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Pathophysiology > Patho 1 Final Exam > Flashcards

Patho 1 Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

when a cell has 92 chromosomes, it is called what?

A

Teraploidy

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2
Q

Each somatic cell nucleus has 46 chromosomes on 23 pairs. This type of cell is called?

A

Diploid cells

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3
Q

What type of cell is formed from diploid cells by meiosis?

A

Haploid cells

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4
Q

A cell that does not contain a multiple of 23 chromosomes is called?

A

Aneuploid cells

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5
Q

What type of cell is usually a result of nondisjunction?

A

Aneuploidy

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6
Q

A cell containing three copies of one chromosome is called?

A

Trisomy

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7
Q

When a chromosome fails to separate normally during meiosis or mitosis is called?

A

Nondisjunction

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8
Q

Trisomy of the 21st chromosome is what ?

A

Down Syndrome

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9
Q

Individuals with at least two X chromosomes and one Y chromosome on each cell is said to have what?

A

Klinefelter syndrome

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10
Q

Broken chromosomes and lost DNA cause what?

A

Deletions

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11
Q

Which has more severe outcomes, Deletions or Insertions?

A

Deletions

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12
Q

Characteristics of Down Syndrome

A

Low nasal bridge, epicanthal folds, protruding tongue, low-set ears

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13
Q

What are the risks associated with having a child with Downs Syndrome?

A

Females over 35 yrs old

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14
Q

Monosomy of X chromosome is what?

A

Turner syndrome

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15
Q

Characteristics of Turners syndrome

A

Short stature common, characteristic webbing of neck, widely spaced nipples, reduced carrying angle at elbow

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16
Q

Can a male get Turners syndrome?

A

No, Females only

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17
Q

The composition of genes at a given locus is known as?

A

Genotype

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18
Q

The outward appearance of an individual, which is the result of both genotype and environment is?

A

Phenotype

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19
Q

Best known autosomal dominate disease is

A

Huntington’s Disease

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20
Q

Characteristics of Huntington’s Disease

A

Late onset of symptoms, progressive dementia and increasingly uncontrollable limb movements

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21
Q

An allele whose effects are observable are said to be

A

Dominate

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22
Q

An allele whose effects are hidden are said to be

A

Recessive

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23
Q

An individual who has the disease gene but is phenotypically normal is a

A

Carrier

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24
Q

What is consanguinity?

A

Inbreeding

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25
Q

Atrophy means?

A

A decrease or shrinking on cellular size

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26
Q

Hypertrophy means?

A

An increase in cellular size

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27
Q

Hyperplasia means?

A

Increase in cell numbers

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28
Q

Metaplasia means?

A

reversible replacement of one mature cell type b another less mature cell type.

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29
Q

Dysplasia means?

A

abnormal changes in the size, shape, and organization of mature cells. often called Atypical hyperplasia.

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30
Q

Most diseases begin with ?

A

Cellular injury

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31
Q

Hypoxia means?

A

Lack of oxygen in a particular tissue

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32
Q

Hypoxemia means?

A

Lack of oxygen in the blood

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33
Q

Ischemia means?

A

Reduced oxygenated blood supply typically caused by cell injury

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34
Q

Anoxia means

A

total lack of Oxygen

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35
Q

Carboxyhemoglobin is

A

carbon monoxide bound with hemoglobin

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36
Q

Apoptosis is?

A

programmed cellular death

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37
Q

Necrosis is ?

A

cell or tissue death related to injury. cellular dissolution

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38
Q

Coagulative necrosis occurs where?

A

kidneys, heart and adrenal glands.

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39
Q

Coagulative necrosis happens because

A

of hypoxia caused by severe ischemia caused by chemical injury.

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40
Q

Liquefactive necrosis occurs where?

A

Brain tissue

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41
Q

LIquefactive necrosis happens because

A

of ischemic injury to neurons and glial cells in the brain

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42
Q

Caseous Necrosis occurs where?

A

lungs, tissues resemble clumped cheese

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43
Q

Caseous Necrosis happens because of

A

TB

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44
Q

Cellular changes characteristics of aging include

A

atrophy, decreased function, and loss of cells, possibly cause by apoptosis

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45
Q

loss of cellular function due to aging causes

A

initiates the compensatory mechanisms of hypertrophy and hyperplasia of the remaining cells, which can lead to metaplasia, dysplasia, and neoplasia.

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46
Q

Somatic death is

A

death of the entire person

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47
Q

Benign tumors are what?

A

non cancerous tissues, made of fairly well-differentiated cells and well organized stroma.

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48
Q

Malignant tumors are ?

A

cancerous tissues, more rapid growth rates and specific microscopic alterations, loss of differentiation and absence of normal tissue organization.

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49
Q

Carcinomas are

A

cancers arising in epithelial tissue

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50
Q

adenocarcinomas are

A

cancers arising from ductal or glandular structures

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51
Q

Anaplasia means

A

loss of cellular differentiation

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52
Q

in situ

A

early stage growths are localized to the epithelium but have not penetrated the local basement membrane or invaded the surrounding stroma.

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53
Q

paraneoplastic syndrome

A

when the tumor marker has biologic activity and can cause symptoms

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54
Q

Oncogenes are

A

mutant genes that in their normal non mutant state direct synthesis of proteins that positively regulate (accelerate) proliferation.

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55
Q

metastasis

A

is the spread of cancer cells from the site of the original tumor to distant tissues and organs though the body

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56
Q

cachexia

A

severe form of malnutrition results in wasting and extensive loss of adipose tissue. constellation of symptoms including anorexia, early satiety (filling), weight loss, anemia, asthenia (marked weakness), taste alterations, altered protein, lipid, and carbohydrate metabolism.

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57
Q

common effects of cancer and cancer treatment

A

pain, fatigue, cachexia, anemia, leukopenia and thrombocytopenia, infection, alopecia

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58
Q

Hydrostatic pressure

A

pushes water

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59
Q

Oncotic pressure

A

pulls water

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60
Q

natriuretic peptides

A

hormones that are released when there is an increase in transmural atrial pressure (increased volume) which may occur with congestive heart failure. They cause vasodilation and increase sodium and water excretion, decreasing BP

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61
Q

The first person on one family to have a disease is called the

A

Proband

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62
Q

Characteristics of Fetal Alcohol Syndrome

A

growth retardation, facial anomalies, cognitive impairment, and ocular malformations.

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63
Q

Suffocation results from what

A

lack of oxygen in the environment, or blockage of the external airways

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64
Q

choking asphyxiation caused by what

A

obstruction of the internal airways

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65
Q

strangulation is caused by

A

compression and closure of the blood vessels and air passages resulting form external pressure on the neck

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66
Q

Frailty is what

A

when the aged person is common to falls, functional decline, disability, disease, and death.

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67
Q

What is sarcopenia

A

loss of muscle mass and strength

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68
Q

The aged person is prone to what fluid imbalances

A

dehydration, decreased percent of total body water, increase adipose and decrease muscle mass, decreased renal failure, diminished thirst perception

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69
Q

Total body water decreases with age. TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

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70
Q

What is a common isotonic solution given in a hospital?

A

0.9% Sodium Chloride Solution A.K.A. Normal Saline

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71
Q

Isotonic solution causes what kind of fluid movement

A

NONE.

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72
Q

If you give a Hypertonic solution to a patient, what happens to the fluid balance?

A

Fluid moves from Interstitial space INTO veins. Hypertonic solutions have higher solute concentration than RBC, thus causing vasodilation.

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73
Q

If the solute outside the cell is higher than indie the cell what happens?

A

Water moves from low solute to high solute and the cell shrinks. Remember water follows sodium (solute).

74
Q

If you give a Hypotonic solution to a patient, what happens to the fluid balance?

A

Fluid moves out of veins and INTO tissue.

75
Q

When compensatory mechanisms to excrete excess fluid fail what type of fluid is increased

A

Extra Cellular Fluid

76
Q

If I have edema in lower extremities from accumulation of fluid w/i the interstitial spaces, what has increased?

a. capillary hydrostatic pressure
b. plasma oncontic pressure
c. interstitial osmotoc pressure

A

A. increase in capillary hydrostatic pressure
AND a
DECREASE in plasma oncontic (osmotic) pressure

77
Q

what determines hydrostatic pressure

A

cardiac output and blood pressure

78
Q

What are possible indications of fluid deficit?

A

dehydration, tachycardia, weak pulses, and postural hypotension, flushed, dry skin, dry muscous membranes, decreased urine output, increased hematocrit, increased serum sodium levels

79
Q

What is hypervolemia?

A

Fluid overload

80
Q

What is hypovolemia?

A

decreased blood volume

81
Q

An autosomal recessive disease that can be inherited is

A

Cystic Fibrosis

82
Q

Asphxial Injuries are

A

failure of cells to receive oxygen

83
Q

self destruction process and a survival mechanism. A greek words meaning “eating of self”

A

Autophagy

84
Q

Osteopenia is

A

reduced bone mass of lessor severity than osteoporosis

85
Q

Hallmark signs of cancer cells

A

Self-sufficiency in growth signals; insensitivity to anti-growth signals; evading apoptosis; limitless replication potential; sustained angiogenesis (wanting blood supply); tissue invasion and metastasis

86
Q

3 properties of cancer transformation are

A
  1. Autonomy, 2. anaplastic 3. self-renewing
87
Q

cancer cells start from 3 types of cells

A
  1. stem cells 2. partially differentiated cells 3. mutated normal differentiated cell
88
Q

angiogensis is

A

when cancers secrete multiple factors that stimulate new blood vessel growth. Recruit new vascular endothelial cells and initiate the proliferation of existing blood vessel cells, allowing small cancers to become large cancers.

89
Q

Thrombocytopenia is

A

decrease number of platelets

90
Q

Leukopenia is

A

decrease number of white blood cells

91
Q

Stage 1 cancer is

A

cancer that is confirmed in the organ of origin

92
Q

Stage 2 cancer is

A

locally invasive cancer

93
Q

Stage 3 cancer is

A

when cancer has spread to regional structures and lymph system

94
Q

Stage 4 cancer is

A

When cancer has spread to distant sights.

95
Q

Staging a cancer with T0 is

A

free of tumor

96
Q

Staging a cancer with T1 is

A

lesions less than 2 cm in size

97
Q

Staging a cancer with T2 is

A

lesions within 2-5 cm in size

98
Q

Staging a cancer with T3 is

A

Skin and/or chest wall by invasion

99
Q

Staging a cancer with N0 is

A

no axillary nodes involved

100
Q

Staging a cancer with N1 is

A

mobile nodes involved

101
Q

Staging a cancer with N2 is

A

fixed nodes involved

102
Q

Staging a cancer with M0 is

A

no metastases

103
Q

Staging a cancer with M1 is

A

demonstrable metastases

104
Q

Staging a cancer with M2 is

A

Suspected metastases

105
Q

what are the 4 types of hypersensitivity reactions

A 
#1 - immediate hypersensitivity
#2 - cytotoxic antibody reactions
#3 - immune complex reaction
#4- delayed type hypersensitivity (DTH)
106
Q

Common Type 1 hypersensitivities

A

Allergies, Rhinitis, Asthma, Dermatisis (Eczema), Food allergies

107
Q

Type 1 hypersensitivities are caused by what

A

release of histamines from the mast cells

108
Q

type 1 hypersensitivities are mediated by what

A

IgE

109
Q

manifestations (signs and symptoms) of type 1 hypersensitivities

A

puritius (itching), urticaria (hives), conjunctivitis, Rhinitis, hypotension, brochospasms, dysrhyrhmias, GI cramps and malabsorptions.

110
Q

two types of anaphalaxis are

A

cutaneous (localized) or general (systemic)

111
Q

autoimmune diseases are a result from which types of hypersensitivities

A

type II- type IV

112
Q

What is the bodies 1st line of defense

A

Innate resistance including skin, glands just under skin

113
Q

what is the bodies 2nd line of defense

A

inflammatory and phagocytosis

114
Q

what is the bodies 3rd line of defense

A

adaptive (acquired) immunity

115
Q

inflammation if initiated because of

A

infection, necrosis, mechanical damage, ischemia, nutrient deprivation, temperature extremes, and radiation

116
Q

What is inflammation good

A

it limits tissue destruction, isolates infection, initiates healing

117
Q

what are the major steps of inflammation

A

blood vessel dialation, permeability (fluid leakage), WBC numbers increase in affected area

118
Q

Diapedisis is

A

when a WBC is able to penetrate tissues, moving from vessels to infected area. Emigration of cells through the endothelial junctions.

119
Q

When a mast cell degranulates it releases what

A

histamines and chemotactic factors

120
Q

Histamines cause what

A

an alleregic reaction

121
Q

chemotactic factors released by the degranulation of mast cells does what

A

calls in neutrophils and eosinophils to infected area

122
Q

What is the first type of WBC to arrive at the site of an infection

A

Neutrophils

123
Q

what can cause a mast cell to degranulate

A

pressure, injury, or chemical agent

124
Q

What does a histamine do

A

increases vascular permeability, increases adherence of leukocytes to membrane, bind to histamine receptors on target cells, causes dilation of post capillary venules to increase the blood flow.

125
Q

Interleukins do what

A

It is a cytokine, chemicals released by a macrophage and lymphocyte. “IL-1, IL-10” allow talking between leukocytes. primarily released by virally infected cells.

126
Q

what are the steps of phagocytosis

A

adherence, engulfment, phagosome formation, fusion with lysosomal granules, destruction of the target.

127
Q

Nitric oxide does what

A

it is a free radical and will kill an invader

128
Q

Monocytes is ciculating in the blood and when activated by ctikines it exists the blood vessels and becomes what>

A

a macrophage (known as Big Eaters)

129
Q

The complement system has three pathways. What are they?

A
  1. classic pathway, 2. alternative pathway, 3. lectin pathway
130
Q

Classic pathway of the complement system is

A

It is adaptive immunity. triggered by antigens

131
Q

Alternative pathway of the complement system is

A

innate immunity. spontaneous activation

132
Q

Lectin Pathway of the complement system is

A

innate immunity. mannose-binding pathway. a ‘sugar’ is attached to the bacteria for recognition by phagocytes, for phagocytosis of bacteria.

133
Q

all pathways of the complement system come together at which complement

A

C3

134
Q

opsonization means

A

when an invader is marked for phagocytosis. Its like putting butter on it to make it taste better.

135
Q

a coagulation cascade is what

A

it is activated during injury or infection. its main component is fibrin. Fibrin causes clotting.

136
Q

Humoral immunity means

A

floating in fluids of the body. Antibodies. B cell lymphocytes

137
Q

What are the 5 classes of Immunity and what do they do

A

IgG - most abundant, can cross placenta, more rapid secondary response
IgA - in all secretion of the body, mucous membranes
IgM- pentamer - biggest of immunoglobins, made during primary response/vaccination
IgE - histamine/allergies, sensitizes, mast cells/basophils, least concentrated. makes basophils more reactive attacking parasites, release ECF.
IgD - mystery - on surface of B lymphocytes

138
Q

The stick that presents antigen on the surface of the cell

A

Major histocompatability complex (MHC)

139
Q

PaCO2 means what

A

the amount of CO2 dissolved in arterial blood. Normal range is 35-45 mmHg

140
Q

pH normal range is what

A

7.35-7.45

141
Q

HCO3 is what

A

calculated value of bicarbonate. Normal range is 23-27 mEq/Liter

142
Q

If the pH is

A

Acidotic

143
Q

if the pH is > 7.45 what is the condition

A

Alkalotic

144
Q

If the pH is 45 the condition is what

A

Respiratory Acidosis

145
Q

If the pH is

A

Metabolic Acidosis

146
Q

when ADH is released it tells the kidney to

A

hold onto urine

147
Q

Compensated acidosis range for pH is

A

7.35-7.39 pH

148
Q

Uncompensated acidosis range for pH is

A
149
Q

Compensated alkalosis range for pH is

A

7.40-7.45 pH

150
Q

Uncompensated alkalosis range for pH is

A

> 7.45 pH

151
Q

what is the range for pH, CO2, HCO3 for acidic

A

pH 45, HCO3

152
Q

what is the range for pH, CO2, HCO3 for alkaline

A

pH>7.45, CO2 26

153
Q

what determines respiratory vs. metabolic fluid imbalances

A

If pH is on the same side as CO2 = Respiratory

if pH is on the same side as HCO3 = Metabolic

154
Q

R A A S is what

A

Renin - Angiotensin - Aldosterone - System

155
Q

What is the cycle of RAAS

A

renin is released by kidneys during low blood pressure, angiotensinogen converts into angiotensin 1, it travels to the lungs and is converted into Angiotensin II, it is released and triggers adrenal gland to release aldosterone. aldosterone causes Na and H2O reabsorption

156
Q

Three steps of respiration are

A

ventilation, perfusion, diffusion

157
Q

External respiration includes what

A

lungs and aveoli

158
Q

Internal respiration includes what

A

rest of the body

159
Q

hypercapnia is

A

high levels of CO2

160
Q

hemoptysis

A

blood in sputum

161
Q

Baroreceptors are

A

stretch receptors, respond to changes in BP

162
Q

chemoreceptors are

A

respond to changes with CO2, O2, pH

163
Q

Acetylcholine causes an increase or decrease in heat rate

A

decrease

164
Q

norepinephrine causes a decrease or increase in heart rate

A

increase

165
Q

Right side of heart pumps blood where

A

pulmonary system

166
Q

Left side of heart pumps blood where

A

systemic circulation

167
Q

Arterial BP is a function of what

A

Cardiac output and systemic vascular resistance

168
Q

preload is what

A

volume of blood in ventricles at end of diastole

169
Q

afterload is what

A

resistance left ventricle must overcome to circulate blood

170
Q

cardiac output is calculated by what

A

heart rate times stroke volume. It is the amount of blood ejected from left ventricle every minute

171
Q

arteriosclerosis is

A

thickening and hardening of vessels.

172
Q

naturietic peptides cause

A

secretion of H2o and dilations of vessels

173
Q

Aldosterone tells the kidney to

A

retain water

174
Q

C reactive proteins and sed rate are test for what

A

inflammation

175
Q

what test can tell if someone has had a MI

A

troponin

176
Q

malignant hypertension

A

very rapidly progressive, diastole greater than 140

177
Q

embolism

A

bolus moving through vessel

178
Q

thrombus

A

blood clot in vessel

179
Q

thrombusembolism

A

blood clot moving in vessel

180
Q

Unstable angina

A

continual chest an even they stop the exercise or exertion

181
Q

stable angina

A

chest pain as result of ischemia - physical exertion, emotional stress. Coronary arteries are narrow.

182
Q

prinzmetal angina

A

variant angina caused when somebody is sitting at rest and they have pain. Spasm of coronary arteries, tend to have chest pain when sleeping.

Pathophysiology (2 decks)

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