which bone mets are blastic? (the rest are lytic)

A

Prostate mets

sometimes breast mets

147
Q

Where in the skeleton do bone mets tend to go?

A

Akial skeleton

148
Q

What tumor is associated with t(14;18)?

A

Follicular lymphoma

*memory: BCL2 takes care of YOU (antiapoptotic) but Following you (follicular) until you are an adult (18)

149
Q

What chromosome has immunoglobulin heavy chain on it? What tumors are involved with it?

A

Chromosome 14 (*memory: I Got Good looking at age 14… IgG, 14)

Burkitt lymphoma = t(8;14) (c-myc) *kids CeeM to Bookit from ages 8 to 14

Mantle cell lymphoma = t(11;14) (cyclin D1) *you start to want the D at ages 11 to 14, you put boys on a MANTLE

Follicular lymphoma = t(14;18) (Bcl2) *Bcl2 takes care of YOU by Following you around until you are an adult age 18

First Aid (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions