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BUZZWORDS > Pathology Buzzwords > Flashcards

Pathology Buzzwords Flashcards

1
Q

Pathology

Not regulated by genes: Apoptosis or Necrosis?

A

Necrosis

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2
Q

Pathology

Wear-and-tear pigment that contributes to brown atrophy in the elderly?

A

Lipofuscin

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3
Q

Pathology

Hemosiderosis vs. Hemochromatosis: which has tissue damage?

A

Hemochromatosis

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4
Q

Pathology

Micronodular cirrhosis, DM, skin pigmentation?

A

Bronze Diabetes (Hereditary Hemochromatosis)

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5
Q

Pathology

Occurs in previously damaged tissues: Dystrophic or Metastatic Calcification?

A

Dystrophic Calcification

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6
Q

Pathology

Hypercalcemia: Dystrophic or Metastatic Calcification?

A

Metastatic Calcification

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7
Q

Pathology

Heat-shock protein that marks abnormal protein for destruction?

A

Ubiquitin

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8
Q

Pathology

Cardinal signs of inflammation?

A

Tumor, Dolor, Calor, Rubor, Functio Laesa

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9
Q

Pathology

First blood cell involved in inflammation?

A

Neutrophils

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10
Q

Pathology

Blood cell involved in parasitic infection?

A

Eosinophils

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11
Q

Pathology

Blood cell involved in chronic inflammation and viral infection?

A

Lymphocytes

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12
Q

Pathology

Blood cell prominent after 2-3 days after injury?

A

Monocytes

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13
Q

Pathology

Blood cell that produces H and H:

A

Mast Cells and Basophils

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14
Q

Pathology

In the blood: Monocytes or Macrophages?

A

Monocytes

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15
Q

Pathology

In the tissues: Basophils or Mast Cells?

A

Mast Cells

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16
Q

Pathology

Complement considered anaphylatoxins?

A

C3a, C5a

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17
Q

Pathology

Complement considered an opsonin?

A

C3b

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18
Q

Pathology

Complement involved in Membrane attack complex (MAC)?

A

Cb5-9

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19
Q

Pathology

Vasoconstriction: PGA2, PGD2, PGE2, PGI2, PGF2, Bradykinin?

A

PGA2 or TXA2

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20
Q

Pathology

Cytokines involved in fever?

A

IL1, IL6, TNF-α

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21
Q

Pathology

aka Factor XIIa?

A

Hagemann Factor

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22
Q

Pathology

Nitrous Oxide: Vasoconstriction or Vasodilatation?

A

None (NO is a vasodilator)

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23
Q

Pathology

Primary function of inflammation?

A

Walling-off inciting agent

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24
Q

Pathology

What disease causes NADPH Oxidase deficiency?

A

Chronic Granulomatous Disease

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25
Q

Pathology

Abnormal WBC’s, neutropenia, albinism, neuropathy, repeated infections: what’s the disease?

A

Chediak-Higashi Disease

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26
Q

Pathology

TB, sarcoidosis: What type of inflammation?

A

Chronic Granulomatous Inflammation

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27
Q

Pathology

Smooth muscles, cartilage, osteoblast: Labile, Stable, or Permanent?

A

Stable

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28
Q

Pathology

GI Mucosa: Labile, Stable, or Permanent?

A

Labile

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29
Q

Pathology

Myocardial and Musculoskeletal Muscles: Labile, Stable, or Permanent?

A

Permanent

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30
Q

Pathology

Neurons: Labile, Stable, or Permanent?

A

Permanent

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31
Q

Pathology

Competence Factor: PDGF, EGF, or FGF?

A

PDGF

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32
Q

Pathology

Progression Factor: PDGF, EGF, or FGF?

A

EGF

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33
Q

Pathology

Heart Failure Cells and Brown induration of the lungs? (What Disease?)

A

CPC of the Lungs (Left Heart Failure)

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34
Q

Pathology

Nutmeg Liver? (What Disease?)

A

CPC of the Liver (Right Heart Failure)

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35
Q

Pathology

Localized arteriolar dilatation: Active or Passive Hyperemia?

A

Active Hyperemia

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36
Q

Pathology

White Infarction: Heart, Spleen, Kidney, Lung, or GIT?

A

Heart, Spleen, Kidney

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37
Q

Pathology

Red Infarct: Arterial or Venous Occlusions?

A

Venous Occlusions

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38
Q

Pathology

Maintains the integrity of the vascular epithelium: Platelets or Endothelial Cells?

A

Platelets

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39
Q

Pathology

Resists thrombogenic influence of platelets?

A

Endothelial Cells

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40
Q

Pathology

Extrinsic Pathway: PT or PTT?

A

PT (WEPT; 1972, FFP, Vitamin K)

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41
Q

Pathology

Dissolves clot: Thrombin, Fibrin, or Plasmin?

A

Plasmin

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42
Q

Pathology

Recurrent abortion, prolonged PTT; sometimes associated with SLE (What Disease?)

A

APAS

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43
Q

Pathology

Both prothrombotic and antithrombotic disorder: (What Disease?)

A

DIC

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44
Q

Pathology

Lines of Zahn: Arterial Thrombi, Venous Thrombi, or Post-mortem Clot?

A

Arterial Thrombi

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45
Q

Pathology

Not attached to the vessel wall; 2-layered appearance: Arterial Thrombi, Venous Thrombi, or Post-mortem Clot?

A

Post-mortem Clot

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46
Q

Pathology

Associated with less active blood flow and stasis: Arterial Thrombi, Venous Thrombi, or Post-mortem Clot?

A

Venous Thrombi

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47
Q

Pathology

Currant-jelly appearance; Chicken-fat appearance: Arterial Thrombi, Venous Thrombi, or Post-mortem Clot?

A

Post-mortem Clot

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48
Q

Pathology

Sudden death, associated with DVT: (What Disease?)

A

Pulmonary Embolism

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49
Q

Pathology

What Embolismis associated with multiple fractures?

A

Fat Embolism

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50
Q

Pathology

What Embolism is associated with penetrating chest injuries and Caisson’s Disease

A

Air Embolism

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51
Q

Pathology

What Embolism is associated with left-sided emboli through R-to-L shunt?

A

Paradoxical Emboli

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52
Q

Pathology

What Emboli is associated with DIC and maternal death?

A

Amniotuc Fluid Emboli

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53
Q

Pathology

Changes in Starling Forces: Peripheral edema due to Right heart failure?

A

Increased Hydrostatic Pressure

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54
Q

Pathology

Changes in Starling Forces: Nephrotic Syndrome?

A

Decreased Oncotic Pressure

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55
Q

Pathology

Changes in Starling Forces: Pulmonary Edema?

A

Increased Hydrostatic Pressure

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56
Q

Pathology

Edema from increase vascular permeability; high protein content, SG > 1.020, (+) inflammatory leukocytes, decreased glucose: Exudate or Transudate?

A

Exudate

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57
Q

Pathology

Most common cause of Down Syndrome?

A

Meiotic Non-disjunction

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58
Q

Pathology

2 lines of cell- one with the normal chromosme and the other with monosomy

A

Mosaicism

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59
Q

Pathology

Deletion of short arm of chromosome 5:

A

Cri-du-chat

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60
Q

Pathology

ASD, VSD, ALL, Alzheimer’s Disease: (What can explain these?)

A

Down Syndrome

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61
Q

Pathology

Appearance of Down Syndrome:

A

Hypertelorism, broad nasal bridge, epicanthal folds, low set ears, brushfield spots, simian crease

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62
Q

Pathology

Micrognathia, rocker-bottom feet, overlapping 3rd and 4th fingers:

A

Edward Syndrome

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63
Q

Pathology

CATCH 22 Syndrome:

A

Digeorge Syndrome (Caridiac abnormalities, Abnomal fascies, T-cell deficit because of Thymic Hypoplasia, Cleft Palate, Hypocalcemia due to Hypoparathyroidism due to microdeletion in Chromosome 22)

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64
Q

Pathology

MR, microcephaly, microphthalimia, cleft lip and palate, rocker-bottom feet:

A

Patau Syndrome

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65
Q

Pathology

Violent behavior, tall, severe acne, male:

A

XYY Syndrome

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66
Q

Pathology

Male hypogonadism, tall, gynecomastia, single Bar body:

A

Klinefelter Syndrome

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67
Q

Pathology

Female hypogonadism, amenorrhea, short stature, webbed neck:

A

Turner’s Syndrome

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68
Q

Pathology

What CHD is associated with Turner’s Syndrome?

A

Coarctation of the Aorta

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69
Q

Pathology

(+) anticipation, macroorchidism, CGG Repeats:

A

Fragile X Syndrome

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70
Q

Pathology

(+) anticipation, movement disorders, dementia, death, CAG repeats:

A

Huntington’s Disease

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71
Q

Pathology

Genomic imprinting, maternal transmission, MR, ataxia, seizures, inappropriate laughter:

A

Angelmann Syndrome

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72
Q

Pathology

Genomic imprinting, paternal transmission, hypogonadism, hypotonia, MR, uncontrolled apetite, behavior problems

A

Prader-Willi Syndrome

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73
Q

Pathology

Mormons, hemorrhagic telangiectasia

A

OWR Syndrome

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74
Q

Pathology

Genetic defect, LDL receptor anomalies, Xanthoma

A

Familial Hypercholesterolemia

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75
Q

Pathology

AD, Renal bilateral cysts, adults, SAH

A

ADPKD

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76
Q

Pathology

Arachnodactyly, tall, thin, dissecting aneurysm, MVP

A

Marfan Syndrome

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77
Q

Pathology

Pathophysiology of Marfan Syndrome

A

Absence of Fibrillin Gene

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78
Q

Pathology

Collagen Type 1 defect

A

Osteogenesis Imperfecta

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79
Q

Pathology

Neurofibromas, café-au-lait spots, lisch nodules

A

Von Recklinghausen

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80
Q

Pathology

Chromosome 3, hemagioblastoma, cavernous hemangioma, liver and renal cysts, renal cell CA

A

VHL Syndrome

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81
Q

Pathology

Mnemonic for Glycogen Storage Disease

A

VPCAMHere

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82
Q

Pathology

Hexosaminidase deficiency?

A

Tay Sachs

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83
Q

Pathology

Phenylalanine hydroxylase deficiency?

A

PKU

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84
Q

Pathology

Sphyngomyelinase deficiency?

A

Niemann-Pick

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85
Q

Pathology

Hunter, Fabry, G6PD deficiency, Hemophilia A, Lesch-Nyahan, Duchenne: mode of transmission?

A

X-linked

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86
Q

Pathology

CD4:CD8 ratio in AIDS:

A

1 is to 2

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87
Q

Pathology

Cytokines secreted by B-cells, T-cells, and macrophages that promote proliferation of B-cells, T-cells, and NK cells

A

IL2

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88
Q

Pathology

Cytokines responsible for fever:

A

IL1, IL6, TNF-α

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89
Q

Pathology

Type of Hypersensitivity Reaction: Asthma

A

Type I

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90
Q

Pathology

Type of Hypersensitivity Reaction: Contact Dermatitis

A

Type IV

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91
Q

Pathology

Type of Hypersensitivity Reaction: Goodpasture’s Syndrome, Grave’s Disease

A

Type II

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92
Q

Pathology

Type of Hypersensitivity Reaction: PAN, SLE:

A

Type III

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93
Q

Pathology

Agammaglobulinemia, deficient B- and T-cells

A

SCID

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94
Q

Pathology

Eczema, thromboctyopenia, recurrent infections, X-linked

A

Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome

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95
Q

Pathology

X-linked disorder, absent plasma cells, recurrent bacterial infections

A

X-linked Aggamaglobulinemia of Bruton

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96
Q

Pathology

Xerostomia, keratoconjunctivitis, arthritis

A

Sjorgen Syndrome

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97
Q

Pathology

Serosal changes, skin rashes, photosensitivity, glomerular changes

A

SLE

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98
Q

Pathology

Small and medium arteries are affected, P-ANCA, Hepa B

A

PAN

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99
Q

Pathology

Most common benign pulmonary nodule: Choristoma or Hamartoma?

A

Hamartoma

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100
Q

Pathology

Endometriosis: Choristoma or Hamartoma?

A

Choristoma

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101
Q

Pathology

Cancers associated with Epstein-Barr Virus?

A

NPCA, Burkitt’s Lymphoma

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102
Q

Pathology

Appearance of Burkitt’s Lymphoma?

A

Starry-sky Appearance

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103
Q

Pathology

Cancers associated with HTLV-1, HPV, HBV, HIV, H. pylori

A

Adult T-cell Leukemia/Lymphoma, Cervical CA, Liver CA, Kaposi/Leukemia, Gastric adnoca/MALToma

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104
Q

Pathology

AR, thymidine dimer formation

A

Xeroderma Pigmentosum

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105
Q

Pathology

Guardian of the Genome

A

p53

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106
Q

Pathology

Classification of burn injuries:

A

1st, 2nd, 3rd, 4th (differences?)

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107
Q

Pathology

Earliest blood cells affected in radiation injury

A

Lymphocytes

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108
Q

Pathology

First blood cells in inflammation

A

Neutrophils

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109
Q

Pathology

Hemorrhagic necrosis of mammillary bodies

A

Wernicke-Korsakoff Syndrome

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110
Q

Pathology

MR, long philtrum, cardiac defects

A

Fetal Alcohol Syndrome

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111
Q

Pathology

Adverse effect of methanol?

A

Blindness

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112
Q

Pathology

Adverse effect of lead?

A

Anemia, Basophilic stripping of RBC’s, decreased IQ, Fanconi Syndrome

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113
Q

Pathology

Adverse effect of cyanide?

A

Complex IV inactivation

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114
Q

Pathology

Adverse effect of vinyl chloride?

A

Angiosarcomma of the liver

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115
Q

Pathology

Adverse effects of aniline dyes?

A

Transitional cell CA of the bladder

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116
Q

Pathology

Adverse effect of carbon tetrachloride (CCl4)?

A

Hepatic centilobular necrosis and fatty change

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117
Q

Pathology

Adverse effect of chloramphenicol?

A

Aplastic Anemia, Gray Baby Syndrome

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118
Q

Pathology

Reye Syndrome

A

ASA

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119
Q

Pathology

Pellagra

A

Vitamin B3

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120
Q

Pathology

Required for transamination, porphyrin synthesis, and synthesis of niacin from tryptophan

A

Vitamin B6

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121
Q

Pathology

Component of FAD and FMN

A

Vitamin B2

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122
Q

Pathology

Component of NAD and NADP

A

Vitamin B3

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123
Q

Pathology

Megaloblastic Anemia, (-) Neuro Manifestations

A

Vitamin B12 or Folic Acid Deficiency

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124
Q

Pathology

Vitamin: antioxidant, maintenance of cell membranes probably by modulation of lipid peroxidation

A

Vitamin E

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125
Q

Pathology

Glutamyl carboxylation, hemorrhagic diasthesis in newborn

A

Vitamin K

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126
Q

Pathology

Tree-bark appearance, aneurysm that involves ascending aorta

A

Syphilitic Aneurysm

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127
Q

Pathology

Arsenic, Thorium Dioxide, Polyvinyl Chloride

A

Hemangiosarcoma (angiosarcoma)

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128
Q

Pathology

Variant of PAN, (+) eosinophilia, asthma

A

Churg-Strauss (allergic Granulomatous Angitis)

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129
Q

Pathology

Necrotizing Granulomatous vasculitis of small and medium-size arteries (resp. tract, kidneys)

A

Wegener’s Granulomatosis

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130
Q

Pathology

Aortic Arch Syndrome

A

Takayasu’s Arterities

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131
Q

Pathology

Headache, visual impairment, affects ranch of carotid artery

A

Temporal Arteritis

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132
Q

Pathology

Cigarette, painful ischemic disease, young Jew males

A

Buerger’s Disease

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133
Q

Pathology

Berger’s Disease?

A

IgA Nephropathy

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134
Q

Pathology

Which is not a cause of secondary hypertension: Conn’s Cushing, Coarcation of the aorta, pheochromocytoma?

A

None of the above

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135
Q

Pathology

Intermitted chest pain at rest due to transient vasospasm

A

Prinzmetal’s angina

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136
Q

Pathology

MC cause of death due to M.I.

A

arrhythmias

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137
Q

Pathology

First blood cell involved in M.I.

A

neutrophils

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138
Q

Pathology

Necrosis found in M.I.

A

coagulative necrosis

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139
Q

Pathology

Classic lesion of RF

A

Aschoff Bodies

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140
Q

Pathology

MacCallum Plaque, Fish-mouth, buttonhole deformity: IE or RHD?

A

RHD

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141
Q

Pathology

Osler’s nodes and Janeway lesions: RHD or IE?

A

RHD

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142
Q

Pathology

Strep viridans: RHD or IE?

A

IE

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143
Q

Pathology

SLE endocarditis

A

LSE

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144
Q

Pathology

Systolic murmur with midsystolic click

A

MVP

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145
Q

Pathology

heart valve involved in carcinoid syndrome

A

tricuspid valve

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146
Q

Pathology

heart defect in CRS

A

PDA

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147
Q

Pathology

cardiomyopathy assoc with wet beriberi

A

Dilated

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148
Q

Pathology

Cardiomyopathy associated with sudden death in young athletes

A

hypertrophic

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149
Q

Pathology

Cardiomyopathy assoc with amyloidosis

A

restrictive

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150
Q

Pathology

what type of pericarditis? SLE, RF, clear, protein-rich exudate

A

Serous pericarditis

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151
Q

Pathology

What type of pericarditis? MI or acute RF

A

Fibrinous

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152
Q

Pathology

Bread and butter pericarditis?

A

RF

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153
Q

Pathology

Nutmeg liver: R or L sided heart failure?

A

right sided heart failure

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154
Q

Pathology

Schilling test is used to diagnose

A

Pernicious anemia

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155
Q

Pathology

Anemia assoc with hypocellular bone marrow

A

Aplastic anemia

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156
Q

Pathology

(+) Cold agglutinin

A

EBV, mycoplasma pneumonia

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157
Q

Pathology

Erythroblastosis fetalis: MOM, DAD, and Fetus

A

RH(-), RH(+), RH(-)

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158
Q

Pathology

X-linked, “bite cells”, hemolytic anemia

A

G6PD deficiency

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159
Q

Pathology

2nd MC cause of enzyme deficiency hemolytic anemia or Cooley’s anemia

A

B-thal Major

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160
Q

Pathology

Lymphomas and Leukemias ALL vs AML: adults

A

Aml

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161
Q

Pathology

Inc neoplastic B-cells, usually in the elderly males, “smudge cells”

A

CLL

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162
Q

Pathology

Bence-jones proteinuria, RBC’s poker chips, punched-out lesions

A

multiple myeloma

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163
Q

Pathology

Bence-jones proteinuria, absent bone lesions, (+)hyperviscosity syndrome

A

Waldenstrom Macroglobulinemia

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164
Q

Pathology

(+) binucleated or multinucleated giant cells with eosinophilic inclusion-like nucleoli

A

Hodgkin’s lymphoma (reed-sternberg cells)

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165
Q

Pathology

Hemorrhagic urticaria

A

HSP

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166
Q

Pathology

Dermal hyperelasticity, articular hypermobility

A

Ehlers-danlos syndrome

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167
Q

Pathology

Bleeding gums, cutaneous petechiae

A

vitamin C deficiency

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168
Q

Pathology

Difference in SSx of hemophilia A and B

A

none

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169
Q

Pathology

Christmas Disease

A

Hemophilia B

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170
Q

Pathology

(+) thrombosis, hemorrhage, thrombocytopenia, (+) schistocytes

A

DIC

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171
Q

Pathology

Pulmonary system barking cough

A

Croup

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172
Q

Pathology

Virus in croup

A

parainfluenza

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173
Q

Pathology

sign of epiglottitis

A

tripod position, sniffing position, thumbprint sign

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174
Q

Pathology

patho findings in asthma

A

curschmann spirals, charcot-leyden crystals

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175
Q

Pathology

panacinar emphysema

A

alpha-one antitrypsin deficiency

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176
Q

Pathology

emphysema assoc with subpleural bullae or blebs

A

paraseptal emphysema

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177
Q

Pathology

hyaline membrane: ARDS or RDF?

A

both

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178
Q

Pathology

(+) ferruginous bodies (yellow-brown, rod-shaped bodies with clubbed ends)

A

asbestosis

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179
Q

Pathology

what 2 cancers are assoc with asbestosis?

A

Bronchogenic CA and Malignant mesothelioma

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180
Q

Pathology

Non-caseating granulomas in CA and ACE

A

sarcoidosis

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181
Q

Pathology

localized proliferation of histiocytic cells, (+)birbeck granules that resemble tennis racquets

A

eosinophilic granuloma

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182
Q

Pathology

(+) rusty sputum

A

strep pneumo

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183
Q

Pathology

(+)currant jelly sputum

A

klebsiella pneumo

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184
Q

Pathology

AIDS pneumonia

A

PCP

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185
Q

Pathology

Treatment for mycoplasma pneumoniae

A

macrolides

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186
Q

Pathology

MC salivary gland tumor

A

pleomorphic adenoma (mixed tumor)

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187
Q

Pathology

loss of ganglion cells in the mesenteric plexus, esophagus

A

achalasia

188
Q

Pathology

precursor of esophagial adenoCA

A

Barrett’s esophagus

189
Q

Pathology

Curling vs Cushing’s ulcer

A

Burn, Brain

190
Q

Pathology

Virchow nodule

A

Supraclavicular LN involvement, stomach adenoCA

191
Q

Pathology

Signet Ring cells

A

Kruckenberg tumor, Gastric AdenoCA

192
Q

Pathology

gluten sensitivity

A

celiac disease

193
Q

Pathology

clostridium difficile

A

pseudomembranous colitis

194
Q

Pathology

Peutz-Jeghers Polys are premalignant lesions of the colon: T or F?

A

FALSE

195
Q

Pathology

highest potential for malignancy of all colonic polyps

A

villous adenomas

196
Q

Pathology

(+) adenomatous polyps with CNS tumors

A

Turcot’s syndrome (different from Gardner’s syndrome)

197
Q

Pathology

Most common neoplasm of the appendix

A

carcinoid tumor

198
Q

Pathology

Owl’s eye appearance

A

CMV

199
Q

Pathology

Orphan annie eye nuclei?

A

Papillary thyroid CA

200
Q

Pathology

Councilman Bodies

A

hepatic necrosis

201
Q

Pathology

mallory bodies

A

alcoholic hepatits

202
Q

Pathology

hobnail liver

A

alcoholic Cirrhosis

203
Q

Pathology

antimitochondrial antibodies

A

PBC

204
Q

Pathology

bronze diabetes: inc in_____

A

iron; cirrhosis, DM, skin pigmentation

205
Q

Pathology

kayser-fleicher

A

wilson disease

206
Q

Pathology

budd-chiari syndrome is otherwise knows as?

A

hepatic vein thrombosis

207
Q

Pathology

liver mass, OCP use associated

A

adenoma

208
Q

Pathology

cholangiosarcoma (bile duct CA) is associated with

A

hemolytic anemia

209
Q

Pathology

straberry GB

A

cholesterolosis

210
Q

Pathology

(+) trousseau syndrome

A

migratory thrombophelibitis (pancreatic CA)

211
Q

Pathology

bilateral renal agenesis oligo or polyhydramnios?

A

oligohydramnios

212
Q

Pathology

spike and dome appearance

A

MGN

213
Q

Pathology

fused epithelial food processes

A

Liphoid nephosis (MCD)

214
Q

Pathology

Lumpy-bumpy appearance

A

PSGN

215
Q

Pathology

linear immunofuorescence caused by Anti-GBM antibodies

A

Good pasture syndrome

216
Q

Pathology

Tram-track appearance

A

MPGN

217
Q

Pathology

Associated with Wegener’s, (+) crescents

A

RPGN

218
Q

Pathology

MC cause of ARF

A

ATN

219
Q

Pathology

Associated with DM, phenacetin; consequence of acute pyelonephritis

A

renal papillary necrosis (necrotizing papillitis)

220
Q

Pathology

pellagra-like manifestations due to impaired tubular reabsorption of tryptophan

A

hartnup disease

221
Q

Pathology

triad of renal cell CA

A

flank pain, flank mass, hematuria

222
Q

Pathology

Single erythematous plaque in the glans penis or prepuse: Bowen disease or erythoplasia of queyrat?

A

erythoplasia of queyrat (bowen-shaft)

223
Q

Pathology

bag of worms?

A

varicocele

224
Q

Pathology

analogous to dysgerminoma, inc B-HCG

A

seminoma

225
Q

Pathology

(+) Reinke crystals; associated with precocious puberty in children and gynecomastia in adults

A

leydig cell tumor

226
Q

Pathology

prostate CA - metastasis site?

A

bones

227
Q

Pathology

Clue cells

A

Gardnerella vaginalis

228
Q

Pathology

painful ulcers: chancroid or granuloma inguinale?

A

chancroid

229
Q

Pathology

chocolate cysts

A

endometriosis

230
Q

Pathology

Obesity, hirsutism, relative infertility

A

PCOS

231
Q

Pathology

Bunch of grapes appearance

A

H-mole

232
Q

Pathology

(-) embryo, paternally derived: complete of incomplete?

A

complete

233
Q

Pathology

Bloody nipple discharge w/o breast mass

A

Intraductal papilloma

234
Q

Pathology

Plummer’s Disease vs Plummer-Vinsons’ Syndrome

A

MNG, esophageal webs

235
Q

Pathology

Thyroid CA associated with increased calcitonin

A

Medullary thyroid CA

236
Q

Pathology

Armani-Ebstein Lesions

A

DM nephropathy (tubular deposition of glycogen)

237
Q

Pathology

(+) erythematous plaques w/ silver coating

A

Psoriasis

238
Q

Pathology

Dysplastic nevus is associated with:

A

Malignant melanoma

239
Q

Pathology

Umbilicated dome-shaped papules

A

Molluscum contangiosum

240
Q

Pathology

Poorest prognosis among types of malignant melanoma

A

nodular type

241
Q

Pathology

MC and most severe form of muscular dystrophy

A

Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy

242
Q

Pathology

Brown tumor of the bone

A

Osteitis Fibrosa Cystica

243
Q

Pathology

Harrison’s groove, Pigeon breast, craniotabes

A

Rickets

244
Q

Pathology

(+) Brodie’s abscess

A

TB osteomyelitis

245
Q

Pathology

Codman’s triangle, sunburst appearance

A

Osteosarcoma

246
Q

Pathology

Chromosomal abnormalities

A

Advanced maternal age, 35 years of age

247
Q

Pathology

Prenatal dianostic testing procedures

A

Ultrasound, Structural abnormalities, 18-20 weeks

248
Q

Pathology

Aneuploidy

A

Trisomy, Nondisjunction, Trisomy 16, Trisomy 21 (term)

249
Q

Pathology

Translocations

A

Acrocentric chromosomes, Robertsonian translocation

250
Q

Pathology

Short stature, Normal IQ, Webbed neck, Shield chest, Streak gonads, Primary amenorrhea, Primary infertility

A

Turner syndrome, 45X, Turner syndrome, Coarctation of aorta

251
Q

Pathology

Low IQ, Gynecomastia, Truncal obesity, Testicular atrophy

A

Klinefelter syndrome, 47 XXY

252
Q

Pathology

Short stature, Mental retardation, Oblique orbital fissures, Flat nasal bridge, Small ears, Protruding tongue, Muscular hypotonia

A

Down syndrome, Trisomy 21, Endocardial cushion defects

253
Q

Pathology

Achondroplasia, Huntington’s disease, Marfan syndrome, Polycystic kidney disease, Neurofibromastosis, Osteogenesis imperfecta

A

Autosomal dominant, Gross anatomic abnormalities

254
Q

Pathology

Cystic fibrosis, Phenylketonuria, Sickle cell anemia, Tay-Sachs disease, Thalassemia, Wilson disease

A

Autosomal recessive, Enzyme deficiencies

255
Q

Pathology

Duchenne muscular dystrophy, G6PD deficiency, Hemophilia A

A

X-linked recessive, Male relatives

256
Q

Pathology

Postconception weeks 1 to 3

A

Week 1: Implantation, Week 2: 2 layer germ disk, *syncitiotrophoblasts -> B-hCG, Week 3: 3 layer germ disk

257
Q

Pathology

Postconception weeks 4 to 8

A

Organogenesis, Major teratogenic risk

258
Q

Pathology

Paramesonephric duct

A

Mullerian duct, Female, No hormonal stimulation

259
Q

Pathology

Mesonephric duct

A

Wolffian duct, Male, Androgen stimulation

260
Q

Pathology

Alcohol

A

Fetal alcohol syndrome, Microcephaly, Mental retardation, Midfacial hypoplasia, IUGR

261
Q

Pathology

Diethylstillbestrol

A

Vaginal clear cell carcinoma, T-shaped uterus, Incompetent cervix

262
Q

Pathology

Isoretinoin

A

Congenital deafness, Microtia

263
Q

Pathology

Lithium

A

Ebstein’s anomaly

264
Q

Pathology

Streptomycin

A

CN VIII damage, Hearing loss

265
Q

Pathology

Tetracycline

A

Impaired bone development, Teeth discoloration

266
Q

Pathology

Thalidomide

A

Phocomelia, Limb reduction defects

267
Q

Pathology

Valproic acid

A

Neural tube defects

268
Q

Pathology

Human Chorionic Gonadotropin

A

Source, Syncitiotrophoblast, 10 days:rise, 10 weeks: peak, 20 weeks: fall/plateau

269
Q

Pathology

Human Chorionic Gonadotropin

A

Alpha subunit: LH, FSH, TSH; Beta subunit

270
Q

Pathology

Human Placental Lactogen

A

Insulin antagonist; GH, prolactin

271
Q

Pathology

Estrogen Forms

A

Estradiol: menarche; Estriol: pregnancy, Estrone: menopause (aromatase), Estriol: pregnancy (sulfatase), Estrone: menopause (aromatase)

272
Q

Pathology

Progesterone Sources

A

Corpus luteum, 7 to 9 weeks, Placenta

273
Q

Pathology

Skin

A

Chloasma, Palmar erythema, Linea nigra, Spider angiomata, Striae gravidarum, Chadwick sign

274
Q

Pathology

Cardiovascular system

A

Plasma volumeL inc, Cardiac output: inc, Arterial blood pressure: dec, Peripheral vascular resistance: dec

275
Q

Pathology

Cardiac output

A

Left lateral decubitus position, Maximal

276
Q

Pathology

Hematologic system

A

RBC: inc, WBC: inc, Platelets: unchanged, Coagulation factors: inc

277
Q

Pathology

Hemodilution of pregnancy

A

Low hgb and hct, RBC: inc 30%, Plasma volume: inc 50%

278
Q

Pathology

Pulmonary system

A

Functional residual capacity: dec, Residual volume: dec

279
Q

Pathology

Gastrointestinal system

A

Motility: dec, Aspiration, constipation

280
Q

Pathology

Renal system

A

GFR: inc, RPF: inc, Creatinine clearance: inc

281
Q

Pathology

Endrocrine system

A

Cortisol: inc, TBG: inc, Total T3, T4: inc, Free Te,T4: unchanged

282
Q

Pathology

Pituitary gland necrosis

A

Postpartum hypotension, Sheehan’s syndrome

283
Q

Pathology

Amenorrhea, Nausea and vomiting, Breast tenderness, Skin changes

A

Presumptive evidence

284
Q

Pathology

Positive pregnancy test, Enlargement of uterus, Maternal sensation of movement, Hegar sign

A

Probable evidence

285
Q

Pathology

Examiner perception of movement, Fetal heart tones, Ultrasound visualization

A

Positive evidence

286
Q

Pathology

Naegele’s Rule

A

(+) 1 week, (-) 3 months, (+) 1 year

287
Q

Pathology

Basal body temperature

A

Progesterone

288
Q

Pathology

Quickening

A

Primigravid: 18 to 20 weeks, Multipara: 16 to 18 weeks

289
Q

Pathology

Fetal heart tones

A

Doppler steth: 10 to 12 weeks

290
Q

Pathology

Fundal height Centimeters

A

20 weeks

291
Q

Pathology

Ultrasound

A

Dating, 1st T: Crown-rump length, 2nd and 3rd T: HC, BPD, AC, FL

292
Q

Pathology

1st trimester prenatal labs

A

CBC, Direct Coombs test, Rubella IgG, HBV, VDRL/RPR, Urinalysis and culture, Pap smear and culture

293
Q

Pathology

Anemia

A

Mean Corpuscular Volume 100: folate deficiency

294
Q

Pathology

2nd trimester prenatal labs

A

Triple marker screen (AFP, hCG, estriol); Trisomy screening

295
Q

Pathology

3rd trimester prenatal labs

A

24 to 28 weeks, 50g OGTT, CBC, Indirect Coombs Test

296
Q

Pathology

Reactive Non-Stress Test

A

2 acceleration in 20 minutes; >/= 15 bpm; >/= 15 secs, Reassuring

297
Q

Pathology

Nonreactive Non-Stress Test

A

Vibroacoustic stimulation

298
Q

Pathology

Biophysical profile

A

Components, NST, Amniotic fluid volume, Fetal gross body movements, Fetal extremity tone, Fetal breathing movements

299
Q

Pathology

Negative Contraction Stress Test

A

3 contraction in 10 mins, No late decelerations, Reassuring

300
Q

Pathology

Positive Contraction Stress Test

A

(+) late decelerations, 50% contractions, Deliver if >/= 36 weeks

301
Q

Pathology

Toxoplasmosis

A

Toxoplasmosis gondii, Cat feces, Intracranial calcifications, Chorioretinitis, Pyrimethamine

302
Q

Pathology

Group B B-hemolytic Streptococci

A

Vaginal colonizations, Early onset: pneumonia, Late onset: meningitis, Penicillin G

303
Q

Pathology

Syphilis

A

Treponema pallidum, Painless ulcer (chancre), Condyloma lata, Hutchinsons teeth, mulberry molars, Saddle nose, Saber shins, VIII nerve damage

304
Q

Pathology

Syphilis

A

Darkfield microscopy (spirochetes), Nonspecific: VDRL, RPR; Specific: FTA-ABS, MHA-TP; Benzathine Penicillin

305
Q

Pathology

Varicella

A

Respiratory droplets, Pruritic vesicles (5 to 2), Zigzag skin lesions, VZIg, Acyclovir

306
Q

Pathology

Rubella

A

Respiratory droplets, Congenital deafness, CHD (VSD), Blueberry muffin rash

307
Q

Pathology

Cytomegalo Virus

A

Body secretions, Petechial rash, Ganciclovir

308
Q

Pathology

Herpes Simplex Virus

A

HSV II, Mucocutaneous contact, Painful ulcer/ vesicle, Cesarean section, Acyclovir

309
Q

Pathology

Hepatitis B Virus

A

Body secretion, HBeAg, Asymptomatic, HBIg, HepB Vaccine

310
Q

Pathology

Abortion

A

Threatened: closed, viable; Missed: closed, nonviable; Inevitable: open, no POC, Incomplete: open, some POC, Complete: open, all POC; Threatened: observation; Missed: suctionD&C; Inevitable: suction D&C; Incomplete: suction D&C; Complete: observation, BhCG

311
Q

Pathology

Abruptio placenta

A

Placental separation, Normal placental implantation, Painful vaginal bleeding (ATN), Hypertension, trauma, cocaine

312
Q

Pathology

Placenta previa

A

Low placental implantation, Painless vaginal bleeding (ATN), Transverse fetal lie, Multiple gestation, AMA

313
Q

Pathology

Placenta previa

A

Myometrial invasion, Placenta accreta, Cesarian hysterectomy

314
Q

Pathology

Vasa previa

A

Amniotomy, Painless vaginal bleeding, Fetal bradycardia, Velamentous insertion, Accessory placental lobe

315
Q

Pathology

Uterine rupture

A

Painful vaginal bleeding, Fetal bradycardia, Classic CS, myomectomy, Excessive oxytocin

316
Q

Pathology

Abruptio placenta, Placenta precia, Vasa previa, Uterine rupture

A

Abruptio placnenta: painful, N; Uterine rupture: painful, brady; Placenta previa: painless, N; Vasa previa: painless, brady

317
Q

Pathology

Fetal demise

A

> 20 weeks, Maternal: No fetal movement; UTZ: No fetal cardiac activity; DIC (>2 weeks); Tissue thromboplastin; D&E, induction of labor

318
Q

Pathology

Multiple gestation

A

Hyperemesis gravidarum (BhCG), Uterus larger than AOG, Maternal serum AFP: inc

319
Q

Pathology

Multiple gestation

A

Zygotes, Dizygotic: 2 zygotes (di, di), Monozygotic: 1 zygote (depends), 12d (3 layer disk): conjoint

320
Q

Pathology

Race, Geography, Family history

A

Dizygotic twins

321
Q

Pathology

Ovulation induction, Clomiphane citrate, Human menopausal gonadotropin

A

Dizygotic twins

322
Q

Pathology

Twin-twin transfusion

A

Monozygotic twins; Mono, di; Donor Recipient, IUGR Excess growth; Oligoydramnios; Polyhydramnios; Anemia; Polycythemia; Better outcome, Worse outcome

323
Q

Pathology

Multiple gestation

A

Delivery; Cephalic, Cephalic: SVD; Cephalic, Noncephalic: either; Noncephalic, Cephalic: CS; Noncephalic, Noncephalic: CS

324
Q

Pathology

Isoimmunzation, Hemolytic disease of the newborn, Erythroblastosis fetalis

A

Rh (c,C,D,E,e); Mother: Rh negative; Fetus: Rh positive; Father: Rh positive

325
Q

Pathology

Positive indirect Coombs

A

RhoGAM (Anti-D IgG): 28weeks

326
Q

Pathology

Premature rupture of membranes

A

Gush of clear fluid, Oligohydramnios, Ascending infection

327
Q

Pathology

Premature rupture of membranes

A

Sterile speculum examination; Pooling (+): posterior vaginal fornix; Nitrazine (+): pH paper turns blue; Fern (+): ferning pattern on slide

328
Q

Pathology

Premature rupture of membranes

A

Fever and uterine tenderness, No URI or UTI, Chorioamnionitis

329
Q

Pathology

20 weeks <37 wks

A

3 contractions in 30 mins; Cervival dilation >/= 2 cm; Preterm labor; MgSO4, Betamethasone

330
Q

Pathology

Decreased deep tendon reflexes

A

Respirator deoression, Pulmonary edema, MgSO4 toxicity, Calcium gluconate

331
Q

Pathology

AOG > 42 weeks

A

Oligohydramnios, Macrosomia syndrome, Dysmaturity syndrome, Post-term pregnancy, PGE2, oxytocin

332
Q

Pathology

Shoulder dystocia

A

Brachial plexus injury, Macrosomia, McRobert’s maneuver: thigh F

333
Q

Pathology

AOG /= 140/90; No proteinuria

A

Chronic hypertension; Rising BP, proteinuria; Headache, epigastric pain, visual changes; CH with superimposed PE

334
Q

Pathology

AOG >20 weeks; BP >/= 140/90; No proteinuria; BP returns to normal postpartum

A

Gestational hypertension, Conservative management; ACE1: contraindicated

335
Q

Pathology

AOG >20 weeks; BP >/= 140/90; Proteinuria 1-2+ or 300 mg/24h; Absence of preexisting hypertension

A

Mild Pre-eclampsia, Delivery, Oxytocin, MgSO4

336
Q

Pathology

AOG >20 weeks; BP>/= 160/110; Proteinuria 3-4+ or 5g/24h; Headache, epigastric pain, visual changes

A

Severe Pre-eclampsia; Delivery; Hydralazine, oxytocin, MgSO4

337
Q

Pathology

Hypertension, Proteinuria, Unexplained tonic-clonic seizures

A

Eclampsia; Airway, MgSO4; Delivery, hydralazine, oxytocin

338
Q

Pathology

Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzyme, Low platelets

A

HELLP syndrome, Delivery

339
Q

Pathology

Exophthalmus, Elevated resting pulse, Palpitations, Tremors

A

Graves disease, Hyperthyroidism, LATS IgG, Elevated T4, low TSH

340
Q

Pathology

Graves disease, Tx

A

PTU: block synthesis; Subtotal thyroidectomy: 2nd T; Thyroid ablation: contraindicated

341
Q

Pathology

Obesity, Increased weight gain,Elevated FBS, Abnormal 50g OGTT, Abnormal 100g OGTT

A

Gestation DM, Fetal macrosomia

342
Q

Pathology

Gestation Diabetes Mellitus Screening

A

50g OGTT: 1st PNCU (high risk); 50g OGTT: 24 to 28 wks (max hPL); 50 g OGTT: 1st PNCU (high risk); 50g OGTT: 24 to 28 wks (max hPL); >140mg/dl: 100g OGTT; >200mg/dl +FBS >/= 95: GDM

343
Q

Pathology

Gestation Diabetes Mellitus Dx

A

100g OGTT: 95/180/155/140; 1 abnormal value: IGT; 2 abnormal values: GDM

344
Q

Pathology

Gestation Diabetes Mellitus Tx

A

Proper diet, Blood glucose monitoring, Insulin therapy, Oral hypoglycemics: contraindicated

345
Q

Pathology

Urine culture: >100,000 CFU

A

Gram-negative bacteria: E.coli, Asymptomatic bacteriuria: none; Acute cystitis: urgency, frequency, burning; Acute pyelo: fever, vomiting, flank pain; Tetracycline, fluoroquinolones: contraindicated

346
Q

Pathology

Round inlet

A

Straight side walls, Wide supubic arch, Gynecoid pelvis (female), Easy delivery

347
Q

Pathology

Triangular inlet, Convergent side walls, Narrow subpubic arch

A

Android pelvis (male), Arrest of descent

348
Q

Pathology

Anteroposteriorly oval inlet

A

Convergent side walls, Narrow subpubic arch, Anthropoid pelvis, Difficult delivery

349
Q

Pathology

Transversely oval inlet, Straight side walls, Wide subpubi arch

A

Plattypeloid pelvis, Easy delivery

350
Q

Pathology

Breech presentation

A

F thighs, E legs: Frank (v); F thigh, F legs: Complete (m); E thigh/s, E leg/s: Footling (l)

351
Q

Pathology

Fetal attitude

A

Max F: vertex; Partial F: military; Partial E: brow; Max E: face

352
Q

Pathology

External cephalic version

A

37 weeks

353
Q

Pathology

FHR Accelerations

A

/= 10 bpm, >/= 10s; >/= 32 wks: >/= 15 bpm, >/= 15s; SAMS (fetal movement); Reassuring

354
Q

Pathology

FHR, Decelerations

A

Early: fetal head compression; Variable: cord compression; Late: uroplacental insufficiency

355
Q

Pathology

Stages of labor

A

S4: obsevation; S1: contractions to 10cm; Latent phase: P 20h, M 14h; Active phase (4cm):P; 1.2cm/h, M 1.5cm/h; S2: 10cm to delivery P 2h, M 1h; S3: delivery to placental expulsion 30 mins; S4: observation

356
Q

Pathology

Cardinal movements of labor

A

Engagement, Descent, Flexion, Internal Rotation, Extension, External Rotation, Expulsion

357
Q

Pathology

Perineal lacerations

A

1st degree: perineal mucosa; 2nd degree: perineal body; 3rd degree: rectal sphincter; 4th degree: rectal mucosa

358
Q

Pathology

Types of Forceps

A

Simpson (simple): traction; Kjelland (key): rotation; Piper (pipe): breech; Barton: occiput transverse

359
Q

Pathology

2nd trimester, Pelvic pressure, Vaginal mucus discharge, Painless cervical dilation, Hx of cervical conization

A

Incomplete cervix, Cervical cerclage (14 weeks), McDonald procedure: 36 weeks, Shirodkar procedure: cesarean

360
Q

Pathology

Labor pain

A

S2 to S4 Sacral nerve roots; S2 to S4 Spinal, pudendal block, epidural

361
Q

Pathology

Frankenhauser’s ganglion

A

Paracervical block

362
Q

Pathology

Anesthesia

A

Emergency delivery, Blood dyscrasia, General anesthesia

363
Q

Pathology

Endometrial decidua

A

Lochia, 1st wk: lochia rubra (red), 2nd week: lochia serosa (pink), 3rd week: lochia alba (white)

364
Q

Pathology

Postpartum Contraception

A

Lactation: 3 mos; E-P pills: nonlactating women; Progestin-only pills: safe; IUD, diaphragm: 6wks

365
Q

Pathology

Postpartum Hemorrhage

A

Uterine atony, Soft uterus above umbilicus, Uterine massage, uterotonics (Oxytocin, methylergonovine)

366
Q

Pathology

Postpartum fever

A

Day 0: atelectasia; Day 1: UTI; Day 2: endometritis; Day 4: wound infection; Day 5: thrombophlebitis; Day 7: mastitis

367
Q

Pathology

Reproductive years

A

Early age of intercourse, Multiple sexual partners, Oral contraceptive pills, Cigarette smoking, Immunosuppression, Cervical dysplasia, Transformation zone, HPV (16,18,31,33,35)

368
Q

Pathology

HPV 6 and 11

A

Condyloma acuminata, Benign

369
Q

Pathology

Cervical dysplasia

A

Screening, Pap smear, 21 years of age, 3 years after first intercourse

370
Q

Pathology

Postcoital bleeding

A

Invasive cervical cancer, Basement membrane penetration, Cervical biopsy: squamous cell CA

371
Q

Pathology

Invasive cervical cancer

A

Staging, Clinical; I: cervix,3<5; II: 2/3 vagina, parametria; III: 1/3 vagina, pelvic wall; IV: bladder, rectum

372
Q

Pathology

Invasive cervical cancer Tx

A

I to IIa, IIb above, I to IIa: hysterectomy, IIb above: radioTx, chemoTx

373
Q

Pathology

Invasive cervical cancer pregnancy

A

24wks:CS at 32 to 34 wks

374
Q

Pathology

Postmenopausal bleeding

A

Endometrial atrophy, Estrogen + Progesterone

375
Q

Pathology

Postmenopausal bleeding

A

Nulliparity, Late menopause, Obeity, Hypertension, DM, Endrometrial cancer, Unopposed estrogen, Endometrial sampling: adenoCA

376
Q

Pathology

Endometrial cancer

A

Staging, Surgical; I:uterus, endo>Ia>myo; II:cervix; III:vagina, pelvic nodes; IV: bladder, rectum

377
Q

Pathology

Polycystic ovarian disease

A

chronic anovulation, endometrial cancer, progestin

378
Q

Pathology

Enlarged uterus

A

Reproductive years, pregnancy

379
Q

Pathology

Enlarged uterus

A

benign uterine tumor, leiomyoma uteri, estrogen, intramural: most common, submucous: abnormal bleeding; subserosal: external contour

380
Q

Pathology

Leiomyoma uteri, pregnancy

A

Red/carneous degeneration

381
Q

Pathology

Enlarged uterus, Symmetric tender uterus, Absence of pregnancy

A

Adenomyosis, Endo tissue within myo, UTZ, Hysterectomy

382
Q

Pathology

Prepubertal adnexal mass, Sudden onset lower abdominal pain

A

Germ cell tumors; Dysgerminoma: LDH (Xray sensitive); Choriocarcinoma: BhCG; Endodermal sinus tumor: AFP

383
Q

Pathology

Premenopausal adnexal mass

A

Simple mass: physiologic cyst (luteal, follicullar); Complex mass: dermoid cyst (benign cystic teratoma)

384
Q

Pathology

Premenopausal adnexal mass, Sudden onset lower abdominal pain

A

Ovarian torsion

385
Q

Pathology

Dermoid cyst

A

Thyroid tissue, Struma ovarii

386
Q

Pathology

Posmenopausal adnexal mass

A

Ovarian Cancer, BRCA1, High number of ovulations

387
Q

Pathology

Ovarian Cancer

A

Classification, epithelial tumor

388
Q

Pathology

Epithelial tumor: serous

A

Mucinous, brenner, celar cell germ cell tumor: dysgerminoma; ChrioCa, endodermal sinus; stromal tumor: granulosa-theca; Sertoli-Leydig metastatic tumor: Krukenberg (gastric)

389
Q

Pathology

Ovarian ca, Staging

A

Surgical, I:ovary, II:pelvis, III:peritonium, IV: bladder and rectum

390
Q

Pathology

Vulvar pruritus

A

vulvar white lesion, vulvar ca, vulvar biopsy: squamous cell ca

391
Q

Pathology

vulvar pruritus, vulvar red lesion

A

paget disease

392
Q

Pathology

vaginal bleeding AOG, No FHT, Snowstorm UTZ, Theca-lutein cysts

A

Gestational Tropho neoplasia; Placental tissue, BhCG; Gestational Tropho neoplasia; placental tissue, BhCG; Benign (H-mole); Malignant (GTT)

393
Q

Pathology

Benign GTN

A

46,XX; no fetus, grape-like vesicles in uterus, complete mole

394
Q

Pathology

Benign GTN; 46,XXX; fetus present,fetal demise

A

incomplete mole

395
Q

Pathology

Malignant GTN, lung or pelvic metastasis

A

good prognosis metastasis

396
Q

Pathology

Malignant GTN, brain or liver metastasis, BhCG>40,000

A

poor prognosis metastasis

397
Q

Pathology

Malignant GTN, most common site of metastasis

A

lung

398
Q

Pathology

GTN Tx

A

Suction D&C, BhCG titers, weekly til negative for 3 weeks, monthly til negative for 12 mos

399
Q

Pathology

Pelvic relaxation, most common cause

A

Childbirth

400
Q

Pathology

main uterine support, ligament

A

cardinal ligament

401
Q

Pathology

uterine prolapse

A

severity, cervix; GrI: halfway, GrII:inside introitus, Gr III: outside introitus; GrIVL (+) vaginal walls

402
Q

Pathology

kegel exercises

A

pubococcygeus muscles

403
Q

Pathology

micturition receptor

A

cholinergic receptor

404
Q

Pathology

bladder residual volume

A

<50ml

405
Q

Pathology

Sensation of fullness volume

A

200ml

406
Q

Pathology

urge to void volume

A

400ml

407
Q

Pathology

urinary incontinence

A

most common form, genuine stress incontinence, Q-tip test (>30 degrees), does not occur during sleep

408
Q

Pathology

Dysmenorrhea, dyspareunia

A

endometriosis, ovary (chocolate cyst), cul-de-sac (uterosacral ligament), laparoscopy

409
Q

Pathology

unilateral abdominopelvic pain, amenorrhea, vaginal spotting, positive pregnancy test

A

ectopic pregnancy, fallopian tube (ampulla), PID, tubal surgery, UTZ with BhCG (>1500mIU)

410
Q

Pathology

painful ulcer, ragged edge

A

chancroid, Haemophilus ducreyi, Azithro, Ceftri, Erythro

411
Q

Pathology

painless ulcer, beefy red

A

donovanosis, Granuloma inguinale, Calymmatobacterium granulomatis, doxycycline

412
Q

Pathology

Thin grayish-white vaginal discharge, fishy odor

A

bacterial vaginosis, Gardnerella vaginalis, Nitrazine paper: dark (>4.5), KOH smear: positive whiff test, microscopy: clear cells, metronidazole

413
Q

Pathology

Frothy green vaginal discharge, strawberry cervix

A

trichomoniasis, Trichomonas vaginalis, nitrazine paper: dark, Microscopy: motile organisms, metronidazole

414
Q

Pathology

Mucopurulent cervical discharge

A

PID, Chlamydia (C. trachomatis), PCR, Gonorrhea (N. gonorrhea), Thayer-Martin media, Azithromycin + Cephalosporin

415
Q

Pathology

Oral contraceptive pills

A

MOA, Inhibition of LH surge, Alteration of cervical mucus, alteration of endometrium

416
Q

Pathology

Oral contraceptive pills, absolute contraindication

A

Pregnancy, vascular disease (CVA,DVT), Acute liver disease, Hormonally dependent Ca (breast, endo)

417
Q

Pathology

OCP component, Inc in coagulation factors, Inc in HDL, dec in LDL

A

estrogen

418
Q

Pathology

OCP component, mood changes, androgenic effects, inc in LDL, dec in HDL

A

progestin

419
Q

Pathology

OCP, ovarian and endometrial cancer

A

decrease

420
Q

Pathology

HPO axis

A

Hypothalamus: GnRH; Pituitary gland: FSH,LH; Ovary: estrogen, progesterone

421
Q

Pathology

Endometrial layer

A

Spiral arteries, functional layer, basal layer: basal arteries

422
Q

Pathology

menstrual cycle day 1

A

first day of menses

423
Q

Pathology

heavy menstrual bleeding

A

Menorrhagia

424
Q

Pathology

proliferative phase

A

follicular phase, hormone, estrogen

425
Q

Pathology

secretory phase

A

luteal phase, hormonoe, progesterone, corpus luteum: 7-10 days, BhCG

426
Q

Pathology

proliferative phase to secretory phase; follicular phase to luteal phase

A

Transition, LH surge, ovulation, Pain:mittelschmerz

427
Q

Pathology

theca cells hormone

A

LH, androgen production (androstenedione, testosterone)

428
Q

Pathology

granulosa cells hormone

A

FSH, androgen to estrogen (aromatase)

429
Q

Pathology

inhibin

A

granulosa cell, Suppress FSH (negative feedback)

430
Q

Pathology

Premenarchal vaginal bleeding

A

foreign body; grape-like lesions: Sarcoma botyroides

431
Q

Pathology

Precocious puberty

A

8 years of age; thelarche (breast): 9; adrenarche (pubic, axillary hair): 10; growth:11; menarche (menses): 12

432
Q

Pathology

Precocious puberty, most common cause

A

idiopathic

433
Q

Pathology

Precocious puberty, autonomous ovarian E production

A

McCune-Albright syndrome, Aromatase enzyme inhibitor

434
Q

Pathology

Primary amenorrhea; breast present, uterus present

A

imperforate hymen, vaginal septum, excessive exercise, anorexia nervosa

435
Q

Pathology

primary amenorrhea; breast present uterus absent

A

mullerian agenesis: 46,xx; (Rokitansky-Kuster-Hauser syndrom); androgen sensitivity: 46,XY

436
Q

Pathology

primary amenorrhea; breast absent, uterus present

A

Turner syndrome (gonadal dysgenesis); hypothalamic-pituitary failure (anosmia:Kallman syndrome)

437
Q

Pathology

secondary amenorrhea, most common cause

A

pregnancy

438
Q

Pathology

hirsutism, gradual onset, elevated 17-OH progesterone

A

Congenital adrenal hyperplasia (21-OH deficiency)

439
Q

Pathology

hirsutism, gradual onset, elevated LH:FSH (3:1)

A

polycystic ovarian syndrome (stein-leventhal syndrome) OCP

440
Q

Pathology

virilization, rapid onset, elevated DHEAS

A

adrenal tumor

441
Q

Pathology

virilization, rapid onset, elevated testosterone

A

ovarian tumor

442
Q

Pathology

infertility

A

> 12 mos, Clomiphene citrate, in vitro fertilization

443
Q

Pathology

hot flashes, irritability, amenorrhea, vaginal dryness

A

menopause; elevated FSH,LH; Cardiovascular disease, osteoporosis

444
Q

Pathology

hormone replacement therapy contraindications

A

vascular disease (CVA,DVT); hormonally dependent Ca

445
Q

Pathology

SERM, Tamoxifen

A

ER agonist and antagonist effects; agonist: bone,endometrium; antagonist: breast

446
Q

Pathology

SERM, Raloxifene

A

ER agonist and antagonist effects; Agonist: bone, Antagonist: endometrium

447
Q

Pathology

Bilateral B enlargement, tenderness, fluctuation with menstrual cycle, painful nodule, clear fluid on aspiration,

A

fibrocystic breast changes

448
Q

Pathology

rubbery, nontender B mass, freely movable on palpation, epithelium and stroma on aspiration

A

fibroadenoma

449
Q

Pathology

bloody nipple discharge

A

intraductal papilloma

450
Q

Pathology

older women, firm, nonmovable B mass

A

breast cancer, infiltrating ductal breast cancer

451
Q

Pathology

breast cancer, most important prognostic factor

A

axillary lymph node status

452
Q

Pathology

breast tumor, younger women

A

fibroadenoma

453
Q

Pathology

breast tumor, older women

A

breast cancer

454
Q

Pathology

Breast tumor, most common location

A

upper outer quadrant

455
Q

Pathology

legal aspect of the practice of med

A

service

456
Q

Pathology

goal of the practice of med

A

life and health

457
Q

Pathology

objective of the practice of med

A

police power of the state

458
Q

Pathology

power of the state that controls the practice of med

A

reciprocuty

459
Q

Pathology

if filipinos are allowed to practice in a foreign country, their citizens are allowed to practice in the phils

A

endorsement

460
Q

Pathology

a foreign country has similar qualification with that of ours

A

TRUE

461
Q

Pathology

true or false: medical students can use the “M.D.” after their names

A

board of medical education

462
Q

Pathology

administrative body concerned with the standardization and regulation of medical education

A

professional regulation commission

463
Q

Pathology

administrative body which supervise and regulate all professions requiring examinations

A

board of medicine

464
Q

Pathology

administrative body which supervises the practice of medicine

A

professional regulation commission

465
Q

Pathology

term: 9 years. PRC or BOM?

A

board of medicine

BUZZWORDS (3 decks)

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