Pathology

Question 1

Benign tumor of nasal mucosa composed of large blood vessels and fibrous tissue; classically seen in adolescent males

Presents with profuse epistaxis

Answer 1

Angiofibroma

Question 2

Protrusion of edematous, inflamed nasal mucosa.

Usually secondary to repeated bouts of rhinitis; also occurs in cystic fibrosis and aspirin-intolerant asthma

Answer 2

NASAL POLYP

Aspirin-intolerant asthma is characterized by the triad of asthma, aspirin-induced bronchospasms, and nasal polyps; seen in 10% of asthmatic adults

Question 3

Inflammation of the nasal mucosa;
Presents with sneezing, congestion, and runny nose (common cold).
Rhinovirus is the most common cause.

Answer 3

RHINITIS
Allergic rhinitis is a subtype of rhinitis due to a type I hypersensitivity reaction (e.g., to pollen), and is characterized by an inflammatory infiltrate

Question 4

Malignant tumor of nasopharyngeal epithelium
Associated with EBV; classically seen in African children and Chinese adults.
Biopsy usually reveals pleomorphic keratin-positive epithelial cells (poorly differentiated squamous cell carcinoma) in a background of lymphocytes.

Answer 4

NASOPHARYNGEAL CARCINOMA

Often presents with involvement of cervical lymph nodes

Question 5

Inflammation of the epiglottis; H influenzae type b is the most common cause, especially in non immunized children.
Presents with high fever, sore throat, drooling with dysphagia, muffled voice, and inspiratory stridor; risk of airway obstruction

Answer 5

ACUTE EPIGLOTTITIS

Question 6

Inflammation of the upper airway; parainfluenza virus is the most common cause.
Presents with a hoarse, “barking” cough and inspiratory stridor

Answer 6

LARYNGOTRACHEOBRONCHITIS (CROUP)

Question 7

Due to excessive use of vocal cords; usually bilateral.
Composed of degenerative (myxoid) connective tissue.
Presents with hoarseness; resolves with resting of voice.

Answer 7

VOCAL CORD NODULE (SINGER’S NODULE)

Nodule that arises on the true vocal cord

Question 8

Benign papillary tumor of the vocal cord
Due to HPV 6 and 11; papillomas are usually single in adults and multiple in children.
Presents with hoarseness

Answer 8

LARYNGEAL PAPILLOMA

Question 9

Full-thickness defect of lip or palate, due to failure of facial prominences to fuse.
During early pregnancy, facial prominences (one from superior, two from the sides, and two from inferior) grow and fuse together to form the face.

Answer 9

CLEFT LIP AND PALATE

C. Cleft lip and palate usually occur together; isolated cleft lip or palate is less common.

Question 10

Painful, superficial ulceration of the oral mucosa that arises in relation to stress and resolves spontaneously, but often recurs.
Characterized by a grayish base surrounded by erythema

Answer 10

APHTHOUS ULCER

Recurrent aphthous ulcer is called Behcet syndrome

Question 11

Recurrent aphthous ulcers, genital ulcers, and uveitis

Due to immune complex vasculitis involving small vessels. Can be seen after viral infection, but etiology is unknown

Answer 11

BEHCET SYNDROME

Question 12

Vesicles involving oral mucosa that rupture, resulting in shallow, painful, red ulcers.
Primary infection occurs in childhood; lesions heal, but virus remains dormant in ganglia of the ______ nerve.
Stress and sunlight cause reactivation of the virus, leading to vesicles that often arise on the lips.

Answer 12

ORAL HERPES (Usually due to HSV-1)

trigeminal nerve

Question 13

Malignant neoplasm of squamous cells lining the oral mucosa.
Tobacco and alcohol are major risk factors.
Floor of mouth is the most common location.
Oral leukoplakia and erythroplakia are precursor lesions.

Answer 13

SQUAMOUS CELL CARCINOMA

Erythroplakia and leukoplakia are often biopsied to rule out carcinoma.

Question 14

_______ is a white plaque that cannot be scraped away; often represents squamous cell dysplasia.

Answer 14

Leukoplakia

It is distinct from oral candidiasis (thrush) and hairy leukoplakia.

Question 15

_________ is a white, rough (‘hairy’) patch that arises on the lateral tongue. It is usually seen in immunocompromised individuals (e.g., AIDS) and is due to EBV-induced squamous cell hyperplasia; not pre-malignant

Answer 15

Hairy leukoplakia

Question 16

________ is a white deposit on the tongue, which is easily scraped away; usually seen in immunocompromised states and is caused by fungi

Answer 16

Oral candidiasis

Question 17

______ represents vascularized leukoplakia and is highly

suggestive of squamous cell dysplasia.

Answer 17

Erythroplakia (red plaque)

Question 18

Infection resulting in bilateral inflamed parotid glands. Orchitis, pancreatitis, and aseptic meningitis may also be present.

1. Serum amylase is increased due to salivary gland or pancreatic involvement.
2. Orchitis carries risk of sterility, especially in teenagers.

Answer 18

MUMPS

Question 19

Inflammation of the salivary gland. Most commonly due to an obstructing stone (sialolithiasis) leading to Staphylococcus aureus infection; usually unilateral

Answer 19

SIALADENITIS

Question 20

Benign tumor composed of stromal (e.g., cartilage) and epithelial tissue; most common tumor of the salivary gland. Usually arises in parotid; presents as a mobile, painless, circumscribed mass at the angle of the jaw.
This tumor has high rate of recurrence; extension of small islands of tumor through tumor capsule often leads to incomplete resection.

Answer 20

PLEOMORPHIC ADENOMA
Rarely may transform into carcinoma, which presents with signs of facial nerve damage (facial nerve runs through parotid gland)

Question 21

Benign cystic tumor with abundant lymphocytes and germinal centers (lymph node-like stroma); 2nd most common tumor of the salivary gland.
This tumor almost always arises in the parotid

Answer 21

WARTHIN TUMOR

Question 22

Malignant tumor composed of mucinous and squamous cells; most common malignant tumor of the salivary gland.
Usually arises in the parotid; commonly involves the facial nerve.

Answer 22

MUCOEPIDERMOID CARCINOMA

Question 23

A 6-year-old boy presents with painful sores on his upper
lip. He was seen for a fl u 1 week ago. The lesion appears as 0.2- to 0.4-cm vesicles with focal ulceration. Which of the following is the most likely histologic feature of this skin lesion?
(A) Acute arteritis
(B) Caseating granulomas
(C) Fungal hyphae
(D) Multinucleated epithelial cells
(E) Noncaseating granulomas

Answer 23

The answer is D: Multinucleated epithelial cells. 
Herpes labialis (cold sores, fever blisters) and herpetic stomatitis are caused by herpes virus type 1. Microscopically, the herpetic vesicle forms as a result of
“ballooning degeneration” of the epithelial cells. Some epithelial cells show intranuclear inclusion bodies. At the edge of the ulcer are large, multinucleated, epithelial cells with “ground glass” homogenized nuclei, often exhibiting nuclear molding. The ulcers heal spontaneously without scar formation.

Question 24

A 40-year-old woman is hospitalized because of a massive neck infection that developed over a period of 3 days after extraction of an impacted wisdom tooth. She has a high fever, and her lower jaw and entire neck are swollen, red, and painful. Throat culture reveals a mixed bacterial fl ora, containing both aerobic and anaerobic microorganisms. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
(A) Actinomycosis
(B) Acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
(C) Ludwig angina
(D) Pyogenic granuloma
(E) Scarlet fever

Answer 24

Ludwig angina is a rapidly spreading cellulitis, or phlegmon, which originates in the submaxillary or sublingual space but extends locally to involve both. The bacteria responsible for this infection originate from the oral flora. After extraction of a tooth, hairline fractures may occur in the lingual cortex of the mandible, providing microorganisms ready access to the submaxillary space. By following the fascial planes, the infection may dissect into the parapharyngeal space and, from there, into the carotid sheath. Actinomycosis (choice A) features branched, filamentous bacteria. Acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (Vincent angina, choice B) does not extend to the neck. Pyogenic granuloma (choice D) is a focal, reactive vascular lesion.

Question 25

``` A 16-year-old girl presents with a sore throat of 4 months in duration. She describes feeling a lump in her throat. Physical examination reveals a 1-cm cystic lesion at the base of the tongue. This developmental lesion most likely arises as a remnant of which of the following anatomic structures? (A) Auditory tube (B) Branchial arches (C) Facial fusion lines (D) Rudimentary thymus (E) Thyroglossal duct ```

Answer 25

The answer is E: Thyroglossal duct. During its normal development, the thyroid gland descends from the base of the tongue to its final position in the neck. Heterotopic functioning thyroid tissue or a developmental cyst (thyroglossal duct cyst) may occur anywhere along the path of descent. The most common location is at the foramen cecum of the tongue. Symptoms such as dysphonia, sore throat, and awareness of a mass in the throat often become evident during adolescence and pregnancy. The other choices do not present in this anatomic location. In particular, branched cleft cysts that originate from remnants of the branchial arches (choice B) occur in the lateral anterior aspect of the neck or in the parotid gland.

Question 26

``` A 2-year-old girl was withdrawn from a day care center for excessive irritability. On physical examination, she has multiple, small superfi cial ulcers of the oral mucosa. The ulcerations heal spontaneously over the next 5 days. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? (A) Aphthous stomatitis (B) Candidiasis (C) Gingivitis (D) Ludwig angina (E) Pyogenic granuloma ```

Answer 26

Aphthous stomatitis describes a common disease that is characterized by painful, recurrent, solitary or multiple, small ulcers of the oral mucosa. The causative agent is unknown. Microscopically, the lesion consists of a shallow ulcer covered by a fibrinopurulent exudate. Candidiasis (choice B) features white plaques.

Question 27

``` A 6-year-old boy presents with a painful sore in his mouth. Physical examination reveals a small, elevated, and focally ulcerated red-purple gingival lesion. A soft red mass measuring 1 cm in diameter is surgically removed. Histologic examination discloses highly vascular granulation tissue, with marked acute and chronic inflammation. What is the most likely diagnosis? (A) Acute necrotizing gingivitis (B) Aphthous stomatitis (C) Herpes labialis (D) Pyogenic granuloma (E) Tuberculosis ```

Answer 27

Pyogenic granuloma is a reactive vascular lesion that commonly occurs in the oral cavity. Usually some minor trauma to the tissues permits invasion of nonspecific microorganisms. In the oral cavity, pyogenic granulomas, ranging from a few millimeters to a centimeter, are most frequent on the gingiva. The lesion is seen as an elevated, red or purple, soft mass, with a smooth, lobulated, ulcerated surface. Microscopically, the nodule consists of highly vascular granulation tissue that shows varying degrees of acute and chronic inflammation. With time, pyogenic granuloma becomes less vascular and comes to resemble a fibroma. Choices A, B, and C are ulcerating lesions. Tuberculosis (choice E) features granulomatous inflammation.

Question 28

A 60-year-old man, who is a chronic alcoholic, is referred by a homeless shelter for facial ulcers. On physical examination, there are large ulcerations in the mouth and facial tissues with focal exposure of bone. A culture grows Borrelia vincentii. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? (A) Acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (B) Apical granuloma (C) Ludwig angina (D) Periodontitis (E) Pyogenic granuloma

Answer 28

Acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (Vincent angina) represents an infection by two symbiotic organisms; one is a fusiform bacillus, and the other is a spirochete (B. vincentii). The fact that these organisms are found in the mouths of many healthy persons suggests that predisposing factors are important in the development of acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis. The most important element appears to be decreased resistance to infection as a result of inadequate nutrition, immunodefi ciency, or poor oral hygiene. Vincent infection is characterized by punched-out erosions of the interdental papillae. The ulceration tends to spread and eventually to involve all gingival margins, which become covered by a necrotic pseudomembrane.

Question 29

``` A 4-year-old boy from Uganda presents for pre-school physical examination. His parents indicate that hearing loss in his right ear developed 3 years ago following an acute illness. If this child’s hearing loss was caused by a viral infection, which of the following was the most likely etiology? (A) Chickenpox (B) Epstein-Barr virus (C) Mumps (D) Rubella (E) Yellow fever ```

Answer 29

Mumps is the most common cause of deafness among the postnatal viral infections. The infection can cause rapid hearing loss, which is unilateral in 80% of cases. By contrast, prenatal infection of the labyrinth with rubella (choice D) is usually bilateral, with permanent loss of cochlear and vestibular function.

Question 30

A 64-year-old man presents with sores on the gums. Oral examination shows multiple, gingival abscesses adjacent to the teeth and excessive mobility of several teeth. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? (A) Dental caries (B) Hyperparathyroidism (C) Osteitis deformans (D) Periapical granuloma (E) Periodontal disease

Answer 30

Periodontal disease refers to acute and chronic disorders of the soft tissues surrounding the teeth, which eventually lead to the loss of supporting bone. Chronic periodontal disease typically occurs in adults, particularly in persons with poor oral hygiene. However, many persons with apparently impeccable habits, but a strong family history of periodontal disease, manifest the disorder.

Question 31

``` An 8-year-old boy presents with a 3-day history of fever and sore throat. His temperature is 38°C (101°F), pulse is 88 per minute, and respirations are 33 per minute. On physical examination, the tonsils are enlarged, boggy, and coated with a purulent exudate. A tonsillar swab is most likely to grow which of the following microorganisms? (A) Staphylococcus aureus (B) Staphylococcus epidermidis (C) Streptococcus pneumoniae (D) Streptococcus pyogenes (E) Streptococcus viridans ```

Answer 31

Streptococcus pyogenes. Acute tonsillitis may be caused by bacterial or viral infections. Streptococcus pyogenes (group A b-hemolytic streptococci, choice D) is the most common etiologic agent in acute suppurative tonsillitis. Diagnosis: Tonsillitis, acute

Question 32

A 70-year-old woman complains of gradual hearing loss. Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause of conducting hearing loss in this patient? (A) Acoustic trauma (B) Chronic otitis media (C) Labyrinthine toxicity (D) Mastoiditis (E) Otosclerosis

Answer 32

Otosclerosis refers to the formation of new spongy bone about the stapes and the oval window, which results in progressive deafness. This condition is an autosomal dominant hereditary defect and is the most common cause of conductive hearing loss in young and middle-aged adults in the United States

Question 33

``` 19 A 24-year-old man presents with right ear pain that he has had for 3 days. He recently returned from a scuba diving trip to the Caribbean. The patient is afebrile. Otoscopic examination reveals a bulging, right tympanic membrane. What is the most likely diagnosis? (A) Acute mastoiditis (B) Acute rhinitis (C) Acute serous otitis media (D) Acute sinusitis (E) Acute suppurative otitis media ```

Answer 33

Acute serous otitis media. Obstruction of the eustachian tube may result from sudden changes in atmospheric pressure (e.g., during flying in an aircraft or deep sea diving). This effect is particularly severe in the presence of an upper respiratory tract infection, an acute allergic reaction, or viral or bacterial infection at the orifice of the eustachian tube. Inflammation may also occur without bacterial invasion of the middle ear. More than half of children in the United States have had at least one episode of serous otitis media before their third birthday. It has become increasingly evident that repeated bouts of otitis media in early childhood often contribute to unsuspected hearing loss, which is due to residual (usually sterile) fluid in the middle ear.

Question 34

``` A 34-year-old man complains of hearing loss. He has had multiple bouts of ear infections over the last 20 years and was recently diagnosed with chronic suppurative otitis media. Which of the following is the most likely complication of this condition in this patient? (A) Acoustic neuroma (B) Cholesteatoma (C) Chronic rhinitis (D) Chronic sinusitis (E) Squamous cell carcinoma ```

Answer 34

Cholesteatoma is a complication of chronic suppurative otitis and a rupture of the eardrum. Cholesteatoma is a mass of accumulated keratin and squamous mucosa that results from the growth of squamous epithelium from the external ear canal through the perforated eardrum into the middle ear. Microscopically, cholesteatomas are identical to epidermal inclusion cysts and are surrounded by granulation tissue and fibrosis. The keratin mass frequently becomes infected and shields the bacteria from antibiotics

Question 35

Characteristics of Viral encephalitis include which of the following? Perivascular cuffing Neuronphagia Abcesses Glial nodules

Answer 35

Perivascular cuffing Neuronphagia Glial nodules

Question 36

Which lobe of the brain would a herpes simplex virus infection causing encephalitis affect?

Answer 36

Adults have Temporal lobes that are affected and become swollen, hemorrhagic and necrotic Children have general impact to cerebrum

Question 37

Cowdry A intranuclear inclusions are most commonly found in what encephalitis causing disease?

Answer 37

Herpes simplex-1 infection causing encephalitis

Question 38

Most cases of herpetic viral meningitis is caused by which type of herpes virus?

Answer 38

HSV-2 most cases of meningitis, not necessarily encephalitis

Question 39

What is the name of the classic inclusion body seen in rabies?

Answer 39

Negri bodies in cytoplasm These are small bullet-shaped eosinophilic cytoplasmic viral inclusion bodies seen in the hippocampus, brainstem, and cerebellar purkinje cells that will confirm a rabies diagnosis

Question 40

Gial nodules with multinucleated giant cells in a perivascular location are characteristic of which type of encephalitis?

Answer 40

HIV encephalitis which is thought to be caused by monocytes carrying the infection into the CNS (trojan horse) Remember, in general, viruses can cause glial nodules

Question 41

Viral encephalitis caused bt the JC polyomavirus is called what? What type of cell does it preferentially infect?

Answer 41

Progressive multifocal lukoencephalopathy Preferentially infects oligodendrocytes, therefore demyelination is its principal pathological effect Disease occurs in immunosuppressed individuals

Question 42

If you see a viral infection causing demyelination, what may be the dx?

Answer 42

progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy

Question 43

With fungal meningoencephalitis, which fungal infections are associated with vasculitis?

Answer 43

Mucor and aspergillus Penetrate through vessel wall and cause inflammation You really don't see fungal brain infections unless immunocompromised

Question 44

With fungal meningoencephalitis, which fungal infections are associated with brain invasion?

Answer 44

candida and cryptococcus (soap-bubble abscesses) You really don't see fungal brain infections unless immunocompromised

Question 45

What fungal infection is commonly seen in people with poorly controlled diabetics?

Answer 45

mucor (mucormycosis) You really don't see fungal brain infections unless immunocompromised

Question 46

The vast majority of adult/child tumors are supratentorial

Answer 46

Adult tumors are mostly supratentorial A majority (though not vast majority) of child tumors are infratentorial, mostly cerebellum

Question 47

Name this CNS tumor: | Malignant, high-grade tumor of astrocytes

Answer 47

Glioblastoma multiforme (GBM)

Question 48

Name this CNS tumor: | The most common primary malignant CNS tumor in adults

Answer 48

Glioblastoma multiforme (GBM)

Question 49

Name this CNS tumor: | Usually arises in the cerebral hemisphere and characteristically crosses the corpus callosum (butterfly lesion)

Answer 49

Glioblastoma multiforme (GBM)

Question 50

Name this CNS tumor: Characterized by regions of necrosis surrounded by tumor cells in a pseudopalisading manner with endothelial cell (Vascular) proliferation

Answer 50

Glioblastoma multiforme (GBM)

Question 51

Name this CNS tumor: | Ring enhancing around a central area of necrosis

Answer 51

Glioblastoma multiforme (GBM)

Question 52

How does IDH (isocitrate dehydrogenase) status predict prognosis for glioblastoma?

Answer 52

IDH mutation have increased survival and better prognosis compared to IDH wild-type Younger patients are more likely to be IDH mutants than older patients

Question 53

How does MGMT promoter methylation status predict prognosis for glioblastoma?

Answer 53

MGMT promoter methylation status is associated with a better response to chemotherapy with increased survival

Question 54

Name this CNS tumor: | Benign tumor of arachnoid cells and the most common benign CNS tumor in adults

Answer 54

Meningioma More commonly seen in women than men

Question 55

Name this CNS tumor: Imaging reveals a round mass attached to the dura. Histology shows a whorled pattern

Answer 55

Meningioma

Question 56

Name this CNS tumor: | Benign tumor of schwaan cells and involves CNVIII most frequently

Answer 56

Schwannoma Tumor cells are S-100 positive

Question 57

Name this CNS tumor: | malignant tumor of ologodendrocytes

Answer 57

oligodendroglioma

Question 58

Name this CNS tumor: Imaging reveals a calcified tumor in the white matter, usually involving frontal lobe and will have a "fried egg" appearance of cells on biopsy

Answer 58

oligodendroglioma The fried egg appearance is also known as perinuclear halos

Question 59

Name this CNS tumor: Benign tumor of astrocytes The most common CNS tumor in children

Answer 59

Pilocytic astrocytoma Usually arises in the cerebellum, which is infratentorial

Question 60

Name this CNS tumor: Imaging reveals a cystic lesion with a mural nodule. Biopsy shows Rosenthal fibers and eosinophilic granular bodies

Answer 60

Pilocytic astrocytoma Rosenthal fibers are thick eosinophilic processes of astrocytes GFAP postitive

Question 61

Name this CNS tumor: | Malignant tumor derived from granular cells of the cerebellum (neuroectoderm), usually arises in children

Answer 61

Medulloblastoma

Question 62

Name this CNS tumor: Histology revelas small, round blue cells; Homer-Wright rosettes may be present Poor prognosis; tumor grows and spreads rapidly via CSF

Answer 62

Medulloblastoma Metastasis to the cauda equina is termed "drop metastasis" Radiosensitive

Question 63

Name this CNS tumor: Malignant tumor of ependymal cells; usually seen in children Most commonly arises in 4th ventricle and my present in hydrocephalus Perivascular pseudorosettes on biopsy

Answer 63

Ependymoma

Question 64

Name this CNS tumor: Tumor that arises from the epithelial remnants of Rathke's pouch, presenting as a supratentorial mass in a child or young adult

Answer 64

Craniopharyngioma

Question 65

Name this CNS tumor: | May compress the optic chaism leading to bitemporal hemianopsia

Answer 65

Craniopharyngioma Calcifications are commonly seen on imaging

Question 66

Name this CNS tumor: | Often observed in patients with long term epilepsy, tumor not always obvious on imaging

Answer 66

Ganglioglioma: neoplastic, mature ganglion cells with neoplastic glial cells Gangliocytoma: Neoplastic mature ganglion cells Not all seizure foci are due to gangliogliomas

Question 67

Immunosuppressed patients (e.g. recent organ transplant, HIV, MS) are at an increased risk for what type of CNS tumor?

Answer 67

Primary CNS lymphoma (B-cell most often) Blood vessels surrounded by neoplastic cells...marked perivascular lymphocytic cuffing

Question 68

Name this CNS tumor: Dural neoplasm with a dural tail seen on imaging. Lower grade has female skew, express progesterone receptor (in both genders) and meningiomas grow during preganacy

Answer 68

Meningioma Radiation is a risk factor

Question 69

What is the hereditary condition most commonly associated with bilateral schwannomas,

Answer 69

Neurofibromatosis Type 2 (NF-2)

Question 70

An EEG with spike waves is pathognomonic for what neurodegenerative disease?`

Answer 70

Spongiform Encephalopathy due to prion proteins Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease is the most common and patients present with rapidly progressive dementia associated with ataxia

Question 71

Degeneration of GABAergic neurons in the caudate nucleus of the basal ganglia, along with characteristic involuntary movements of all parts of the body and deterioration of cognitive function is associated with what neurodegenerative disorder?

Answer 71

Huntington Disease autosomal dominant-Expansion of a trinucleotide repeat Presents wit chorea that can progress to dementia and depression Suicide is a common cause of death

Question 72

_________ is a degenerative disorder of the cerebellum and spinal cord and is often associate with the development of cardiomyopathy

Answer 72

Friedreich Ataxia | Often seen with combined ataxia of both upper and lower limbs

Question 73

Fracture to the temporal bone with a rupture of the middle meningeal artery; bleeding separates the dura from the skull and produces a lens shaped lesion on CT

Answer 73

Epidural hematoma-collection of blood between dura and skull (where MMA is located) a lucid interval may precede neurologic signs

Question 74

Due to a tearing of bridging veins that lie between dura and arachnoid and presents with a crescent-shaped lesion on CT. Increased rate of occurrence in elderly due to age-related cerebral atrophy which stretches the veins

Answer 74

Subdural hematoma | Presents with progressive neurologic signs

Question 75

histology of brain tissue at autopsy shows spherical, eosinophilic inclusions in the cytoplasm composed of alpha-synuclein...what is the disease?

Answer 75

Parkinsons disease | describing lewy bodies that will be found in the substantia nigra

Question 76

When deciding between viral and bacterial meningitis, which is more likely with neutrophils present in the CSF?

Answer 76

Neutrophils- go with bacterial