Patho II Flashcards

1
Q

What are the potential causes of osteoporosis?

A

Decreased levels of estrogen and testosterone. Decreased activity level. Excess intake of caffeine, phosphorus, alcohol, nicotine. Inadequate levels of vitamins D and C, or Mg.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

If you get osteoporosis because of another disease process your body is dealing with, it is said you have

A

Iatrogenic Osteoporosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Disuse of the skeletal system causes what type of osteoporosis?

A

Classical regional osteoporosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

If someone is taking steroids they can acquire what type of Osteoporosis?

A

Glucocorticoid Osteoporosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which type of bone cell builds new bone?

A

Osteoblasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which type of bone cell eats old bone?

A

Osteoclasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Who is at risk for developing Osteoporosis?

A

Small stature, fair/pale skin, thin build, women. People who are sedentary or obese, may have trauma to spinal cord, take steroids, Chemo therapy, loop diuretics, decreased VIt. D/Ca intake, excessive protein intake, people with malabsorption.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What does Osteomyelitis mean?

A

Infection/Inflammation of the bone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Osteomyelitis is commonly caused by what?

A

Bacterial Staphylococcal Infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The most common route of entry of Osteomyelitis is…?

A

Open wound (exogenous)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Can Osetomyelitis be fatal?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of Osteomyelitis?

A

Acute or Chronic Inflammation, Fever, Pain, Necrotic bone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the treatment for a person with Osteomyelitis?

A

Antibiotics, debridement, surgery, hyperbaric oxygen therapy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the difference of Inflammatory vs. Non Inflammatory Joint Disease

A

Absence of synovial membrane inflammation, Lack of systemic sign and symptoms, Normal synovial fluid analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Osteoarthritis is a Inflammatory or Non Inflammatory Joint disease

A

Inflammatory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Describe Osteoarthritis manifestations

A

degeneration an loss of articular cartilage, sclerosis of bone underneath cartilage, and formation of bone spurs (osteophytes-aka joint mice)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Where is the most common site for development of osteoarthritis?

A

Knees and hips

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Why do people develop primary osteoarthritis ?

A

idiopathic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Who is at risk for Osteoarthritis?

A

Increases with age, Joint trauma, long term mechanical stress, endocrine disorder (hypeparathyoidism [increased calcium]), Drugs (steroids), Obesity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Describe the characteristics of Osteoarthritis

A

local area of damage, loss or articular cartilage, New bone formation of joint margins, subchondral (the bone underneath) bone changes. (joint mice come around when this happens then you get joint effusion.), Variable degrees of mild synovitis (inflammation of synovial joint) and thickening of the joint capsule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of Osteoarthritis

A

Pain (worsens with activity), stiffness (diminishes with activity), Enlargement of the joint, Tenderness, limited motion, deformity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Heberden nodes and/or Bouchard nodes appear on the knuckles of the phalanges in which disease process?

A

Osteoarthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Rheumatoid Arthritis is an Inflammatory or NonInflammatory disease?

A

Inflammatory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Rheumatoid Arthritis is what type of disease process

A

Autoimmune

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is primarily attacked with Rheumatoid Arthritis?

A

Joints (synovial membrane)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the cause of Rheumatoid Arthritis?

A

It is unknown but genetics plays a role

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

In order to diagnose RA, what do they look for?

A

rheumatoid factor and they test the joint fluid for inflammatory exudate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How does the synovial fluid change when a person has Rheumatoid Arthritis

A

It becomes thick and develops an abnormal layer of granulation tissue (pannus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What cells are activated, that cause the damage, with RA

A

Neutrophils in the synovial fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of RA?

A

systemic inflammation, fever, fatigue, weakness, anorexia, weight loss, generalized aching and stiffness. Then joints become painful and tender, stiff and swollen, warm, boggy and lose range of motion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

RA causes

A

joint deformities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What must be present during an evaluation to be diagnosed with RA?

A
four or more...
morning joint stiffness lasting at least 1 hour
arthritis in 3 or more joints
arthritis of the hands
symmetric arthritis
rheumatoid nodules
abnormal amounts of serum rheumatoid factor
radiographic changes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is gout?

A

metabolic disorder that disrupts the body’s control of uric acid production or excretion.

34
Q

What is produced at high levels in the body, when a person has gout?

A

Uric Acid in blood or other body fluids

35
Q

when uric acid is in high levels what forms in the body?

A

crystals

36
Q

where is gout typically located?

A

50% of the initial attacks occur in the metatarsophalangeal joint of the great toe. It can also occur in the heel, ankle, instep of the foot, knee, wrist, or elbow

37
Q

When the crystals of Gout occur in the synovial fluid the inflammation is known as

A

gouty arthritis

38
Q

What are the mechanisms for crystal deposition of Gout?

A

lower body temperatures, decreased albumin or glucosaminoglycan levels, changes in ion concentration and pH, trauma.

39
Q

What are the risk factors for Gout

A

male sex, increasing age, high intake of alcohol, red meat, and fructose, drugs

40
Q

There are three clinical stage of Gout, what are they?

A

Asymptomatic hyperuricemia, acute gouty arthritis, tophaceous gout.

41
Q

what are the manifestations of acute gouty attack?

A

severe pain especially at night, hot, red, tender joint, signs of systemic inflammation - increased sedimentation rate, fever, leukocytosis

42
Q

What is contracture?

A

it is the muscle fiber shortening without an action potential caused by failure of the sarcoplasmic reticulum (calcium pump) even with available ATP

43
Q

Stress induced muscle tension is associated with

A

Chronic Anxiety

44
Q

Stress-induced muscle tension includes

A

Neck stiffness, back pain, clenching teeth, hand grip, and headache

45
Q

What is disuse atrophy?

A

reduction in the normal size of muscle cells as a result of prolonged inactivity

46
Q

Examples if prolonged inactivity associated with disuse atrophy are

A

bed rest
trauma
casting
nerve damage

47
Q

Treatment for disuse atrophy is

A

isometric (just holding the position/no movement) movements, passive lengthening exercises

48
Q

What is fibromyalgia

A

chronic widespread diffuse joint pain, fatigue, and tender points.

49
Q

Fibromyalgia causes what symptoms

A

anxiety and depression, increased sensitivity to touch, absence of inflammation, fatigue, sleep disturbances/non-restorative sleep

50
Q

Who is mostly affected by fibromyalgia

A

women from 30-50 years old. There is a genetic predisposition and environmental factors that play a role in development of symptoms

51
Q

explain what fibromyalgia is doing to cause pain

A

the result of central nervous system dysfunction, where pain transmission and interpretation are amplified. often times an autoimmune disorder coexists, alteration in genes affecting serotonin, catecholamines, and dopamine.

52
Q

To be diagnosed with fibromyaglia what must be present

A

diffuse, chronic (more than 3 months) pain on 11 or more tender points., profound fatigue.

53
Q

Definition of a fracture

A

a fracture is a break in the continuity of a bone

54
Q

There are 9 types of bone fractures. Name them

A

Oblique, Occult, Open, Pathologic, Comminuted, Spiral, Transverse, Greenstick, Impacted.

55
Q

What is an oblique fracture

A

fracture line at an angle to long axis of bone

56
Q

What is a closed fracture

A

Non communicating wound between bone and skin

57
Q

What is an open fracture

A

communicating wound between bone and skin

58
Q

What is a comminuted fracture

A

multiple bone fragments

59
Q

What is a linear fracture

A

fracture line parallel to long axis of bone

60
Q

What is a spiral fracture

A

fracture line encircling bone (as a spiral staircase)

61
Q

What is a Transverse fracture

A

fracture line perpendicular to long axis of bone

62
Q

What is a greenstick fracture

A

break in one cortex with splintering of inner bone surface; commonly occurs in children and elderly persons

63
Q

What is an impacted fracture

A

fracture fragments pushed into each other

64
Q

What is a pathologic fracture

A

fracture at a point where bone has been weakened by disease, for example, by tumors or osteoporosis

65
Q

What is an avulsion.

A

fragment of bone connected to a ligament or tendon detaches from main bone

66
Q

What is a compression fracture

A

fracture wedged or squeezed together on one side of bone

67
Q

What is a displaced fracture

A

fracture with one, both, or all fragments out of normal alignment

68
Q

What is an extracapsular fracture

A

fragment close to joint be remains outside joint capsule

69
Q

What is an intracapsular fracture

A

fragment within joint capsule

70
Q

What are incomplete fracture types

A

greenstick, torus, bowing, stress, transchondral

71
Q

What is a torus fracture

A

buckling of cortex. the cortex buckles but does not break

72
Q

What is a stress fracture

A

microfracture of the bone

73
Q

What is a transchondral fracture

A

separation of cartilaginous joint surface (articular cartilage) from main shaft of bone

74
Q

A broken bone can cause damage to

A

the surrounding tissue, the periosteum, and the blood vessels in the cortex and marrow (which can form a hematoma)

75
Q

When bone tissue is damaged by a break what is triggered

A

inflammatory response

76
Q

bone healing occurs either direct or indirect. What is direct healing

A

no callus formation occurs, most often occurs when surgical fixation is used to repair a broken bone

77
Q

indirect healing of a broken bone is

A

involves the formation of a callus and eventual remodeling of solid bone

78
Q

Signs and symptoms of a broken bone

A

numbness for up to 20 minutes following injury, unnatural alignment, swelling, muscle spasm, tenderness, pain, impaired sensation, and possible muscle spasms

79
Q

typical treatment of a broken bone

A

closed manipulation, traction, and open reduction. Either internal or external fixation.

80
Q

Nonunion of a broken bone means

A

failure of the bone ends to grow together

81
Q

delayed union of a broken bone means

A

a union that does not occur until approximately 8 to 9 months after a fracture

82
Q

malunion of a broken bone means

A

the healing of a bone in an incorrect anatomic position.