Pathogenesis and Natural History of HIV/AIDS Flashcards

1
Q

What is meant by the “disproportionate distribution” of HIV transmission?

A

What region of the world you are in really dictates most frequent infection modes

I.e.
America = gay sex
Eastern Europe = IV drug use
Sub-Saharan Africa = sex work (straight sex)

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2
Q

What is the easiest mode of sex to get HIV in?

A

Receptive anal intercourse (1-2% transfer rate). All other modes are less than 0.1%

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3
Q

What is the highest risk of HIV transmission?

A

Vertical - about 24% chance mother will pass to child

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4
Q

What STDs will increase transmission of HIV?

A

Inflammatory - will result in increase of CD4+ cells near the genitals - transmission is actually more likely to occur to higher CD4 counts

Ulcerative - leads to exposed mucus membranes (i.e. HPV, HSV, Syphilis)

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5
Q

What gender has a greater biological susceptibility to infection?

A

Women - they more soft membranes are exposed during sex - i.e. vaginal canal, where transmission from an infected male is easy. For a male to get the disease, it pretty much has to go up his urethra or find some way to soft membranes.

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6
Q

What measure is more closely correlated to risk of all transmission?

A

plasma HIV RNA level of mother or partner

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7
Q

What is the threshold of HIV RNA level for which transmission is at near 0?

A

400 copies / mL

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8
Q

How does HIV initially start and then generate diversity?

A

One or few founder virions get in, then the virus mutates from there

This is due to an error-prone reverse transcriptase which has one point mutation per 10,000 base pairs (incredibly high mutation rate)

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9
Q

How many CD+ T cells can be destroyed and replaced daily, and what is one slow reservoir where the virus still divides?

A

About 1 billion cells -> 1-10 billion virions produced daily in steady state

Slow reservoir = monocytes and resting CD4+ memory cells (hold all mutations from over the course of infection)

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10
Q

How do the CD4+ T cells actually die?

A

Direct cytopathic effect, or immune-mediated destruction via apoptosis by CD8+ cells

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11
Q

What is the serum viral load from?

A

A spill-over from lymph nodes and other lymphoid aggregates

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12
Q

What are the “sanctuary sites” of the immune system which harbor virus?

A
  1. CNS

2. Reproductive tract

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13
Q

Other than a loss of cell-mediated immunity, what are two other degradations of the immune system which can occur in HIV?

A
  1. Disordered antibody production and overproduction of non-specific antibodies
  2. Bone marrow failure in late AIDS leading to severe neutropenia
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14
Q

What is the primary AIDS vaccine target?

A

gp120, although it mutates too rapidly for a great vaccine. Even early antibodies to gp120 which are used for diagnosis are not effective in stopping the virus

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15
Q

Why are certain HLA types associated with a faster progression to AIDS?

A

Inability to present peptides to CD4 / CD8 cells which allows for CD8+ cell-mediated immunity and virus suppression

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16
Q

What is the disease prognosis in CCR5 mutations (heterozygotes and homozygotes)?

A

Heterozygote - slowly progressing disease

Homozygote - resistance to infection

17
Q

What are CCR5 and CXCR4 normally and how does this relate to SDF-1?

A

They are chemokine receptors. People with mutations in SDF-1, the natural ligand of CXCR4, have a much slower progression of disease

18
Q

Where is the primary area where HIV replicates in the early stages of infection?

A

gut-associated lymphoid tissue

19
Q

What are the signs of acute retroviral syndrome? Why should we take it seriously?

A

Flu-like symptoms: Fever, rash, adenopathy, sore throats

Looks like a cold or flu

Should be taken seriously because the patient is most infectious at this stage

20
Q

What is an “elite-controller”?

A

A person who’s HIV RNA remains at undetectable levels even without treatment. This is thought to be due to great humoral and cytotoxic T cell response suppressing the virus

21
Q

What is the longterm risk of elite controllers?

A

Chronic immune activation can produce premature vascular disease (atherosclerosis) as well as non-AIDS cancers

22
Q

What is the limit of detection in current assays?

A

<48 RNA copies per mL

23
Q

Where does the majority of perinatal transmission occur? How can this be prevented?

A

During labor in delivery -> much less in utero or postnatally during breastfeeding

Can be prevented by C-section (if viral load is not undetectable)

or

HAART with IV zidovudine to mother at delivery and oral zidovudine to newborn for 6 weeks post delivery

24
Q

What is post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP)?

A

Use of combination anti-retroviral therapy for 1 month following needlestick exposure or severe mucosal exposure to HIV containing blood or body fluids

25
Q

What is PrEP?

A

Pre-exposure prophylaxis, a daily combination anti-retroviral therapy for high risk MSM. On demand is thought to be equally effective (knowing you’ll have sex later that night)