Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Renal SB > Pathology > Flashcards

Pathology Flashcards

1
Q

what is agenesis

A

absence of one or both kidneys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is the name given to small kidneys but normal development

A

hypoplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is a ‘horseshoe’ kidney

A

fusion of the kidneys at either ple

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is duplex system

A

two kidneys (one on top of the other) on one or both sides of your body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is a very common cystic disease of the kidney

A

simple cysts
can be multiple and large
usually clear fluid filled
often incidental finding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what conditions is simple cysts often secondary to

A

native kidneys in long term dialysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what are the two subtypes of genetic polycystic disease

A 
infantile type (ARPKD)
adult polycystic disease (ADPKD)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

features of infantile polycystic disease

A

rare
causes terminal renal failure
less severe cases can survive for some months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

why is infantile polycystic disease terminal

A

perinatal - not suitable for renal transplant or dialysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what are pathological features of infantile polycystic disease

A

Uniform bilateral renal enlargement.

Elongated cysts – dilatation of medullary collecting ducts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what type of genetic inheritance is infantile polycystic disease

A

autosomal recessive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is infantile polycystic disease associated with

A

congenital hepatic fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

how is infantile polycystic disease diagnosed

A

prenatal ultrasound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what congenital cystic disease is more common

A

Adult Polycystic Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what type of inheritance is Adult Polycystic Disease

A

autosomal dominant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what are the two possible chromosomes that can be affect to cause Adult Polycystic Disease

A

Chromosome 16

Chromosome 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what chromosome defect is 90% of the cases of Adult Polycystic Disease

A

Chromosome 16 defect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

typical presentation of adult polycystic disease

A 
middle adult life
abdominal mass
haematuria 
hypertension
chronic renal failure
renal stone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

pathology of Adult Polycystic Disease

A

massive bilateral renal enlargement

multiple cysts of varying size arising in any part of nephron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is seen in 1/3rd of patients with Adult Polycystic Disease

A

cysts in liver, pancreas, lung but with no functional effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is Adult Polycystic Disease associated with

A

Berry aneurysms in Circle of Willis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what does Berry aneurysms predisposed patients to

A

subarachnoid haemorrhage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what other haemorrhage are patients with adult polycystic disease are at risk at and why

A

intra-cerebral haemorrhage

due to hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

most common benign renal tumour and its features

A

fibroma

Medullary origin, white nodules. No clinical consequence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

typical features of a benign renal adenoma

A

yellowish nodules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what is an Angiomyolipoma

A

benign renal tumour
mixture of fat, muscle and blood vessels
can be multiple and bilateral so can affect renal function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what are angiomyolipoma associated with

A

tuberous sclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what is a JGCT and what can they cause

A

tumour of the cells that make renin

secondary hypertension&raquo_space; due to over production of renin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what is the commonest renal tumour of childhood

A

Wilms’ Nephroblastoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what is the pathology of a Wilms tumour

A

undifferentiated mesodermal tumour of the intermediate cell mass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Sx of Wilms’ tumour

A

fever
flank pain
abdo mass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

where are Urothelial Carcinomas found

A

in renal pelvis and calcyes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what is the commonest renal tumour of adulthood

A

Renal Cell Carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what is a Renal Cell Carcinoma also known as

A

Clear Cell Ca,
hypernephroma
Grawitz tumour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what does a RCC arise from

A

renal tubular epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

typical presentation of RCC

A

55-60 y/o

M > F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Sx of RCC

A

Abdominal mass
haematuria
flank pain
weight loss, malaise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what do RCC often cause

A

polycythaemia - increased concentration of haemoglobin in the blood, either through reduction of plasma volume or increase in red cell numbers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

why does RCC cause polycythaemia

A

erythropoietic stimulating substance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what other disorder can RCC cause

A

hypercalcaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

pathology of RCC

A

Large, well circumscribed mass centred on cortex.
Yellow - due to tumour being rich in glycogen and lipid
Renal vein extension common
Can extend into vena cava

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

where does RCC tend to spread

A

via blood

lung, bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

where can a Transitional Cell Carcinoma arise

A

bladder, ureter or renal pelvis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

how common are TCC’s

A

are 90% of bladder tumours

45
Q

Risk factors for TCCs

A

Smoking
schistosomiasis (parasitic infection caught in tropical countries)
Dye and Rubber industry occupation

46
Q

Sx of TCCs

A 
Painless Haematuria - v common 
Frequency
Urgency
Dysuria 
Urinary tract obstruction
47
Q

Ix of TCC

A

Cystoscopy w/ biopsy - diagnostic

CT urogram - 2nd line

48
Q

pathology of TCC

A

75% occur in region of trigone
Papillary or solid.
Papillae have thicker lining than normal urothelium.

49
Q

main tumour seen on the penis and prognosis

A

squamous carcinoma arising from the skin

only 5% become invasive

50
Q

what is Bowen disease of the penis called and what does it indicate

A

Erythroplasia of Queyrat.

pre-malignancy

51
Q

histology of squamous carcinoma in the penis

A

full thickness dysplasia of epidermis

52
Q

aetiology of penis tumours

A

uncircumcised men
poor hygiene
HPV infection

53
Q

what was a common tumour in chimney sweeps

A

SCC of scrotum

54
Q

Benign Nodular Hyperplasia of Prostate (BNH) is an uncommon and always troublesome disease - true or false

A

false
75% of men over 70 have it
only 5% have significant symptoms

55
Q

what causes BNH

A

Irregular proliferation of both glandular and stromal prostatic tissue.

56
Q

how can BNH obstruct the bladder sphincter mechanism

A

by physical obstruction
or
physiological interference

57
Q

where does BNH often affect physiological interference in the bladder

A

peri-urethral glands at internal urethral meatus.

where internal opening are

58
Q

what is prostatism (symptoms of bladder obstruction)

A

difficulty in starting micturition (i.e. starting to pee)
poor stream
overflow incontinence

59
Q

what is complication of BNH

A

chronic urinary retention
bladder hypertrophy
diverticulum formation in bladder wall

If untreated > hydroureter, hydronephrosis, infection

60
Q

Mx of BNH

A

Surgery - transurethral resection

Drugs - alpha blockers, 5 alpha reductase inhibitors

61
Q

is BNH pre-malignant

A

No

62
Q

Ix for BNH

A

Midstream urine sample
Ultrasound

Rule out Cancer - PSA, transrectal USS +/- biopsy

63
Q

prostate cancer is linked with BNH - true or false

A

false
there is no link
however they can before occur in the same gland

64
Q

where does prostate cancer most often arise

A

peripheral ducts and glands

particularly posterior lobe

65
Q

when does prostate cancer become symptomatic

A

when it reaches the peri-urethral zone in later stages

66
Q

where does prostate cancer often spread to

A

local - bladder, rectum
lymphatic - sacral, iliac, para-aortic
blood - bone, lungs, liver

67
Q

what is the relationship of prostate cancer and bone spread

A

makes new bone
very dense
mets termed osteosclerotic
should always x-ray w/ prostate cancer

68
Q

Ix of prostate cancer

A

1st - Rectal Examination + PSA levels (increased levels but not all prostate cancers do)
2nd - transrectal US and biopsy
3rd - x-ray and bone scan

69
Q

what can greatly increase the risk of getting testicular cancer

A

undescended testicles

70
Q

features of testicular cancer

A

commonest solid organ malignancy in males aged 15-44

only 1% cancer deaths

71
Q

what does testicular cancer present w/ and what can it be associated with

A

painless testicular enlargement

associated with hydrocele, gynaecomastia, general effects of malignant disease.

72
Q

classifications of testicular tumours

A

Germ cell tumours (90% of tumours)

Others (10%) - primary lymphoma, metastatic leukaemia

73
Q

what are the types of germ cell tumours

A

Seminoma, Teratoma, mixed.

74
Q

what do patients with Leygid cell tumours present with

A

gynaecomastia

75
Q

what is the commonest GCT

A

seminoma

76
Q

pathology of seminoma

A

Solid, homogenous, pale macroscopic appearance – “potato” tumour.

Large, clear tumour cells with variable stromal lymphocytic infiltrate.

77
Q

tumour markers of seminoma

A

PLAP - placental alkaline phosphatase

78
Q

Tx for seminoma

A

very Radiosensitivity

sensitive to radiotherapy and chemotherapy

79
Q

what is the second commonest GCT

A

teratoma - tumour of all 3 cell lines

80
Q

tumour markers of teratoma

A

AFP - seen in teratomas with yolk sac elements

bhCG - seen in highly malignant teratomas containing trophoblastic tissue

81
Q

what is the classifications of teratoma

A

Differentiated Teratoma (TD) - benign
Malignant Teratoma Intermediate (MTI).
Malignant Teratoma Undifferentiated (MTU).
Malignant Teratoma Trophoblastic (MTT).

82
Q

3rd commonest GCT

A

Mixed seminoma/teratoma

83
Q

features of glomerulonephritis

A

non-infective
immunological mechanisms
usually diffuse, can be focal

84
Q

definition of Pyelonephritis

A

Bacterial infection of renal pelvis, calyces, tubules and interstitium.

85
Q

features of Pyelonephritis

A

acute or chronic
pathy distribution
commoner in females

86
Q

what organisms are common to cause Pyelonephritis

A

E. Coli - most common

Pseudomonas - seen in immunocompromised

87
Q

pathogenesis of Pyelonephritis

A

can be due to septicaemia, post-surgery - blood borne

ascending infection from distal urinary tract, cystitis often present (infection in the bladder) - more common pathogenesis

88
Q

risk factors for pyelonephritis

A

Age
Female - shorter, wider urethra
Pregnancy; can cause Ureteric dilatation
Instrumentation/Surgery
Urinary Tract obstruction e.g. calculus, stricture, prostatic pathology
Vesico-ureteric reflux (VUR)
Diabetes

89
Q

symptoms of Chronic pyelonephritis

A

often no previous Hx of UTI
Vague symptoms

Hypertension and/or uraemia
Large volume of urine

90
Q

what would renal imaging of Chronic pyelonephritis show

A

coarse cortical scarring

distortion of calyces

91
Q

how can TB be spread to the urinary tracy

A

causes pyelonephritis via haematogenous spread from lung

92
Q

Sx of TB pyelonephritis

A 
Vague symptoms
Weight loss
Fever esp at night
Loin pain
Dysuria - pain on passing urine
Sterile pyuria - pus in the urine, but in the initial stage of culture does not grow anything
93
Q

what is the typical form of necrosis seen in TB

A

Caseous foci

- slow growth with progressive renal destruction

94
Q

What stained is used to diagnose TB

A

Zeehl-Neilsen

95
Q

what is cystitis

A

inflammation of the bladder normally caused by an infection

96
Q

what bacteria commonly cause cystitis

A

E. Coli. - most common

Klebsiella, Proteus, Pseudomonas.

97
Q

what can chronic cystitis cause

A

ureteritis

cystitis cystica

98
Q

what is Ureteritis and Cystitis Cystica

A

multiple small fluid filled cysts projecting into lumen

99
Q

what can cause urethral obstruction

A

stricture
posterior urethral valves
prostatic disease

100
Q

consequences of prolonged bladder outlet obstruction

A

hypertrophy of detrusor muscle

diverticulum formation.

101
Q

what is hydronephrosis

A

water in the kidney -

happens to kidney that is exposed to prolonged urinary obstruction

102
Q

what happens is hydronephrosis

A

Dilatation of pelvicalyceal system with parenchymal atrophy

103
Q

when is hydronephrosis bilateral

A

urethral obstruction
neurogenic disturbance
VUR
bilateral ureteric obstruction e.g. advanced carcinoma of cervix

104
Q

when is hydronephrosis unilateral

A

calculi
neoplasms
pelvi-ureteric obstruction
strictures

105
Q

what happens when hydronephrosis is sudden and quick

A

urine production quickly ceases > little pelvicalyceal dilatation

106
Q

what happens when hydronephrosis is gradual and partial

A

dilatation

107
Q

what happens when hydronephrosis is severe

A

Marked cortical thinning, atrophy and fibrosis.

Secondary infection often follows

108
Q

what is infection of a hydronephrotic kidney called

A

Pyonephrosis

Renal SB (15 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions