Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Exam 2 > Patho ?s > Flashcards

Patho ?s Flashcards

1
Q

Fluid loss in response to hypervolemia is promoted by:

a. stimulating secretion of ADH, thereby promoting urinary sodium and water elimination
b. inhibiting the secretion of aldosterone, thereby promoting urinary sodium and water elimination
c. lowering mean arterial pressure
d. administering osmotically active fluids

A

b. inhibiting the secretion of aldosterone, thereby promoting urinary sodium and water elimination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which of the following ions is most closely related to water movement?

a. potassium
b. sodium
c. chloride
d. calcium

A

b. sodium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

*Which compartment contains the greatest amount of body water?

a. transcellular
b. plasma
c. interstitial
d. intracellular

A

d. intracellular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

*Which of the following transport mechanisms is associated with movement of water across a semi-permeable membrane?

a. diffusion
b. osmosis
c. facilitated diffusion
d. active transport

A

b. osmosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which of the following conditions will most likely result in edema?

a. intravascular filtration pressure greater than interstitial filtration pressure
b. intravascular reabsorption greater than interstitial reabsorption
c. intravascular colloid osmotic pressure greater than interstitial colloid osmotic pressure
d. increased lymphatic pressure

A

a. intravascular filtration pressure greater than interstitial filtration pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

*Ascites is the primary mechanism of body fluid imbalance in which of the following conditions?

a. salt-losing tubulopathy
b. cirrhosis
c. AIDS
d. isonatremic dehydration

A

b. cirrhosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Hypokalemia is a hallmark of which of the following conditions?

a. salt-losing tubulopathy
b. cirrhosis
c. AIDS
d. isonatremic dehydration

A

a. salt-losing tubulopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Hypotonic fluid loss may result in:

a. hyponatremic dehydration
b. isonatremic dehydration
c. hypernatremic dehydration
d. none of the above

A

c. hypernatremic dehydration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

*Which presents the greatest percentage of water in the extracellular compartment?

a. interstitial volume
b. plasma volume
c. transcellular volume
d. intracellular volume

A

a. interstitial volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which of the following is an anion?

a. sodium
b. hydrogen
c. chloride
d. potassium

A

c. chloride

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which of the following combinations of ions are most likely to bind, forming molecules?

a. anion and anion
b. anion and cation
c. cation and cation
d. none of the above

A

b. anion and cation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which of the following best describes the concentration of solute in a particular volume of fluid bases on electrolyte charge equivalency?

a. mg/dL
b. dL
c. mEq/L
d. mEq

A

c. mEq/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The blood product used for laboratory analysis that does not contain clotting factors is known as:

a. whole blood
b. cellular blood component
c. serum
d. plasma

A

d. plasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Movement of particles across the plasma membrane is promoted when the substance is:

a. large
b. small
c. hydrophilic
d. lipid insoluble

A

b. small

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

*The pressure generated as water moves across a membrane is also known as:

a. osmotic pressure
b. hydrostatic pressure
c. filtration pressure
d. lymphatic pressure

A

a. osmotic pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The protein dependent forces that promote fluid movement into the intravascular space are known as:

a. capillary filtration pressure
b. interstitial filtration pressure
c. capillary osmotic pressure
d. tissue filtration pressure

A

c. capillary osmotic pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Hypothalamic sensory neurons that promote thirst when stimulated are called:

a. baroreceptors
b. chemoreceptors
c. thermoreceptors
d. osmoreceptors

A

d. osmoreceptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which class of diuretics work in the distal convoluted tubule of the kidney by preventing reabsorption of sodium?

a. thiazide diuretics
b. loop diuretics
c. potassium-sparing diuretics
d. proximal diuretics

A

a. thiazide diuretics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Solutions in which the extracellular osmotic force is greater than the intracellular environment is known as:

a. hypotonic
b. isotonic
c. hypertonic
d. normotonic

A

c. hypertonic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Hyponatremia results in:

a. swelling of cells
b. shrinking of cells
c. no change in cell size
d. bursting of cells

A

a. swelling of cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

An example of the action of sodium-potassium pump transport includes which one of the following?

a. transport of potassium out of the cell
b. transport of ATP out of the cell
c. transport of sodium into the cell
d. transport of sodium out of the cell

A

d. transport of sodium out of the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which of the following minerals would you expect to decrease in association with increases in calcium?

a. sodium
b. phosphate
c. magnesium
d. potassium

A

b. phosphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

In the initial phases, portal hypertension leads to ascites due to which mechanism of fluid transport?

a. increased hydrostatic pressure
b. increased osmotic pressure
c. reduced hydrostatic pressure
d. reduced osmotic pressure

A

a. increased hydrostatic pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Treatment of ascites is removal of fluid by which procedure?

a. amniocentesis
b. thoracentesis
c. culdocentesis
d. paracentesis

A

d. Paracentesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Fluid shifts in isonatremic dehydration are:

a. intravascular to extravascular
b. extravascular to intravascular
c. extravascular to interstitial
d. absent

A

d. absent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which of the following is an example of a strong acid?

a. albumin
b. inorganic phosphorus
c. sodium
d. lactate

A

d. lactate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

*A pH of 7.5 is defined as:

a. alkalosis
b. acidosis
d. acidemia
d. alkalemia

A

a. alkalosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

An example of anion exchange includes:

a. sodium and hydrogen exchange
b. sodium and chloride exchange
c. bicarbonate and chloride exchange
d. hydrogen and bicarbonate exchange

A

c. bicarbonate and chloride exchange

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

*Hypokalemia is often associated with which one of the following conditions?

a. metabolic alkalosis
b. metabolic acidosis
c. hyperchloremia
d. none of the above

A

a. metabolic alkalosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

*Metabolic acidosis may be associated with:

a. increased chloride levels
b. increased metabolic acids
c. decreased bicarbonate
d. all of the above

A

d. all the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Hyperlactatemia due to drug treatment is a complication in which of the following conditions?

a. salt-losing tubulopathy
b. cirrhosis
c. AIDS
d. isonatremic dehydration

A

c. AIDS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

*The most rapid acting buffer system is the:

a. plasma buffer system
b. respiratory buffer system
c. renal buffer system
d. potassium-hydrogen exchange

A

a. plasma buffer system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

*Which condition results from a deficit of HCO3-?

a. metabolic acidosis
b. respiratory acidosis
c. metabolic alkalosis
d. respiratory alkalosis

A

a. metabolic acidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

The loss of strong cations and potassium in renal tubulopathy leads to:

a. metabolic acidosis
b. respiratory acidosis
c. metabolic alkalosis
d. respiratory alkalosis

A

c. metabolic alkalosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which of the following complications from ART is potentially life-threatening?

a. hyperlactatemia
b. lactic acidemia
c. lactic acidosis
d. lactic alkalosis

A

c. lactic acidosis

36
Q

*Neurons that carry sensory information to distant parts of the brain and spinal cord are called:

a. efferent neurons
b. afferent neurons
c. interneurons
d. extraneurons

A

b. afferent neurons

37
Q

Depolarization involves:

a. the rapid movement of sodium into the cell
b. the movement of potassium ions out of the cell
c. movement of potassium ions into the cell
d. the absence of electrical activity

A

a. the rapid movement of sodium into the cell

38
Q

The lobe of the brain primarily involved in functions related to vision is the:

a. frontal
b. parietal
c. temporal
d. occipital

A

d. occipital

39
Q

*Which of the following areas of the spinal cord contains 12 segments?

a. cervical
b. thoracic
c. sacral
d. lumbar

A

b. thoracic

40
Q

Which cell type has the most potential for regeneration after injury?

a. astrocyte
b. peripheral axon
c. glial cell
d. oligodendrocytes

A

b. peripheral axon

41
Q

*Coup-contrecoup occurs due to which type of injury mechanism?

a. traumatic
b. pressure
c. excitation
d. ischemic

A

a. traumatic

42
Q

Neurogenic shock is due to altered transmission in which conduction system?

a. sympathetic
b. parasympathetic
c. somatic
d. peripheral

A

a. sympathetic

43
Q

*Seizure disorders are associated with which type of injury?

a. traumatic
b. pressure
c. excitation
d. ischemic

A

c. excitation

44
Q

*Which type of spinal cord injury is associated with the clinical manifestation of ipsilateral loss of motor and sensory function?

a. anterior cord syndrome
b. central cord syndrome
c. brown-sequard syndrome
d. complete cord transection

A

c. brown-sequard syndrome

45
Q

*Which type of neuron synthesizes and secretes norepinephrine as the primary neurotransmitter?

a. serotonergic
b. cholinergic
c. nicotinic
d. adrenergic

A

d. adrenergic

46
Q

*Parkinson disease is characterized by:

a. neurofibrillary tangles
b. amyloid plaque
c. Lewy bodies
d. tau

A

c. Lewy bodies

47
Q

*Which one of the following neurotransmitters is deficient in Parkinson’s disease?

a. dopamine
b. serotonin
c. norepinephrine
d. acetylcholine

A

a. dopamine

48
Q

*The parasympathetic nervous system is part of the:

a. central nervous system
b. somatic nervous system
c. autonomic nervous system
d. thoracolumbar nervous system

A

c. autonomic nervous system

49
Q

Which of the following is an anion?

a. sodium
b. hydrogen
c. chloride
d. potassium

A

c. chloride

50
Q

*Neurons connecting sensory and motor neurons are known as:

a. afferent neurons
b. efferent neurons
c. cranial nerves
d. interneurons

A

d. interneurons

51
Q

*Myelinated neurons are found in which component(s) of the nervous system?

a. central
b. peripheral
c. central and peripheral
d. none of the above

A

c. central and peripheral

52
Q

Polarized cells are:

a. more negative inside the cell as compared to the outside of the cell
b. more positive inside the cell as compared to the outside of the cell
c. equal in electrical charge inside and outside the cell
d. reach threshold with increasingly negative internal charge

A

a. more negative inside the cell as compared to the outside of the cell

53
Q

The density of voltage-gated channels is greatest in which component of the neuron?

a. cell body
b. axon hillock
c. dendrite
d. soma

A

b. axon hillock

54
Q

Potassium outflow from the cell is characterized of which phase of the action potential?

a. resting membrane potential
b. depolarization
c. repolarization
d. none of the above

A

c. repolarization

55
Q

*Release of neurotransmitter occurs at which location in the neuron?

a. presynaptic terminal
b. axon hillock
c. synaptic cleft
d. post synaptic membrane

A

d. post synaptic membrane

56
Q

*The lobe of the brain with functions or perception, memory, and recognition of auditory stimuli is the:

a. frontal
b. parietal
c. temporal
d. occipital

A

c. temporal

57
Q

The cerebral cortex is associated with the:

a. forebrain
b. diencephalon
c. midbrain
d. hindbrain

A

a. forebrain

58
Q

Gray matter is composed primarily of:

a. axons
b. cell bodies
c. dendrites
d. denervated tissue

A

b. cell bodies

59
Q

CSF is produced BY the:

a. dura matter
b. arachnoid matter
c. Pia matter
d. choroid plexus

A

d. choroid plexus

60
Q

CSF is produced IN the:

a. lateral ventricles
b. third ventricle
c. fourth ventricle
d. all the above

A

d. all the above

61
Q

*Bronchial smooth muscle relaxation and vascular smooth muscle constriction are caused by the direct actions of the:

a. parasympathetic nervous system
b. sympathetic nervous system
c. somatic nervous system
d. central nervous system

A

b. sympathetic nervous system

62
Q

Reflex activity involves:

a. afferent neurons
b. interneurons
c. efferent neurons
d. all the above

A

d. all the above

63
Q

Injury-induced swelling of a neuron is due to which one of the following processes?

a. chromatolysis
b. atrophy
c. neuronophagia
d. intraneuronal inclusion

A

a. chromatolysis

64
Q

Which of the following cell types responds to injury by the formation of a glial scar?

a. microglia
b. astrocyte
c. oligodendrocyte
d. schwan cell

A

b. astrocyte

65
Q

Distal axonopathy and Wallerian degeneration are responses to injury in which component of the nervous system?

a. spinal
b. central
c. peripheral
d. cerebral

A

c. peripheral

66
Q

*Contrecoup injury is due to:

a. closed head injury in the area of impact
b. closed head injury resulting in and opposite from the area of direct impact
c. infection resulting from exposed brain tissue from an open traumatic injury
d. closed spinal cord injury resulting from a complete severing of neurons

A

b. closed head injury resulting in and opposite from the area of direct impact

67
Q

Multiple sclerosis is characterized by which form of neuron damage?

a. mononeuropathy
b. polyneuropathy
c. aneuropathy
c. transneuropathy

A

b. polyneuropathy

68
Q

Exaggerated neuronal transmission is often seen as a result of which type of injury?

a. ischemic
b. excitation
c. traumatic
d. pressure

A

d. pressure

69
Q

Brain tumors will likely lead to which type of injury?

a. ischemic
b. excitation
c. traumatic
d. pressure

A

d. pressure

70
Q

*Loss of coordinated movement and balance is likely due to damage to:

a. pyramidal structures
b. extrapyramidal structures
c. peripheral neurons
d. cranial nerves

A

b. extrapyramidal structures

71
Q

The type of injury that leads to seizure disorders in cerebral palsy is likely:

a. ischemic
b. excitation
c. traumatic
d. pressure

A

a. ischemic

72
Q

The type of injury that results from seizure disorders in cerebral palsy is:

a. ischemic
b. excitation
c. traumatic
d. pressure

A

b. excitation

73
Q

*Current MS drug treatments designed to slow the progress of myelin degeneration are:

a. antidepressants
b. anticonvulsants
c. immunomodulators
d. antibiotics

A

c. immunomodulators

74
Q

Congenital hydrocephalus is most often caused by which one of the following conditions?

a. brain tumor
b. narrowed cerebral aqueduct
c. meningitis
d. intraventricular hemorrhage

A

b. narrowed cerebral aqueduct

75
Q

*Loss of involuntary function is expected with spinal injury at which level?

a. C1-C2
b. C7-T1
c. T9-T12
d. S1-S5

A

a. C1-C2

76
Q

Which represents the greatest percentage of water in the extracellular compartment?

a. interstitial volume
b. plasma volume
c. transcellular volume
d. intracellular volume

A

a. interstitial volume

77
Q

*The nurse is caring for a client admitted to the telemetry unit after being pinned between a loading truck and the wall of the dock. The nurse knows that he has sustained massive cellular damage due to the pressure of being pinned. The nurse will monitor which lab value to detect a potentially deadly rise in which cation?

a. sodium
b. potassium
c. chloride
d. calcium

A

b. potassium

78
Q

The nurse expects which lab findings for a patient experiencing hyperemesis due to a diagnosis of cryptosporidium after being licked in the mouth by a baby goat at an outdoor fair.

a. pH of 7.31, HCO3- of 22
b. pH of 7.29, HCO3- of 35
c. pH of 7.47, HCO3- of 20
d. pH of 7.49, HCO3- of 33

A

d. pH of 7.49, HCO3- of 33

79
Q

*A student nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with metabolic acidosis resulting from hyperlactatemia. The clinical instructor knows that the student understands the pathophysiology of metabolic acidosis when the student identifies which organ as the primary regulator of the balance between acids and bases?

a. lung
b. kidney
c. heart
d. pancreas

A

b. kidney

80
Q

*What buffer system is the most rapid acting?

a. plasma
b. renal
c. respiratory
d. potassium-hydrogen exchange

A

a. plasma

81
Q

*The main excitatory neurotransmitter in the body is:

a. GABA
b. glutamate
c. ACh
d. norepinephrine

A

b. glutamate

82
Q

A client asks the nurse about the characteristics of absence seizures. Which explanation should the nurse provide the client?

a. “Absence seizures are basically the same kind of seizures as grand mal, but they are less frequent.”
b. “This type of seizure is characterized by staring into space for a few seconds.”
c. “Absence seizures are characterized by twitching of the arms and legs.”
d. “This type of seizure is similar to drop attacks.”

A

b. “This type of seizure is characterized by staring into space for a few seconds.”

83
Q

*What should the nurse understand are the primary goals for the pharmacological treatment of MS? (SATA)

a. modifying progression of the disease
b. treating acute exacerbations
c. managing symptoms
d. curing diseases
e. remyelinating nerve fibers

A

a, b, c

a. modifying progression of the disease
b. treating acute exacerbations
c. managing symptoms

84
Q

*Coup-contrecoup occurs due to which type of injury mechanism?

a. traumatic
b. pressure
c. excitation
d. ischemic

A

a. traumatic

85
Q

*Loss of coordinated movement and balance is likely due to damage to:

a. pyramidal structures
b. extrapyramidal structures
c. peripheral neurons
d. cranial nerves

A

b. extrapyramidal structures

Exam 2 (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions