Pathological Fractures Flashcards

1
Q

Define a pathological fracture.

A

A fracture that occurs in an abnormally
weakened bone
–Occurs without an adequate force that would
break normal bone.
–The disease process leads to a mismatch in bone
resorption and formation
–This weakens bone structure and fracture
following minimal stress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Outline the disease processes which lead to pathological fractures.

A

Generalised:

–Metabolic
• Osteoporosis (most common)
• Paget’s disease, hyperparathyroidism, vit D/calcium 
deficiency
–Genetic
• Osteogenesis Imperfecta
Focal
–Tumours
• Primary 
– Benign
– Malignant
• Secondary (metastatic)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What should be considered in the history of a patient with a suspected pathological fracture?

A
– Trauma involved minimal (low energy)
– Preceding pain
– Red flag symptoms (weight loss, haemoptysis, 
haematemesis, PR bleeding)
– History of malignancy
– Consider age of patient
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Outline the metabolic causes of generalised bone disease/pathological fractures.

A
  • Osteoporosis (most common): sparse and thin trabeculae (vertebral body, hip, wrist fractures, pelvic ring insufficiency fractures)
  • Paget’s disease: abnormal bone remodelling and osteoclast activity (risk of developing osteosarcoma)
  • Osteomalacia: defect in mineralisation leading to to large amount of unmineralised osteoid
  • Hyperparthyroidms, vitamin D/calcium deficiency
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Outline the investigations involved in metabolic causes of pathological fractures.

A

Blood tests:

– Bone profile, parathyroid, thyroid function tests to rule out other causes of bone resportion, Alk. Phos (raised in Pagets)
– Vitamin D levels (25 hydroxyvitamin D)

Imaging:
– Plain films – diagnosis of pathognomonic fractures or other involved sites
– DEXA (Dual energy xray absorptiometry) to confirm diagnosis of osteoporosis
– +/- CT or MRI for diagnosis/operative planning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is osteogenesis imperfecta?

A

Genetic cause of pathological fractures. Hereditary decrease of collage type 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are focal bone lesions indicative of?

A
  • Primary tumour
  • Metastases
  • Benign tumour
  • Cyst
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Outline bone tumour X-ray appearance.

A
  • DENSITY –LYTIC, SCLEROTIC, MIXED
  • LOCATION- EPIPHYSIS, METAPHYSIS, DIAPHYSIS
  • LESION DEMARCATION – WELL DEMARCATED USUALLY BENIGN, POORLY DEMARCATED USUALLY MALIGNANT
  • PERIOSTEAL REACTION
  • MATURE/IMMATURE SKELETON
  • SOLITARY OR MULTIPLE
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What investigations must be done when a lytic bone lesion is identified?

A

EXAMINATION:
• LOOK FOR PRIMARY (BREAST, THYROID EXAM, PR)

INVESTIGATIONS

• BLOODS (FBP, ESR, U&E, LFT, CA, PHOS, ALP, PSA,
TUMOUR MARKERS, MYELOMA SCREEN)

– STAGING
• PLAIN X-RAY WHOLE AFFECTED BONE (XR NEED 30% BONE LOSS TO DETECT LESION)
• CT CHEST ABDOMEN PELVIS (? PRIMARY OR OTHER
SITES)
• ISOTOPE BONE SCAN (? OTHER SITES)
– BIOPSY OFTEN REQUIRED UNLESS KNOWN
METASTASIS
• (DISCUSS WITH ORTHO TEAM RE: BIOPSY ROUTE TO AVOID SPREAD OF TUMOUR CELLS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Outline primary malignant bone tumours.

A

• Relatively rare (often unsuspected)
• Suspect primary tumour in younger patients with
aggressive appearing lesions
– poorly defined margins (wide zone of transition, lack
of sclerotic rim)
– matrix production
– periosteal reaction
• Patients usually have antecedent pain before
fracture, especially night pain
• Most common primary malignancy is myeloma
• Malignant proliferation of plasma cells
• Plasmacytoma = solitary lesion
• Multiple Myeloma = many lesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How is bone disease in myeloma treated?

A

• Non operative
– Multiagent Chemotherapy
– Bisphosphonate
– Radiotherapy

• Operative - Stabilise
– Spinal fractures - Vertebroplasty if painful kyphosis
– Long bones –intramedullary nail or joint replacement if intraarticular
– Stabilise impending fractures

• NB! Plasmacytoma –wide local excision and reconstruction (curative)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Outline osteosarcoma.

A
  • Usually occur in kids and young adults
  • 2nd decade
  • 2nd peak in elderly with history of Pagets.
  • Usually around knee
  • Xray – Blastic, destructive, Sunburst matrix and Codman’s triangle
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How is osteosarcoma treated?

A
• Chemotherapy
–Pre-op 8 to 12 weeks
–Maintenance 6 to 12 months post op.
• Surgery
–Limb salvage if possible 
(95%)
–Wide local excision and reconstruction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is Ewing’s sarcoma?

A
  • Bone or soft tissue sarcoma.
  • Age 5 -25 years
    – 50% diaphysis - commonly in femur > tibia > humerus
    –Treatment:
    • Chemotherapy and surgical resection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

In what patient cohort should you suspect bone metastases?

A

> 50 years.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What cancers commonly metastasise to bone?

A
  • thyroid
  • prostate
  • breast
  • kidney
  • lung
17
Q

How is metastatic bone disease treated?

A
  • Palliative if prognosis poor <3 months
  • Pre-operative embolisation may be required in vascular metastasis e.g. renal and thyroid
  • If impending fracture, protect entire bone
  • Stabilise fractures using IM nail or joint replacement (e.g. endoprosthesis)
  • Solitary renal metastasis –wide local excision and reconstruction (curative)
  • Post-operative radiotherapy