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Unit 5 ER > Pathology > Flashcards

Pathology Flashcards

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1
Q

oligohydramnios with flat face, limb deformities known as _____ _____

A

Potter sequence

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2
Q

cysts and cartilage in the kidney, non-inherited disorder, known as ______ _____

A

dysplastic kidney

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3
Q

Name 2 diseases that can cause potter’s sequence

A
  1. Bilateral renal agenesis

2. Autosomal Recessive PKD, Juvenile

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4
Q

which presents in young adults, (AR PKD/ AD PKD)

A

Autosomal Dominant Polycystic Kidney Disease

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5
Q

Enlarged kidney’s with renal failure (PKD/ Medullary Cystic Kidney Dz)

A

Polycystic Kidney Disease

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6
Q

Shrunken kidney’s with renal failure (PKD/ Medullary Cystic Kidney Dz)

A

Medullary Cystic Kidney Dz

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7
Q

Dirty brown granular casts are characteristic of ____ _____ _____

A

Acute tubular necrosis

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8
Q

In tumor lysis syndrome, ______ crystals can accumulate in the kidneys

A

Urate

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9
Q

Eosinophils in the urine indicates ____ _____ ____

A

Acute interstitial Nephritis

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10
Q

Nephrotic syndrome requires proteinuria greater than ______ g/day

A

3.5 g/day

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11
Q

Minimal change disease is usually idiopathic, but may be seen with ________ _______

A

Hodgkin’s lymphoma

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12
Q

Why is immunofluorescence negative in Minimal Change Disease?

A

there are no immune complex deposits

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13
Q

In minimal change disease the only protein that is lost is _______

A

albumin

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14
Q

The most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in hispanics and af americans is (FSGS/ MCD/ MN/ MG)

A

FSGS

focal segmental glomerular sclerosis

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15
Q

Which nephrotic syndrome responds well to steroids? (FSGS/ MCD/ MN/ MG)

A

Minimal change disease

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16
Q

Most common cause of nephritic syndrome in caucasian adults is (FSGS/ MCD/ MN/ MG)

A

Membranous Nephropathy

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17
Q

Which nephrotic syndrome is associated with Hep B and C, solid tumors and SLE?(FSGS/ MCD/ MN/ MG)

A

Membranous Nephropathy

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18
Q

Which nephrotic syndrome is associated with HIV and heroin use? (FSGS/ MCD/ MN/ MG)

A

FSGS

focal segmental glomerular sclerosis

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19
Q

sub-endothelial deposition, associated with HBV and HCV (MN/ MG type I/ MG type II)

A

Membranoproliferative Glomerulonephritis Type I

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20
Q

intramembranous deposition, associated with C3 nephritic factor (MN/ MG type I/ MG type II)

A

Membranoproliferative Glomerulonephritis Type II

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21
Q

Has sub-epithelial deposition

(MN/ MG type I/ MG type II)

A

Membranous Nephropathy

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22
Q

Which disease can cause Kimmelstiel-Wilson nodules in the glomerulus?

A

Diabetes Mellitus

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23
Q

Nephrotic syndrome: Has effacement of foot processes (MCD/ FSGS/ MN/ MPGN/ DM/ SA)

A
  1. Minimal change disease and

2. FSGS, focal segmental glomerular sclerosis

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24
Q

Nephrotic syndrome: Has deposition of immune complex (MCD/ FSGS/ MN/ MPGN/ DM/ SA)

A
  1. MN: Membranous Nephropathy

4. MPGN: Membranoproliferative Glomerulonephritis

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25
Q

Nephrotic syndrome: Caused by a systemic disease (MCD/ FSGS/ MN/ MPGN/ DM/ SA)

A
  1. Diabetes Mellitus

6. Systemic Amyloidosis

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26
Q

The Group A, β-hemolytic strep that cause PSGN carry the ______ virulence factor

A

M-protein

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27
Q

Nephritic Syndromes: H&;E shows crescents in Bowman’s space (PSGN/ RPGN/ GS/ DFPG/ IgA N /AS)

A

RPGN

Rapidly progressive glomerular nephritis

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28
Q

SLE –> Nephritic Syndrome –> __________

SLE–> Nephrotic Syndrome –> __________

A

SLE –> Nephritic Syndrome –> DFPG: Diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis
SLE–> Nephrotic Syndrome –> MN: Membranous Nephropathy

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29
Q

Nephritic Syndromes: with Immune complex deposition in MESANGIUM of glomeruli (PSGN/ RPGN/ GS/ DFPG/ IgA N /AS)

A

IgA Nephropathy

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30
Q

Nephritic Syndromes: Defect in type IV collagen (PSGN/ RPGN/ GS/ DFPG/ IgA N /AS)

A

AS: Alport syndrome

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31
Q

M.C. cause of UTI (E. coli/ S. saprophyticus/ Klebsiella/ Proteus/ Enterococcus fecalis)

A

E. coli

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32
Q

UTI with alkaline urine and ammonia scent (E. coli/ S. saprophyticus/ Klebsiella/ Proteus/ Enterococcus fecalis)

A

Proteus mirabilis

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33
Q

Which has systemic signs? (pyelonephritis/ cystitis)

A

pyelonephritis, fever, flank pain

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34
Q

What disease in children can cause “thyroidization” of the kidney?

A

VUR: Vesicourethral Reflux

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35
Q

Crohn’s disease predisposes nephrolithiasis with (Calcium oxalate/ ammonia mag phos/ uric acid/ cysteine)

A

Calcium oxalate

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36
Q

This nephrolithiasis results in stag horn calculi in renal calyces in an adult (Calcium oxalate/ ammonia mag phos/ uric acid/ cysteine)

A

Ammonium magnesium phosphate in adult

Cystine stone in a child

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37
Q

This nephrolithiasis is not visible on X-ray (Calcium oxalate/ ammonia mag phos/ uric acid/ cysteine)

A

uric acid

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38
Q

This nephrolithiasis can occur with leukemia and hyperuricemia (Calcium oxalate/ ammonia mag phos/ uric acid/ cysteine)

A

uric acid

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39
Q

A flapping tremor with Uremia is called ________

A

Asterixis

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40
Q

What renal tumor is more common with tuberous sclerosis? (Angiomyolopoma/ RCC/ Wilms Tumor)

A

Angiomyolipoma

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41
Q

What suppressor gene is often implicated in Renal Cell Carcinoma?

A

VHL, von Hippel-Lindau tumor suppressor

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42
Q

Which has an average age of presentation in children of 3 y. o.? (Angiomyolopoma/ RCC/ Wilms Tumor)

A

Wilms tumor

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43
Q

Associated with Shistosoma hematobium infection (Urothelial Carcinoma/ Squamous Cell Carcinoma/ Adenocarcinoma)

A

Squamous Cell Carcinoma

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44
Q

Associated smoking, naphathyline and azo dyes (Urothelial Carcinoma/ Squamous Cell Carcinoma/ Adenocarcinoma)

A

Urothelial Carcinoma

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45
Q

Arises from a Urachal remnant (Urothelial Carcinoma/ Squamous Cell Carcinoma/ Adenocarcinoma)

A

Adenocarcinoma

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46
Q

The most common type of FUNCTIONAL pituitary adenoma is _______

A

Prolactinoma

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47
Q

A prolactinoma causes amenorrhea by inhibiting _______, which causes low levels of FSH and LH

A

GnRH

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48
Q

Why don’t males get galactorhea with prolactinoma?

A

No lobular units in breast tissue

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49
Q

what drug can treat a prolactinoma?

A

Dopamine agonist, bromocriptine

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50
Q

How can a growth hormone adenoma cause diabetes?

A

GH prevents glucose uptake

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51
Q

What medicine can be given for a growth hormone adenoma?

A

Octreotide, mimic somatostatin

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52
Q

Ischemic necrosis of the pituitary due to blood loss after childbirth during or after child birth is called _____ ______

A

Sheehan’s syndrome

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53
Q

In central DI, there is (hypernatremia/ hyponatremia) and the urine osmolality is (high/ low)

A

Hypernatremia, low urine osmolality

polydipsia and polyurea

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54
Q

If there is no response to desmopressin, the diabetes insipidous is (central/ nephrogenic)

A

nephrogenic

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55
Q

How can you treat SIADH?

A

Demeclocycline, inhibits ADH

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56
Q

Presents as anterior neck mass (Thyroglossal Duct Cyst/ Lingual Thyroid)

A

Thyroglossal Duct Cyst

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57
Q

Presents as mass at base of tongue (Thyroglossal Duct Cyst/ Lingual Thyroid)

A

Lingual Thyroid

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58
Q

Hyperthyroidism increases SNS activity by increasing the # of ____ receptors

A

Beta-1 adrenergic

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59
Q

Hyperthyroidism increases BMR by increasing the number of _______

A

Na/K ATPase pumps

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60
Q

With hyperthyroidism there is (hypoglycemia/ hyperglycemia) and (hypocholesterolemia/ hypercholesterolemia)

A

hyperglycemia

hypocholesterolemia

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61
Q

An autoantibody IgG that stimulates the TSH receptor is called ______ disease

A

Graves

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62
Q

In Graves Dz, pretibial myxedema and exophthalmos are due to TSH receptors in these locations signaling release of ___________

A

Glycosaminoglycans

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63
Q

Given for thyroid storm, ______ blocks the peripheral conversion of T4 to T3

A

PTU, Propylthiouracil

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64
Q

Given for Graves Dz, ______ blocks the action of peroxidase in the thyroid

A

Thioamide (e.g. PTU)

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65
Q

Autoimmune destruction of the thyroid gland is called _______ _______

A

Hashimoto Thyroiditis

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66
Q

Hashimoto Thyroiditis is associated with HLA- ____

A

HLA-DR5

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67
Q

What triggers subacute, deQuervain Granulomatous Thyroiditis?

A

viral infection

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68
Q

What is the key symptom of subacute, deQuervain Granulomatous Thyroiditis?

A

tender thyroid

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69
Q

Non-tender ‘hard as wood’ thyroid esp. in a young woman indicates ______ _____ _____

A

Reidel fibrosing thyroiditis

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70
Q

What is the mechanism for biopsy or sampling the thyroid?

A

FNA

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71
Q

What are the 4 types of thyroid carcinoma?

A
  1. Papillary
  2. Follicular
  3. Medullary
  4. Anaplastic
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72
Q

Which thyroid carcinoma has ‘orphan annie eyed nuclei’ and nuclear groves? (Papillary/ Follicular/ Medullary/ Anaplastic)

A

Papillary carcinoma

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73
Q

Carcinoma of the thyroid: surrounded by fibrous capsule with invasion THROUGH the capsule (Papillary/ Follicular/ Medullary/ Anaplastic)

A

Follicular carcinoma

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74
Q

Carcinoma of the thyroid: malignant cells in an amyloid stroma (Papillary/ Follicular/ Medullary/ Anaplastic)

A

Medullary carcinoma

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75
Q

Carcinoma of the thyroid: often due to MEN 2A and 2B is (Papillary/ Follicular/ Medullary/ Anaplastic) type

A

Medullary carcinoma

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76
Q

Medularry Carcinoma of the thyroid is associated with a mutation in the ____ oncogene

A

RET, same as MEN 2a and 2b

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77
Q

carcinoma of the thyroid, undifferentiated, in elderly (Papillary/ Follicular/ Medullary/ Anaplastic)

A

Anaplastic carcinoma

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78
Q

PTH activates oseoclasts via _______

A

osteoblasts

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79
Q

The MC cause of elevated PTH is ______ ______

A

parathyroid adenoma

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80
Q

High serum calcium causes pancreatitis because ______

A

calcium activates enzymes

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81
Q

High PTH levels can cause both high urine ______ and _____

A

phosphate and cAMP

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82
Q

MC cause of seconday hyperparathyroidism is ____ _____

A

Renal insufficiency

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83
Q

where are beta cells in the islets of langerhan’s?

A

the center

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84
Q

Type 1 DM is a type _____ HSR

A

type 4 HSR, T-lymphocyte mediated

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85
Q

Diabetic Ketoacidosis can cause what respiration pattern?

A

Kussmanul respirations, hyperventilation to blow off CO2, reduce acid

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86
Q

How does obesity cause diabetes?

A

Obesity leads to decreased insulin receptors in periphery

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87
Q

A random glucose greater than _____ or a fasting glucose greater than _____ indicates type 2 DM

A

random greater than 200

fasting greater than 126

88
Q

What is the killer in hyperosmolar non-ketotic coma, HONK?

A

massive diuresis, hypotension and coma

89
Q

NEG of large + medium vessels leads to _________

NEG of small vessels leads to _______

A

large + medium: atherosclerosis

small: hyaline arteriolosclerosis

90
Q

What are the 3 key sites that uptake glucose w/ out a transporter, significant in diabetes

A
  1. Schwann’s cells in PNS
  2. Pericytes of retinal blood vessels
  3. Lens of eye -> cataracts
91
Q

Diabetic osmotic damage: Glucose is converted to Sorbitol by ______ ______

A

Aldose Reductase

92
Q

What type of pancreatic endocrine tumor can cause peptic ulcers?

A

gastrinoma

(Zollinger–Ellison Syn)drome

93
Q

What type of pancreatic endocrine tumor causes watery diarrhea and achlorhidria?

A

VIPoma

excess vasoactive peptide

94
Q

What type of pancreatic endocrine tumor causes achlorhidria, cholelithiasis and steatorrhea?

A

somatostatinoma
achlohidria due to inhibition of gastrin
cholelithiasis and steatorrhea due to inhibition of cholecystokinin

95
Q

What type of pancreatic endocrine tumor causes episodic hypoglycemia?

A

insulinoma

96
Q

How does cushing syndrome cause abdominal striae?

A

Cortisol inhibits collagen formation

red, ruptured blood vessles

97
Q

How does cushing syndrome cause HTN?

A

up-regulates alpha 1 receptors

98
Q

What are the 3 mechanism for cortisol to modulate immune response?

A
  1. Inhibits phopholipase A2
  2. Inhibit IL2
  3. Inhibit release of histamine from mast cells
99
Q

What can cause bilateral adrenal atrophy?

A

too much exogenous corticosteriods

100
Q

What can cause one adrenal to hypertrophy and the other to shrink?

A

primary adrenal adenoma, hyperplasia or carcinoma

101
Q

What can cause both adrenals to hypertrophy

A

too much ATCH
ATCH secreting adenoma OR
paraneoplastic ATCH secretion, SSLC

102
Q

this drug suppresses ATCH production by a pituitary adenoma, but not by SSLC

A

dexamethasone

103
Q

high aldosterone and low renin is (primary/ secondary) hyperaldosteronism

A

primary

104
Q

in congenital adrenal hyperplasia, the adrenal glands are (hypertrophied/ atrophied)

A

hypertrophied

105
Q

The most common cause of Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia is ___________ enzyme deficiency

A

21-alpha hydroxylase

106
Q

With congenital adrenal hyperplasia, you will have (hypertension/ hypotension)

A

hypotension

107
Q

Waterhouse-Fridrichsen syndrome is typically due DIC from infection with ___ ________

A

Nisseria meningitides

108
Q

What are the 3 major causes of chronic adrenal insufficiency?

A
  1. Autoimmune Dz
  2. TB
  3. metastatic carcinoma (esp lung cancer)
109
Q

Chromafin cells live in the adrenal _______

A

medulla

110
Q

Before removing a pheochromocytoma, ________ should be given

A

Phenoxybenzamine, irreversible alpha blocker

111
Q

What are the 3 components of MEN I

A
  1. Pituitary adenoma
  2. Parathyroid hyperplasia
  3. Pancreatic tumors
112
Q

What are the 3 components of MEN 2A

A
  1. Parathyroid hyperplasia
  2. Medually thyroid carcinoma
  3. Pheochromocytoma
113
Q

What are the 4 components of MEN 2B

A
  1. Medullary thyroid carcinoma
  2. Pheochromocytoma
  3. Mucosal neuromas
  4. Marfanoid body
114
Q

Given for Graves Dz, Thioamide blocks the action of _______ in the thyroid

A

peroxidase

115
Q

What is the mechanism of Demeclocycline in the treatment of SIADH?

A

reduces responsiveness of the collecting tubule cells to ADH

116
Q

anti-GBM disease is also called _______ ________

A

Goodpasture syndrome

117
Q

What leads to sodium and water retention in Nephrotic Syndrome?

A

Loss of serum protein —> hypovolemia —> activation of RAAS

118
Q

Why are nephrotic syndrome pts at risk for staph and pneumococcal infections?

A

Loss of serum immunoglobulins

119
Q

Why are nephrotic syndrome pts at risk for thrombus?

A

loss of ATIII

120
Q

In membranous nephropathy, basement membrane damage is largely mediated by (Neutrophiles/ macrohpahges/ complement)

A

complement, MAC C5b-C9

121
Q

Albumin has a size small enough to get through the glomerular filtration barrier. What keeps it from being filtered?

A

the charge barrier, both (-) charged

122
Q

Both minimal change disease and FSGS have podocyte effacement. What is the hallmark finding of FSGS?

A

epithelial damage

123
Q

deposition on immune complexes in the BM of the glomeruli is called MPGN type 2 or, _______ _______ _____

A

Dense deposit disease

124
Q

Which disease has C3NeF, C3 Nephritic factor?

A

Dense deposit disease= MPGN type 2

125
Q

Henoch-Schonlein purpura is a manifestation of the renal disease ____ ________

A

IgA Nephropathy,

Both are IgA mediated

126
Q

what are 2 reasons renal tubules are susceptible to damage

A
  1. high energy demand w high blood flow

2. high surface area

127
Q

which virus is a major cause pyelonephritis in the immunosuppressed, especially allograft recipients?

A

polyomavirus

128
Q

What are the two types of chronic pyelonephritis?

A
  1. Reflux nephropathy

2. Chronic Obstructive pyelonephritis

129
Q

Toxin induced tubulointerstitial nephritis often has elevated serum (IgG/ IgE/ IgM)

A

IgE, IgE plasma cells and basophils

130
Q

malignant nephrosclerosis is strongly correlated with the degree of ________

A

HTN, hypertension

131
Q

Hyperplastic arterioles caused by HTN have a _____-______ appearance on histology

A

Onion skin

132
Q

Excess activation of platelets in TTP can clog the kidneys. TTP is caused by the gene ________

A

ADAMTS13, a plasma metaloprotinase

133
Q 
Adult PKD (AD/AR) 
Childhood PKD (AD/AR)
A

Adult PKD: AD

Child PKD: AR

134
Q

Renal epithelial neoplasm composed of large eosinophilic cells, arises from intercalated cells of the collecting ducts. (Angiomyolipoma/ Oncocytoma/ RCC)

A

Oncocytoma

135
Q

Fibrous tissue replacement of the thyroid gland is called_________

A

Riedel Thyroiditis

136
Q

What is the treatment for Riedel thyroiditis?

A
  1. Corticosteroids

2. Tamoxifen

137
Q

Which type of tumor tends to invade the renal vein?

Angiomyolipoma/ Oncocytoma/ RCC/ Wilm’s tumor

A

RCC

138
Q

Which is associated with VHL?

Angiomyolipoma/ Oncocytoma/ RCC/ Wilm’s tumor

A

RCC

139
Q

Which type of kidney stones are associated with proteus UTI? (calcium oxalate/ calcium phosphate/ magnesium ammonia phosphate/ Uric Acid)

A

magnesium ammonia phosphate

140
Q

What are the components of WAGR syndrome?

A

Wilm’s tumor
Anirida
Genitourinary
Retardation (mental)

141
Q

HTN in a child with a Wilm’s tumor is due to _______ secretion

A

renin

142
Q

Hypothyroidism in infancy or early childhood is called ________

A

Cretinism

143
Q

Why does cretinism cause mental retardation?

A

The developing brain requires thyroxine for maturation during the first year of life

144
Q

How does adult hypothyroidism lead to bradycardia?

A

Low thyroxine leads to few beta adrenergic receptors

145
Q

How does hypothyroidism lead to hyper cholesterolemia?

A

Decreased synthesis of LDL receptors

146
Q

What causes exophthalmos in hyperthyroidism?

A

Swelling of orbital tissue with water retention from hydrophilic mucopolysaccharides and lymphocytic infiltrate

147
Q

What is the first-line treatment for graves disease?

A
  1. Beta-blockers
  2. Thionamides
  3. Ablative iodine 131

For thyroid storm use PTU

148
Q

Which thyroid carcinoma is the overall most common? (Papillary/ Follicular/ Medullary/ Anaplastic)

A

Papillary adenocarcinoma

149
Q

Which thyroid carcinoma may have psammoma bodies? (Papillary/ Follicular/ Medullary/ Anaplastic)

A

Papillary adenocarcinoma

150
Q

Which thyroid carcinoma is the most fatal? (Papillary/ Follicular/ Medullary/ Anaplastic)

A

anaplastic thyroid cancer

151
Q

PTH causes increased calcium resorption in the ______ _____ ______ of the nephron

A

early distal tubule

152
Q

Why does tetany occur with respiratory alkalosis?

A

alkalosis –> more COO- on albumin –> binds more Ca2+ –> lower free Ca2+ –> tetany

153
Q

Facial twitch after taping on the facial nerve is called ______ sign

A

Chvotek

154
Q

How does decreased free Ca2+ cause tetany?

A

causes partial depolarization of nerves and muscles, lowers threshold for depolarization

155
Q

What is trousseau’s sign? what does it indicate?

A

Trousseau’s sign: thumb adducts to palm

Manifestation of tetany, indicates low free Ca2+

156
Q

What is the “knuckle’knuckle-dimple-dimple” sign?

What does it indicate?

A

short 4th and 5th didgets

indicates pseudohypoparathyroidism

157
Q

End organ resistance to PTH is called _____________

A

pseudohypoparathyroidism

158
Q

What are the GI effects of Hyperparathyroidism?

A
  1. Peptic ulcers, Ca2+ stimulates gastrin
  2. Acute pancreatitis, Ca2+ activates phopholipase
  3. Constipation
159
Q

how does Hyperparathyroidism cause osteitis fibrosa cystica?

A

increased osteoclastic activity

160
Q

hypovitaminosis D can lead to (hyper/hypo)parathyroidism

A

hyperparathyroidism

161
Q

Vitamin D promotes bone mineralization by stimulating release of ______ ______ form osteoblasts

A

alkaline phosphatase

162
Q

Bence-Jones proteins are associated with _______ _______

A

multiple myeloma

163
Q

A benign pituitary tumor derived from Rathke’s pouch is called_______

A

Craniopharyngioma

164
Q

Hypertriglyceridemia occurs with Diabetes because the lack of insulin decreases ________________

A

Capillary lipoprotein lipase

165
Q

In DKA, prerenal azotemia is caused by __________

A

Volume depletion from osmotic diuresis

166
Q

In DKA there is anion gap metabolic acidosis due to _________

A

Ketoacidosis and Lactic acidosis

167
Q

In DKA there can be hyperkalemia due to _______________

A

Excess H+ enter the cell in exchange for K+

168
Q

Total body potassium and sodium are decreased in DKA due to ____________

A

Osmotic diuresis, lost with glucose

169
Q

A deficiency in ADH secretion from the post pit is called _______ _______, while an excess of ADH is called ________

A

ADH deficiency: diabetes insipidus

ADH excess: syndrome of inappropriate ADH

170
Q

Failure of the testicle to descend into the scrotal sac is called _________

A

Cryptoorchidism

171
Q

What infectious bacteria can cause Orchitis or Prostatitis in Young people? In Old people?

A

Young: Chalmydia trachomatis (D-K) and N gonorrhoeae
Old: E. Coli and Pseudomonas

172
Q

What infectious virus can cause orchitis?

A

Mumps virus

173
Q

Testicular torsion occurs with twisting of the ______ _____

A

spermatic cord

174
Q

A varicocele is a dilation of the ______ ______

A

spermatic vein, due to impaired drainage

175
Q

What left sided testicular lesion is associated with a left sided RCC?

A

Varicocele

RCC invaded L Renal Vein causing obstruction of outflow –> vari CeeLo

176
Q

On the Left side, the spermatic vein drains into the _______. On the right side the spermatic vein drains into the ________

A

Left side –> Renal vein

Right side –> IVC

177
Q

A hydrocele is fluid collection in the _______ _______

A

tunica vaginalis

178
Q

What are the two broad types of testicular tumors? Which is malignant?

A
  1. Germ cell, M.C. and are malignant

2. Sex Cord Stromal tumors

179
Q

The alpha subunit of β-hcg is similar to:

A

alpha subunit of: FSH + LH –> gynecomastia

alpha subunit of: TSH –> hyperthyroidism

180
Q

♂ germ cell tumors: homogeneous mass with no hemorrhage or necrosis
(Seminoma/ Embryonal Carcinoma/ Yolk Sac Tumor/ Choroicarcinoma/ Teratoma)

A

Seminoma

181
Q

♂ germ cell tumors: M.C. tumor in children

Seminoma/ Embryonal Carcinoma/ Yolk Sac Tumor/ Choroicarcinoma/ Teratoma

A

Yolk Sac Tumor

182
Q

♂ germ cell tumors: hemorrhagic mass with necrosis

Seminoma/ Embryonal Carcinoma/ Yolk Sac Tumor/ Choroicarcinoma/ Teratoma

A

Embryonal Carcinoma

183
Q

♂ germ cell tumors: composed of synctiotrophoblasts and cytotrophoblasts
(Seminoma/ Embryonal Carcinoma/ Yolk Sac Tumor/ Choroicarcinoma/ Teratoma)

A

Choroicarcinoma

184
Q

♂ germ cell tumors: has schiller-duval bodies or ‘glomeruloid-like structes’
(Seminoma/ Embryonal Carcinoma/ Yolk Sac Tumor/ Choroicarcinoma/ Teratoma)

A

Yolk Sac Tumor

185
Q

♂ germ cell tumors: good prognosis, responds well to radiotherapy
(Seminoma/ Embryonal Carcinoma/ Yolk Sac Tumor/ Choroicarcinoma/ Teratoma)

A

Seminoma

186
Q

♂ germ cell tumors: small site of origin, quickly spreads hematogenously
(Seminoma/ Embryonal Carcinoma/ Yolk Sac Tumor/ Choroicarcinoma/ Teratoma)

A

Choroicarcinoma, synctiotrophoblasts and cytotrophoblasts seek blood vessels

187
Q

♂ germ cell tumors: benign in ♀, malignant in ♂

Seminoma/ Embryonal Carcinoma/ Yolk Sac Tumor/ Choroicarcinoma/ Teratoma

A

Teratoma

188
Q

The most common cause of testicular tumor in a male > 60y.o. is ________
In a man age 15-40 it is usually a _______

A

Older than 60: Lymphoma

Age 15-40: Germ cell tumor

189
Q

Sex cord stomal tumors: Produces androgens, characteristic Reinke Crystal
(Leydig cell tumor/ Sertoli cell tumor)

A

Leydig cell tumor

190
Q

Sex cord stomal tumors: comprised of tubules, often clinically silent
(Leydig cell tumor/ Sertoli cell tumor)

A

Sertoli cell tumor

191
Q

BPH effects which zone of the prostate most?

A

peri-urethral zone –> compression of the urethra

192
Q

What is the most common cancer in men?

A

Prostate Adenocarcinoma

193
Q

What is the most common location for Prostate Adenocarcinoma?

A

posterior periphery, lack of clinical symptoms, palpable by Dr DRE

194
Q

Where is the most common site of metastasis for Prostate Adenocarcinoma?

A

Lumbar spine

195
Q

What is a GnRH analog used for Prostate Adenocarcinoma?

A

Leuprolide

196
Q

What is an androgen receptor inhibitor used for Prostate Adenocarcinoma?

A

Flutamide

197
Q

Carcinoma of the thyroid: elevated levels of calcitonin

Papillary/ Follicular/ Medullary/ Anaplastic) flushing, diarrhea, and itching (pruritis

A

Medullary thyroid carcinoma, MTC

198
Q

What hormone reduce blood calcium opposing the effects of PTH?

A

Calcitonin

199
Q

What cells in the thyroid produce calcitonin?

A

Parafollicular cells = C-cells

located in the medulla

200
Q

In Medullary thyroid carcinoma, MTC calcitonin gene products result in what signs and symptoms?

A
  1. flushing 2. diarrhea 3. pruritis
201
Q

What connects the fetal bladder to the allantios?

A

The Urachus

202
Q

A chronic inflammatory reaction triggered by chronic infection of the GU tract with defective phagocyte function and foamy macrophages is called _________

A

Malakoplakia

203
Q

What are the 4 types of urinary incontinence?

A

1 urge
2 overflow
3 stress
4 functional

204
Q

when the Orifice of the prepuce is too small to retract over the head of the penis it is called ___________

A

Phimosis

205
Q

Infection of the gland and prepuce of the penis is called ________

A

Balanoposthitis

206
Q

Persistent and painful erection, my be caused by sickle cell is called _______

A

Priapism

207
Q

What are the 3 CIS of the penis associated with HPV 16?

A
  1. Bowen disease
  2. Erythroplasia of Queyrat
  3. Bowenoid papulosis
208
Q

Carcinoma in situ CIS of the penis is strongly correlated with HPV ____

A

HPV 16

209
Q

Hirschprung disease lead to dilation of what organ?

A

Congenital Megacolon

210
Q

Hypospadias is opening of the urethral on the _________ surface of the penis

A

Ventral

211
Q

when the hypothalamic neurons that are responsible for releasing GnRH fail to migrate into the hypothalamus during embryonic development is called __________ _________

A

Kallmann syndrome

212
Q

Orchitis is frequently caused by the __________ virus

A

Mumps

213
Q

A tumor that derives from the epithelial cells of rathke’s pouch is called a _______

A

Craniopharyngioma

214
Q

How can a prolactinoma decrease testosterone?

A

Prolactin has (-) feedback on GnRH, therefore both LH and FSH decrease

215
Q

Which renal tumor is comprised of blastema and stomal cells?

A

Wilms tumor

216
Q

Wilm’s tumors are associated with ______ mutations

A

WT1

Unit 5 ER (3 decks)

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