Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

First Aid STEP 1 - Psychiatry > Pathology 2 > Flashcards

Pathology 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is Social Anxiety Disorder and what is the treatment?

A

Exaggerated fear of embarrassment in social situations (e.g. public speaking)

Treatment: SSRIs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is agoraphobia?

A

exaggerated fear of open or enclosed places, using public transportation, being in line or in crowds, or leaving home alone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the time frame for Generalized Anxiety Disorder?

A

at least 6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are symptoms associated with Generalized Anxiety Disorder?

A

sleep disturbance
fatigue
GI disturbance
difficulty concentrating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are treatment options for Generalized Anxiety Disorder?

A

SSRI
SNRI
buspirone
CBT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is Adjustment Disorder?

A

emotional symptoms causing impairment following an identifiable psychosocial stressor (e.g. divorce, illness) that lasts < 6 MONTHS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder and what is the treatment for it?

A

recurring intrusive thoughts, feelings, or sensations (obsessions) that cause severe distress

Tx: SSRIs, clomipramine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the difference between Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder and Acute Stress Disorder?

A

PTSD: disturbances > 1 month

Acute Stress Disorder: lasts b/t 3 days to 1 month

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are key components to distinguishing malingering?

A

CONSCIOUS act
chief goal is EXTERNAL (secondary gain)
Complaints CEASE after gain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are key components to distinguishing factitious disorder?

A

CONSCIOUS act –> creates physical and/or psychological symptoms in order to assume “sick role”

chief goal is PSYCHOLOGICAL (primary gain)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are signs of Munchausen Syndrome?

A

CHRONIC factitious disorder

Predominantly physical signs and symptoms

Multiple hospital admissions and willingness to receive invasive procedures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is Manchausen Syndrome by proxy?

A

when illness in a child or elderly patient is caused by the caregiver

*form of child/elder abuse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Compare and contrast the Somatic Disorders

A

Somatic Disorder: category of disorders characterized by physical symptoms with no identifiable physical cause.

Somatic Symptom Disorder: variety of complaints in one or more organ systems lasting from months to years. Associated with excessive, persistent thoughts and anxiety about symptoms

Conversion Disorder: sudden loss of sensory or motor function (e.g. paralysis, blindness) often following an acute stressor. More common in females, adolescents, and young adults.

Illness Anxiety Disorder (hypochrondriasis): preoccupation with and fear of having a serious illness despite medical evaluation and reassurance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How does a somatic disorder differ from malingering or factitious disorder?

A

somatic disorder = UNCONSCIOUS action (Sx cannot be intentionally produced or feigned)

malingering or factitious disorder = CONSCIOUS action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the three clusters of personality disorders?

Think the “Three W’s”

A

Weird
Wild
Worried

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What personality disorders are in Cluster A?

A

WEIRD

Definition: odd or eccentric, inability to develop meaningful social relationships

Paranoid, Schizoid, Schizotypal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the definition of Paranoid?

A

pervasive distrust and suspiciousness (e.g. believing in conspiracy theories)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the major defense mechanism in paranoia?

A

projection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the definition of Schizoid?

A

VOLUNTARY social withdrawal

limited emotional expression

SchizoiD = Distant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the definition of Schizotypal?

A

eccentric apperance

ODD BELIEFS or MAGICAL thinking

SchizoTypal = magical Thinking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What personality disorders are in Cluster B?

A

WILD: dramatic, emotional, or erratic; genetic association with mood disorders and substance abuse

antisocial, borderline, histrionic, narcissistic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the definition of Antisocial Disorder?

A

disregard for and violation of rights of others

M > F

Must be > 18 years old and have a history of conduct disorder before age 15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the definition of Borderline Personality Disorder?

A

unstable mood or interpersonal relationships, impulsiveness, SELF-MUTILATION, bordem

F > M

SPLITTING = major defense mechanism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the major defense mechanism in Borderline Personality Disorder?

A

splitting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What is the definition of Histrionic Personality Disorder?
excessive emotionality and excitability, attention seeking, SEXUALLY PROVOCATIVE, overly concerned with appearance
26
What is the definition of Narcissistic Personality Disorder?
grandiosity, SENSE OF ENTITLEMENT lacks empathy and requires excessive admiration reacts to criticism with rage
27
What personality disorders are in Cluster C?
WORRIED: anxious or fearful; genetic association with anxiety disorders Avoidant, Obsessive-Compulsive, Dependent
28
What is the definition of Avoidant Personality Disorder?
HYPERSENSITIVE to REJECTION socially inhibited, timid, feelings of inadequacy DESIRES RELATIONSHIPS WITH OTHERS (vs. schizoid)
29
What is the definition of Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder?
Preoccupation with order, perfectionism, and control | Behavior CONSISTENT with one's own beliefs and attitudes (vs. OCD)
30
What is the definition of Dependent Personality Disorder?
SUBMISSIVE and CLINGING | Excessive need to be taken care of, low self-confidence
31
What is the time course for Schizophrenia?
< 1 mo - brief psychotic disorder, usually stress related 1 - 6 mo - schizophreniform disorder > 6 mo - schizophrenia
32
What are the degrees of "schizo-"?
schizoid < schizotypal < schizophrenic < schizoaffective
33
What is the definition of Anorexia nervosa?
excessive dieting +/- purging | intense fear of gaining weight, body image distortion, and increased exercise
34
What are symptoms of Anorexia nervosa?
``` severe wt loss metatarsal stress fractures amenorrhea lanugo (fine body hair) anemia electrolyte disturbances OSTEOPOROSIS over time ```
35
What is the definition of Bulimia nervosa?
binge eating +/- purging *body wt is maintained within NORMAL RANGE
36
What are symptoms associated with Bulimia nervosa?
parotitis, enamel erosion, electrolyte disturbances, alkalosis, dorsal hand calluses from induced vomiting (Russell sign)
37
What is the Russell sign and what disorder is it seen in?
dorsal hand calluses from induced vomiting --> bulimia nervosa
38
What is the definition of Gender Dysphoria?
strong, persistent cross-gender identification
39
What are causes of sexual dysfunction?
Drugs (e.g. hypertensives, neuroleptics, SSRIs, ethanol) Diseases (e.g. depression, diabetes, STDs) Psychological (e.g. performance anxiety)
40
What stage of sleep do sleep terrors occur?
non-REM sleep (no memory of arousal) *this is different from nightmares which occur during REM sleep
41
What is the cause of narcolepsy?
decreased orexin production in lateral hypothalamus --> excessive daytime sleepiness
42
Cataplexy can be seen in some narcoleptics. What is cataplexy?
loss of all muscle tone following a strong emotional stimulus, such as laughter
43
What is the treatment for narcolepsy?
stimulates and SSRIs
44
What are the stages of change in overcoming substance addiction?
1. Precontemplation 2. Contemplation 3. Preparation/determination 4. Action/willpower 5. Maintenance 6. Relapse
45
What are symptoms of alcohol withdrawal?
Mild alcohol withdrawal: anxiety, insomnia Severe alcohol withdrawal: autonomic hyperactivity and delirium tremens (DTs), alcoholic hallucinosis
46
What is the treatment for delirium tremens?
benzodiazepines
47
What are symptoms of opioid intoxication?
euphoria respiratory and CNS depression pinpoint pupils seizures (OD)
48
What is the treatment for opioid intoxication?
naloxone (used for acute) | naltrexone (used for management)
49
What are symptoms of opioid withdrawal?
sweating, dilated pupils, PILOERECTION, fever | rhinorrhea, YAWNING, nausea, stomach cramps, diarrhea ("FLU-LIKE" SYMPTOMS)
50
What is the treatment for barbiturate intoxication?
symptom management (assist respiration, increase BP)
51
What is the treatment for benzodiazepine intoxication?
supportive care consider FLUMAZENIL (competitive benzodiazepine antagonist)
52
Do barbiturates or benzodiazepines have a greater safety margin?
benzodiazepines
53
What are symptoms of amphetamine intoxication?
euphoria, grandiosity pupillary DILATION prolonged wakefulness and attention HTN, tachycardia, anorexia, paranoia, fever Severe: cardiac arrest and seizure
54
What are symptoms of cocaine intoxication?
``` impaired judgement pupillary DILATION HALLUCINATIONS paranoid ideations angina, sudden cardiac death ``` Treatment: benzodiazepines
55
What are treatments for nicotine withdrawal?
Sx: irritability, anxiety, craving Tx: nicotine patch, gum, or lozenges; buproprion/ varenicline
56
What are signs of PCP (phencyclidine) intoxication?
``` belligerence, impulsiveness fever, motor psychomotor agitation VERTICAL AND HORIZONTAL NYSTAGMUS tachycardia HOMICIDALITY psychosis, delirium, seizures ``` *pupils are NORMAL
57
What are the treatment options for PCP intoxication?
benzodiazepines | rapid-acting antipsychotics
58
What are the signs of LSD (lysergic acid diethyl amide) intoxication?
HALLUCINATIONS (visual, auditory) depersonalization, anxiety, paranoia psychosis, possible flash backs pupillary DILATION *very FEW behavioral changes
59
What medical uses can a patient use for marijuana?
``` antiemetic (chemotherapy) appetite stimulant (AIDS) ```
60
How long can cannabinoid be detected in the urine?
Generally detectable in urine for 4-10 days
61
Heroin users are at increased risk of what diseases and conditions?
``` hepatitis abscesses OD hemorrhoids AIDS right-sided endocarditis ```
62
What are the treatment options for heroin users?
methadone naloxone + buprehnorphine naltrexone
63
What is a long-acting opiate used for heroin detoxification or long-term maintenance?
methadone
64
What is a partial agonist that has fewer withdrawal symptoms than methadone in heroin users?
naloxone + buprenorphine
65
What is a long-acting opioid antagonist used for relapse prevention once detoxified from heroin?
naltrexone
66
What are delirium tremens (DTs) and what is the treatment?
life-threatening alcohol withdrawal syndrome that peaks 2-5 days after last drink Order of symptom appearance: autonomic system hyperactivity (tachycardia, tremors, anxiety, and seizures) --> psychotic symptoms (hallucinations, delusions) --> confusion Tx: benzodiazepines (e.g. chlordiazepoxide)

First Aid STEP 1 - Psychiatry (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions