Patho 1 Final Exam Flashcards
1
Q
when a cell has 92 chromosomes, it is called what?
A
Teraploidy
2
Q
Each somatic cell nucleus has 46 chromosomes on 23 pairs. This type of cell is called?
A
Diploid cells
3
Q
What type of cell is formed from diploid cells by meiosis?
A
Haploid cells
4
Q
A cell that does not contain a multiple of 23 chromosomes is called?
A
Aneuploid cells
5
Q
What type of cell is usually a result of nondisjunction?
A
Aneuploidy
6
Q
A cell containing three copies of one chromosome is called?
A
Trisomy
7
Q
When a chromosome fails to separate normally during meiosis or mitosis is called?
A
Nondisjunction
8
Q
Trisomy of the 21st chromosome is what ?
A
Down Syndrome
9
Q
Individuals with at least two X chromosomes and one Y chromosome on each cell is said to have what?
A
Klinefelter syndrome
10
Q
Broken chromosomes and lost DNA cause what?
A
Deletions
11
Q
Which has more severe outcomes, Deletions or Insertions?
A
Deletions
12
Q
Characteristics of Down Syndrome
A
Low nasal bridge, epicanthal folds, protruding tongue, low-set ears
13
Q
What are the risks associated with having a child with Downs Syndrome?
A
Females over 35 yrs old
14
Q
Monosomy of X chromosome is what?
A
Turner syndrome
15
Q
Characteristics of Turners syndrome
A
Short stature common, characteristic webbing of neck, widely spaced nipples, reduced carrying angle at elbow
16
Q
Can a male get Turners syndrome?
A
No, Females only
17
Q
The composition of genes at a given locus is known as?
A
Genotype
18
Q
The outward appearance of an individual, which is the result of both genotype and environment is?
A
Phenotype
19
Q
Best known autosomal dominate disease is
A
Huntington’s Disease
20
Q
Characteristics of Huntington’s Disease
A
Late onset of symptoms, progressive dementia and increasingly uncontrollable limb movements
21
Q
An allele whose effects are observable are said to be
A
Dominate
22
Q
An allele whose effects are hidden are said to be
A
Recessive
23
Q
An individual who has the disease gene but is phenotypically normal is a
A
Carrier
24
Q
What is consanguinity?
A
Inbreeding
25
Atrophy means?
A decrease or shrinking on cellular size
26
Hypertrophy means?
An increase in cellular size
27
Hyperplasia means?
Increase in cell numbers
28
Metaplasia means?
reversible replacement of one mature cell type b another less mature cell type.
29
Dysplasia means?
abnormal changes in the size, shape, and organization of mature cells. often called Atypical hyperplasia.
30
Most diseases begin with ?
Cellular injury
31
Hypoxia means?
Lack of oxygen in a particular tissue
32
Hypoxemia means?
Lack of oxygen in the blood
33
Ischemia means?
Reduced oxygenated blood supply typically caused by cell injury
34
Anoxia means
total lack of Oxygen
35
Carboxyhemoglobin is
carbon monoxide bound with hemoglobin
36
Apoptosis is?
programmed cellular death
37
Necrosis is ?
cell or tissue death related to injury. cellular dissolution
38
Coagulative necrosis occurs where?
kidneys, heart and adrenal glands.
39
Coagulative necrosis happens because
of hypoxia caused by severe ischemia caused by chemical injury.
40
Liquefactive necrosis occurs where?
Brain tissue
41
LIquefactive necrosis happens because
of ischemic injury to neurons and glial cells in the brain
42
Caseous Necrosis occurs where?
lungs, tissues resemble clumped cheese
43
Caseous Necrosis happens because of
TB
44
Cellular changes characteristics of aging include
atrophy, decreased function, and loss of cells, possibly cause by apoptosis
45
loss of cellular function due to aging causes
initiates the compensatory mechanisms of hypertrophy and hyperplasia of the remaining cells, which can lead to metaplasia, dysplasia, and neoplasia.
46
Somatic death is
death of the entire person
47
Benign tumors are what?
non cancerous tissues, made of fairly well-differentiated cells and well organized stroma.
48
Malignant tumors are ?
cancerous tissues, more rapid growth rates and specific microscopic alterations, loss of differentiation and absence of normal tissue organization.
49
Carcinomas are
cancers arising in epithelial tissue
50
adenocarcinomas are
cancers arising from ductal or glandular structures
51
Anaplasia means
loss of cellular differentiation
52
in situ
early stage growths are localized to the epithelium but have not penetrated the local basement membrane or invaded the surrounding stroma.
53
paraneoplastic syndrome
when the tumor marker has biologic activity and can cause symptoms
54
Oncogenes are
mutant genes that in their normal non mutant state direct synthesis of proteins that positively regulate (accelerate) proliferation.
55
metastasis
is the spread of cancer cells from the site of the original tumor to distant tissues and organs though the body
56
cachexia
severe form of malnutrition results in wasting and extensive loss of adipose tissue. constellation of symptoms including anorexia, early satiety (filling), weight loss, anemia, asthenia (marked weakness), taste alterations, altered protein, lipid, and carbohydrate metabolism.
57
common effects of cancer and cancer treatment
pain, fatigue, cachexia, anemia, leukopenia and thrombocytopenia, infection, alopecia
58
Hydrostatic pressure
pushes water
59
Oncotic pressure
pulls water
60
natriuretic peptides
hormones that are released when there is an increase in transmural atrial pressure (increased volume) which may occur with congestive heart failure. They cause vasodilation and increase sodium and water excretion, decreasing BP
61
The first person on one family to have a disease is called the
Proband
62
Characteristics of Fetal Alcohol Syndrome
growth retardation, facial anomalies, cognitive impairment, and ocular malformations.
63
Suffocation results from what
lack of oxygen in the environment, or blockage of the external airways
64
choking asphyxiation caused by what
obstruction of the internal airways
65
strangulation is caused by
compression and closure of the blood vessels and air passages resulting form external pressure on the neck
66
Frailty is what
when the aged person is common to falls, functional decline, disability, disease, and death.
67
What is sarcopenia
loss of muscle mass and strength
68
The aged person is prone to what fluid imbalances
dehydration, decreased percent of total body water, increase adipose and decrease muscle mass, decreased renal failure, diminished thirst perception
69
Total body water decreases with age. TRUE OR FALSE
TRUE
70
What is a common isotonic solution given in a hospital?
0.9% Sodium Chloride Solution A.K.A. Normal Saline
71
Isotonic solution causes what kind of fluid movement
NONE.
72
If you give a Hypertonic solution to a patient, what happens to the fluid balance?
Fluid moves from Interstitial space INTO veins. Hypertonic solutions have higher solute concentration than RBC, thus causing vasodilation.
73
If the solute outside the cell is higher than indie the cell what happens?
Water moves from low solute to high solute and the cell shrinks. Remember water follows sodium (solute).
74
If you give a Hypotonic solution to a patient, what happens to the fluid balance?
Fluid moves out of veins and INTO tissue.
75
When compensatory mechanisms to excrete excess fluid fail what type of fluid is increased
Extra Cellular Fluid
76
If I have edema in lower extremities from accumulation of fluid w/i the interstitial spaces, what has increased?
a. capillary hydrostatic pressure
b. plasma oncontic pressure
c. interstitial osmotoc pressure
A. increase in capillary hydrostatic pressure
AND a
DECREASE in plasma oncontic (osmotic) pressure
77
what determines hydrostatic pressure
cardiac output and blood pressure
78
What are possible indications of fluid deficit?
dehydration, tachycardia, weak pulses, and postural hypotension, flushed, dry skin, dry muscous membranes, decreased urine output, increased hematocrit, increased serum sodium levels
79
What is hypervolemia?
Fluid overload
80
What is hypovolemia?
decreased blood volume
81
An autosomal recessive disease that can be inherited is
Cystic Fibrosis
82
Asphxial Injuries are
failure of cells to receive oxygen
83
self destruction process and a survival mechanism. A greek words meaning "eating of self"
Autophagy
84
Osteopenia is
reduced bone mass of lessor severity than osteoporosis
85
Hallmark signs of cancer cells
Self-sufficiency in growth signals; insensitivity to anti-growth signals; evading apoptosis; limitless replication potential; sustained angiogenesis (wanting blood supply); tissue invasion and metastasis
86
3 properties of cancer transformation are
1. Autonomy, 2. anaplastic 3. self-renewing
87
cancer cells start from 3 types of cells
1. stem cells 2. partially differentiated cells 3. mutated normal differentiated cell
88
angiogensis is
when cancers secrete multiple factors that stimulate new blood vessel growth. Recruit new vascular endothelial cells and initiate the proliferation of existing blood vessel cells, allowing small cancers to become large cancers.
89
Thrombocytopenia is
decrease number of platelets
90
Leukopenia is
decrease number of white blood cells
91
Stage 1 cancer is
cancer that is confirmed in the organ of origin
92
Stage 2 cancer is
locally invasive cancer
93
Stage 3 cancer is
when cancer has spread to regional structures and lymph system
94
Stage 4 cancer is
When cancer has spread to distant sights.
95
Staging a cancer with T0 is
free of tumor
96
Staging a cancer with T1 is
lesions less than 2 cm in size
97
Staging a cancer with T2 is
lesions within 2-5 cm in size
98
Staging a cancer with T3 is
Skin and/or chest wall by invasion
99
Staging a cancer with N0 is
no axillary nodes involved
100
Staging a cancer with N1 is
mobile nodes involved
101
Staging a cancer with N2 is
fixed nodes involved
102
Staging a cancer with M0 is
no metastases
103
Staging a cancer with M1 is
demonstrable metastases
104
Staging a cancer with M2 is
Suspected metastases
105
what are the 4 types of hypersensitivity reactions
```
#1 - immediate hypersensitivity
#2 - cytotoxic antibody reactions
#3 - immune complex reaction
#4- delayed type hypersensitivity (DTH)
```
106
Common Type 1 hypersensitivities
Allergies, Rhinitis, Asthma, Dermatisis (Eczema), Food allergies
107
Type 1 hypersensitivities are caused by what
release of histamines from the mast cells
108
type 1 hypersensitivities are mediated by what
IgE
109
manifestations (signs and symptoms) of type 1 hypersensitivities
puritius (itching), urticaria (hives), conjunctivitis, Rhinitis, hypotension, brochospasms, dysrhyrhmias, GI cramps and malabsorptions.
110
two types of anaphalaxis are
cutaneous (localized) or general (systemic)
111
autoimmune diseases are a result from which types of hypersensitivities
type II- type IV
112
What is the bodies 1st line of defense
Innate resistance including skin, glands just under skin
113
what is the bodies 2nd line of defense
inflammatory and phagocytosis
114
what is the bodies 3rd line of defense
adaptive (acquired) immunity
115
inflammation if initiated because of
infection, necrosis, mechanical damage, ischemia, nutrient deprivation, temperature extremes, and radiation
116
What is inflammation good
it limits tissue destruction, isolates infection, initiates healing
117
what are the major steps of inflammation
blood vessel dialation, permeability (fluid leakage), WBC numbers increase in affected area
118
Diapedisis is
when a WBC is able to penetrate tissues, moving from vessels to infected area. Emigration of cells through the endothelial junctions.
119
When a mast cell degranulates it releases what
histamines and chemotactic factors
120
Histamines cause what
an alleregic reaction
121
chemotactic factors released by the degranulation of mast cells does what
calls in neutrophils and eosinophils to infected area
122
What is the first type of WBC to arrive at the site of an infection
Neutrophils
123
what can cause a mast cell to degranulate
pressure, injury, or chemical agent
124
What does a histamine do
increases vascular permeability, increases adherence of leukocytes to membrane, bind to histamine receptors on target cells, causes dilation of post capillary venules to increase the blood flow.
125
Interleukins do what
It is a cytokine, chemicals released by a macrophage and lymphocyte. "IL-1, IL-10" allow talking between leukocytes. primarily released by virally infected cells.
126
what are the steps of phagocytosis
adherence, engulfment, phagosome formation, fusion with lysosomal granules, destruction of the target.
127
Nitric oxide does what
it is a free radical and will kill an invader
128
Monocytes is ciculating in the blood and when activated by ctikines it exists the blood vessels and becomes what>
a macrophage (known as Big Eaters)
129
The complement system has three pathways. What are they?
1. classic pathway, 2. alternative pathway, 3. lectin pathway
130
Classic pathway of the complement system is
It is adaptive immunity. triggered by antigens
131
Alternative pathway of the complement system is
innate immunity. spontaneous activation
132
Lectin Pathway of the complement system is
innate immunity. mannose-binding pathway. a 'sugar' is attached to the bacteria for recognition by phagocytes, for phagocytosis of bacteria.
133
all pathways of the complement system come together at which complement
C3
134
opsonization means
when an invader is marked for phagocytosis. Its like putting butter on it to make it taste better.
135
a coagulation cascade is what
it is activated during injury or infection. its main component is fibrin. Fibrin causes clotting.
136
Humoral immunity means
floating in fluids of the body. Antibodies. B cell lymphocytes
137
What are the 5 classes of Immunity and what do they do
IgG - most abundant, can cross placenta, more rapid secondary response
IgA - in all secretion of the body, mucous membranes
IgM- pentamer - biggest of immunoglobins, made during primary response/vaccination
IgE - histamine/allergies, sensitizes, mast cells/basophils, least concentrated. makes basophils more reactive attacking parasites, release ECF.
IgD - mystery - on surface of B lymphocytes
138
The stick that presents antigen on the surface of the cell
Major histocompatability complex (MHC)
139
PaCO2 means what
the amount of CO2 dissolved in arterial blood. Normal range is 35-45 mmHg
140
pH normal range is what
7.35-7.45
141
HCO3 is what
calculated value of bicarbonate. Normal range is 23-27 mEq/Liter
142
If the pH is
Acidotic
143
if the pH is > 7.45 what is the condition
Alkalotic
144
If the pH is 45 the condition is what
Respiratory Acidosis
145
If the pH is
Metabolic Acidosis
146
when ADH is released it tells the kidney to
hold onto urine
147
Compensated acidosis range for pH is
7.35-7.39 pH
148
Uncompensated acidosis range for pH is
149
Compensated alkalosis range for pH is
7.40-7.45 pH
150
Uncompensated alkalosis range for pH is
>7.45 pH
151
what is the range for pH, CO2, HCO3 for acidic
pH 45, HCO3
152
what is the range for pH, CO2, HCO3 for alkaline
pH>7.45, CO2 26
153
what determines respiratory vs. metabolic fluid imbalances
If pH is on the same side as CO2 = Respiratory
| if pH is on the same side as HCO3 = Metabolic
154
R A A S is what
Renin - Angiotensin - Aldosterone - System
155
What is the cycle of RAAS
renin is released by kidneys during low blood pressure, angiotensinogen converts into angiotensin 1, it travels to the lungs and is converted into Angiotensin II, it is released and triggers adrenal gland to release aldosterone. aldosterone causes Na and H2O reabsorption
156
Three steps of respiration are
ventilation, perfusion, diffusion
157
External respiration includes what
lungs and aveoli
158
Internal respiration includes what
rest of the body
159
hypercapnia is
high levels of CO2
160
hemoptysis
blood in sputum
161
Baroreceptors are
stretch receptors, respond to changes in BP
162
chemoreceptors are
respond to changes with CO2, O2, pH
163
Acetylcholine causes an increase or decrease in heat rate
decrease
164
norepinephrine causes a decrease or increase in heart rate
increase
165
Right side of heart pumps blood where
pulmonary system
166
Left side of heart pumps blood where
systemic circulation
167
Arterial BP is a function of what
Cardiac output and systemic vascular resistance
168
preload is what
volume of blood in ventricles at end of diastole
169
afterload is what
resistance left ventricle must overcome to circulate blood
170
cardiac output is calculated by what
heart rate times stroke volume. It is the amount of blood ejected from left ventricle every minute
171
arteriosclerosis is
thickening and hardening of vessels.
172
naturietic peptides cause
secretion of H2o and dilations of vessels
173
Aldosterone tells the kidney to
retain water
174
C reactive proteins and sed rate are test for what
inflammation
175
what test can tell if someone has had a MI
troponin
176
malignant hypertension
very rapidly progressive, diastole greater than 140
177
embolism
bolus moving through vessel
178
thrombus
blood clot in vessel
179
thrombusembolism
blood clot moving in vessel
180
Unstable angina
continual chest an even they stop the exercise or exertion
181
stable angina
chest pain as result of ischemia - physical exertion, emotional stress. Coronary arteries are narrow.
182
prinzmetal angina
variant angina caused when somebody is sitting at rest and they have pain. Spasm of coronary arteries, tend to have chest pain when sleeping.
