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MICRB 106 - FINAL > Pathogenic Gram-Negative Cocci and Bacilli > Flashcards

Pathogenic Gram-Negative Cocci and Bacilli Flashcards

1
Q

______ is the only genus of Gram-negative cocci that regularly causes disease in humans

A

Neisseria

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2
Q

What is the morphology for the genus Neisseria?

A

Diplococci

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3
Q

______ refers to pairs of spherical-shaped cells

A

Cocci

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4
Q

What is the function of fimbriae, polysaccharide capsules, and lipooligosaccharide (LOS) regarding the initiation of disease from Neisseria?

A

They enable bacteria to invade human cells

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5
Q

Name the 2 species of pathogenic Neisseria and the diseases that they cause

A
  • Gonococcus - gonorrhea
  • Meningococcus - meningitis
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6
Q

What is the origin of the word ‘gonorrhea’?

A

“flow of the seed”

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7
Q

What mucous membrane system do gonococci adhere to via fimbriae and capsules?

A

GU tract lining

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8
Q

Describe the effects of N. gonorrhoeae on men (3)

A
  • Urethra infection
  • Painful urination
  • Pus-filled discharge
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9
Q

Describe the effects of N. gonorrhoeae on women (2)

A
  • Cervix / uterus infection
  • Asymptomatic
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10
Q

Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a complication from gonorrhea in ______

A

Women

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11
Q

What are the complications associated with PID? (3)

A
  • Scarring of uterine tubes
  • Ectopic pregnancies
  • Sterility
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12
Q

What 2 bodily fluids does Neisseria meningitidis invade in the case of life-threatening diseases?

A
  • Blood
  • Cerebrospinal fluid
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13
Q

How is meningococcal meningitis transmitted?

A

Respiratory droplets

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14
Q

What is the function of the polysaccharide capsule of N. meningititdis?

A

Resists lytic enzymes allowing meningococci to be carried throughout the body

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15
Q

Why is meningococcal meningitis considered a medical emergency?

A

Causes death within 6 hours

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16
Q

What is meningococcal septicemia?

A

Blood poisoning

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17
Q

In meningococcal septicemia, what does lipooligosaccharide trigger? (2)

A
  • Blood coagulation
  • Petechiae
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18
Q

What are petechiae?

A

Hemorrhagic skin lesions

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19
Q

What are enteric bacteria?

A

Intestinal microbiota

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20
Q

What are the 3 major groups of pathogenic enteric bacteria?

A
  • Coliform opportunists
  • Non-coliform opportunists
  • True pathogens
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21
Q

What are the 3 antigenic components of lipopolysaccharide (LPS)?

A
  • Core polysaccharide
  • O polysaccharide
  • Lipid A
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22
Q

Core polysaccharide is a common ______

A

Antigen

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23
Q

Lipid A is ______

A

An endotoxin

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24
Q

Serological identification of antigens allow distinguishing among …

A

Strains and species of enteric bacteria

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25
Q

A type III secretion system is a complex structure that inserts into the cytoplasmic membrane via a ______

A

Hypodermic needle

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26
Q

What is the function of a type III secretion system?

A

Introduces proteins into the host cell

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27
Q

What is the morphology of coliforms?

A

Rod-shaped

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28
Q

What is the function of coliforms?

A

Ferments lactose to form gas

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29
Q

Where are coliforms found? (4)

A
  • Decaying vegetation
  • Intestinal tracts
  • Plants
  • Soil
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30
Q

What do fecal coliforms in water indicate?

A

Impure water / poor sewage treatment

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31
Q

Of the opportunistic coliform pathogens, which species is the most common and important?

A

E. coli

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32
Q

Name 4 human diseases for which E. coli is responsible

A
  • Septicemia
  • UTIs
  • Neonatal meningitis
  • Gastroenteritis
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33
Q

E. coli is the most common cause of ______

A

UTIs

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34
Q

How is E. coli often introduced into the urethra?

A

Fecal contamination

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35
Q

Why are females more likely than males to acquire urinary tract infections (UTIs)?

A

Female urethras are shorter and closer to the anus

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36
Q

What is urethritis?

A

Inflammation of the urethra

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37
Q

What is the function of fimbriae in the development of bacterial urethritis?

A

They allow bacteria to adhere to epithelial cells

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38
Q

What is cystitis?

A

Inflammation of the bladder

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39
Q

What is pyelonephritis?

A

Inflammation of the kidneys

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40
Q

What is the function of flagella in the development of bacterial cystitis / pyelonephritis?

A

They propel bacteria up into the urethra

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41
Q

______ is the most common disease associated with E. coli

A

Gastroenteritis

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42
Q

What are the effects of enterotoxins on the GI tract? (4)

A
  • Loss of sodium
  • Loss of potassium
  • Loss of bicarbonate
  • Loss of water
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43
Q

What is the current most prevalent strain of pathogenic E. coli in developed countries?

A

E. coli O157:H7

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44
Q

Name 3 food sources associated with epidemics E. coli O157:H7

A
  • Undercooked ground beef
  • Unpasteurized milk
  • Unpasteurized fruit juice
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45
Q

E. coli O157:H7 produces a ______

A

Type III secretion system

46
Q

What are the functions of the proteins introduced into intestinal cells by E. coli O157:H7? (2)

A
  • Disrupt cell metabolism
  • Facilitate attachment of additional E. coli O157:H7
47
Q

What effect does the Shiga-like toxin of E. coli O157:H7 have upon host cells?

A

Inhibits protein synthesis

48
Q

What effect do antimicrobial drugs have upon Shiga-like toxin production in E. coli O157:H7?

A

Increase production of Shiga-like toxin

49
Q

What are the 3 truly pathogenic, non-lactose-fermenting bacteria in the family Enterobacteriaceae?

A
  • Salmonella
  • Shigella
  • Yersinia
50
Q

Are Salmonella, Shigella, and Yersinia considered to be members of the normal microbiota of humans?

A

NO

51
Q

Of Salmonella, Shigella, and Yersinia, which is the most common?

A

Salmonella

52
Q

Where are Salmonella species commonly found?

A

Intestines of birds, reptiles, and mammals

53
Q

What species of Salmonella includes more than 2000 unique strains?

A

S. enterica

54
Q

What are some major sources of infection associated with salmonellae? (3)

A
  • Food contaminated with animal feces
  • Poultry
  • Eggs
55
Q

Salmonella is ______

A

Acid sensitive

56
Q

Infections of salmonella with ______ cells are usually asymptomatic

A

Fewer than 1 million

57
Q

What condition results with larger infective doses of S. enterica?

A

Salmonellosis

58
Q

Where do S. enterica cells attach / reproduce, causing salmonellosis?

A

The small intestine

59
Q

How do salmonellae cells induce host cells to endocytize them?

A

They use type III secretion systems to induce nonphagocytic cells

60
Q

What effect do reproducing, intracellular salmonellae have upon host cell viability?

A

They kill host cells

61
Q

When does bacteremia occur?

A

When salmonellosis strains enter the blood

62
Q

Bacteremia causes ______ infections

A

Localized

63
Q

What is the treatment for salmonellosis?

A

Fluid and electrolyte replacement

64
Q

What human disease is caused specifically by Salmonella enterica serotype Typhi?

A

Typhoid fever

65
Q

What causes S. enterica Typhi infection?

A

Ingestion of asymptomatic carriers

66
Q

In S. enterica Typhi infections, bacteria are phagocytized but …

A

NOT killed

67
Q

Name 4 organ systems that harbor S. enterica Typhi cells after they have passed through the intestinal cells and into the bloodstream

A
  • Liver
  • Spleen
  • Bone marrow
  • Gallbladder
68
Q

What is peritonitis?

A

Inflammation of the peritoneum

69
Q

What causes peritonitis?

A

Bacteria perforate the intestinal wall and enter the abdominal cavity

70
Q

What is the causative agent of shigellosis?

A

Shigella

71
Q

Describe the stool associated with salmonella

A

Non-bloody diarrhea

72
Q

Describe the stool associated with shigellosis

A

Bloody diarrhea

73
Q

What kind of toxin produced by shigella is responsible the symptoms of shigellosis?

A

Diarrhea-inducing enterotoxin

74
Q

What are the causes of Shigella? (3)

A
  • Poor personal hygiene
  • Ineffective sewage treatment
  • Contaminated foods
75
Q

Shigella is not affected by ______

A

Stomach acid

76
Q

Where do the main events in shigellosis occur after Shigella cells colonize the small intestine?

A

The large intestine

77
Q

Where does Shigella multiply within the GI tract?

A

Cytoplasm

78
Q

Where does Salmonella multiply within the GI tract?

A

Endocytic vesicles

79
Q

How do Shigella cells move between neighboring epithelial cells?

A

Uses actin fibers to push into adjacent cells

80
Q

How do salmonellosis and shigellosis differ with respect to development of bacteremia?

A

Shigellosis rarely causes bacteremia

81
Q

Which species of Shigella secretes an exotoxin called Shiga toxin?

A

Shigella dysenteriae

82
Q

What is the treatment for shigellosis?

A

Fluid and electrolyte replacement

83
Q

Is Yersinia pestis (an extremely virulent pathogen) an enteric bacterium or a nonenteric one?

A

Nonenteric

84
Q

What are the 2 types of plague caused by Y. pestis?

A
  • Bubonic plague
  • Pneumonic plague
85
Q

What are the mammalian hosts for the natural endemic cycle of Y. pestis? (3)

A
  • Rats
  • Mice
  • Voles
86
Q

Do the mammalian hosts for the natural endemic cycle of Y. pestis develop disease?

A

NO

87
Q

What are the biological vectors for the spread of plague bacteria in mammalian hosts?

A

Fleas

88
Q

What is the function of multiplying bacteria on a flea’s feeding?

A

They block the esophagus

89
Q

What ways can humans become infected with bubonic plague? (2)

A
  • Bites from infected fleas
  • Direct contact with infected animals
90
Q

What is the primary manifestation of bubonic plague?

A

Buboes

91
Q

What are buboes?

A

Swollen, painful lymph nodes

92
Q

What conditions result from untreated cases of bubonic plague? (3)

A
  • DIC
  • Subcutaneous hemorrhaging
  • Tissue necrosis
93
Q

______ is the common name for bubonic plague caused by Y. pestis, associated with death of affected tissues

A

Black death

94
Q

When does pneumonic plague occur?

A

When Yersinia infects the lungs

95
Q

How is pneumonic plague transmitted among human populations? (2)

A
  • Aerosols
  • Sputum
96
Q

How is plague prevented? (2)

A
  • Rodent control
  • Personal hygiene
97
Q

What is the causative agent of pertussis or ‘whooping cough’?

A

B. pertussis

98
Q

How does B. pertussis cause disease?

A

It interferes with ciliated epithelial cells of the trachea

99
Q

What effect does pertussis toxin have on ciliated epithelial cells?

A

Increases mucus production

100
Q

What are the 4 stages of disease progression of pertussis?

A
  • Incubation stage
  • Catarrhal stage
  • Paroxysmal stage
  • Convalescent stage
101
Q

Bacteria multiplying with no symptoms refers to the ______ stage of pertussis progression

A

Incubation

102
Q

Signs and symptoms resembling a common cold refers to the ______ stage of pertussis progression

A

Catarrhal

103
Q

Exhaustive coughing spells refers to the ______ stage of pertussis progression

A

Paroxysmal

104
Q

Growth of ciliated lining and diminished coughing spells refers to the ______ stage of pertussis progression

A

Convalescent

105
Q

What is the CDC recommendation regarding vaccination against pertussis?

A

Parents should immunize their children

106
Q

Is P. aeruginosa a true pathogen or an opportunistic pathogen?

A

Opportunistic pathogen

107
Q

Name 2 toxins produced by P. aeruginosa that inhibit protein synthesis

A
  • Exotoxin A
  • Exoenzyme S
108
Q

What are the functions of elastase in P. aeruginosa infections? (2)

A
  • Breaks down elastic fibers
  • Cleaves IgA and IgG
109
Q

What is the name of the blue-green pigment produced by P. aeruginosa?

A

Pyocyanin

110
Q

Pyocyanin causes ______

A

Tissue damage

111
Q

Describe the relationship between burn victims and P. aeruginosa infections

A

Burned areas provide a warm, moist, environment

112
Q

⅔ of burn victims develop environmental / nosocomial ______ infections

A

Pseudomonas

MICRB 106 - FINAL (4 decks)

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