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Advanced Patho/Phys. > Patho Exam 2 > Flashcards

Patho Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Composed off Midbrain, Medulla & Pons. Connects the hemispheres of the Brain, Cerebellum & Spinal cord

A

Brainstem

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2
Q

Which midbrain dysfunction causes pupils to be pinpoint size and fixed in position?

A

Pontine dysfunction

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3
Q

Which fibers emerge from the posterior midbrain and exit from the skull to run to the eye

A

Trochlear Nerve

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4
Q

Which fibers emerge from the midbrain, exit from the skull, and extend to the eye

A

Oculomotor Nerve

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5
Q

(Mesencephalon) connects the forebrain to the hindbrain and is composed of the tectum, tegmentum, and cerebral peduncles

A

Midbrain

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6
Q

What name is given to a large network of neurons within the brainstem that is essential for maintaining wakefulness?

A

Reticular Activating System

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7
Q

Collection of nuclei within brainstem that connects brainstem to cortex and controls vital reflexes such as cardiovascular function & respiration

A

Reticular Formation

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8
Q

anterior portion of Forebrain that consists of the 2 cerebral hemispheres and includes the Cerebral Cortex and Basal Ganglia. Responsible for conscious perception of internal and external stimuli, cognition and memory processes, and voluntary control of skeletal muscles.

A

Telencephalon

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9
Q

Parkinson and Huntington diseases are associated with defects in which area of the brain? Basal Ganglia

A

Basal Ganglia

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10
Q

posterior portion of the forebrain consisting of the thalamus, hypothalamus, epithalamus, and subthalamus. Responsible for relaying sensory information, controls autonomic functions, and links to the limbic system for memory and emotion.

A

Diencephalon

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11
Q

What evidence does the nurse expect to see when a patient experiences trauma to the hypothalamus? Uneven expression of mood, Unstable blood glucose levels, Poor regulation of body temperature

A

Uneven expression of mood, Unstable blood glucose levels, Poor regulation of body temperature

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12
Q

The hypothalamus forms the base of the diencephalon. Hypothalamic function controls

A
  • Autonomic nervous system (ANS) function
  • regulation of body temperature, - endocrine function (e.g., unstable glucose levels)
  • regulation of emotional expression.
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13
Q

4 areas of the frontal lobe:

A

Prefrontal
Premotor (Broadmann area 6)
Primary motor (Brodmann area 4)
Broca speech Brodmann area 44 & 45)

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14
Q

What area of the Frontal lobe is responsible for goal-oriented behavior, short-term or recall memory?

A

Prefrontal

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15
Q

What parts of the brain mediate the expression of affect, both emotional and behavioral states?

A

Limbic system and prefrontal cortex

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16
Q

Thought and goal-oriented behaviors are functions of which area of the brain?

A

Prefrontal lobe

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17
Q

What part of the Frontal lobe programs motor movement; basal ganglia (extrapyramidal sys. = efferent pathways)

A

Premotor (Brodmann area 6)

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18
Q

What part of the Frontal lobe is responsible for primary voluntary motor area; corticospinal tracts (pyramidal sys. = descend down spinal cord); contralateral control

A

Primary motor area (Brodmann area 4)

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19
Q

What part of the Frontal lobe is responsible for motor aspects of speech?

A

Brocca speech area (Brodmann area 44 & 45)

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20
Q

The region responsible for the motor aspects of speech is located in the:

A

Broca area in the frontal lobe

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21
Q

What are the 3 areas of the Hindbrain?

A

Cerebellum
Pons
Medulla

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22
Q

Which area of the brain assumes the responsibility for conscious and unconscious muscle synergy and for maintaining balance and posture?

A

Cerebellum

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23
Q

The membrane that separates the brain’s cerebellum from its cerebrum is the:

A

Tentorum Cerebelli

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24
Q

From which part of the midbrain do cranial nerves V to VIII emerge?

A

Pons

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25
Q

Reflex activities concerned with heart rate, blood pressure, respirations, sneezing, swallowing, and coughing are controlled by which area of the brain?

A

Medulla Oblongata

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26
Q

From which part of the midbrain do cranial nerves IX to XII emerge?

A

Medulla Oblongata

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27
Q

Injury/Destruction of which motor neurons results in initial paralysis followed by partial recovery

A

Upper Motor Neurons

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28
Q

Which statement is true regarding upper motor neurons?

A

They modify spinal reflex arcs

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29
Q

Injury/Destruction of which motor neurons results in permanent paralysis, unless peripheral nerve damage is followed by nerve regeneration and recovery

A

Lower Motor neurons

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30
Q

Which nerves are capable of regeneration?

A

Myelinated nerves in the peripheral nervous system

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31
Q

What indicates that spinal shock is terminating?

A

Indications that spinal shock is terminating include the reappearance of reflex activity, hyperreflexia, spasticity, and reflex emptying of the bladder.

32
Q

Which assessment finding marks the end of spinal shock?

A

Gradual return of spinal reflexes

33
Q

Where is the cerebrospinal fluid produced?

A

Choroid Plexuses

34
Q

The function of arachnoid villi is to:

A

Absorb cerebrospinal fluid into the cerebral venous sinuses

35
Q

Which neurotransmitter’s primary response is pleasure, motivation, cognition, attention, memory, learning, fine motor control, sleep & hormonal regulation, penile erection, and immune function?

A

Dopamine

36
Q

Which neurotransmitter’s primary response is to to produce general vasodilation?

A

Epinephrine

37
Q

Which neurotransmitter’s is released by preganglionic parasympathetic fibers

A

Acetylcholine

38
Q

Norepinephrine produces what primary response?

A

Vasoconstriction

39
Q

The neurotransmitter, norepinephrine, is secreted in the:

A

Sympathetic postganglion

40
Q

The collateral blood flow to the brain is provided by the:

A

Circle of Willis

41
Q

Brain derives arterial blood supply from:

A

Internal carotid arteries

42
Q

Originate from subclavian arteries & Supplies the spinal cord with blood

A

Vertebral Arteries

43
Q

Formed at the junction of the Pons & Medulla Oblongata from the vertebral arteries

A

Basilar Artery

44
Q

Which cranial nerves contain parasympathetic nerves?

A

III (oculomotor)
VII (facial)
IX (glossopharyngeal)
X (vagus)

45
Q

Pricking one’s finger with a needle would cause minimal pain, whereas experiencing abdominal surgery would produce more pain. This distinction is an example of which pain theory?

A

Specificity

46
Q

The basis of the specificity theory of pain is that:

A

The greater the tissue injury, the greater the pain.

47
Q

Which pain theory proposes that a balance of impulses conducted from the spinal cord to the higher centers in the central nervous system (CNS) modulates the transmission of pain?

A

Gate control Theory

48
Q

Which description characterizes visceral pain?

A

Is perceived as poorly localized and is transmitted by the sympathetic nervous system.

49
Q

Pain that arises from joints, muscles, bone and skin. Pain is sharp & well-localized in A-delta fibers and dull, aching, throbbing and poorly localized in C fibers

A

Acute Somatic

50
Q

Parkinson disease is a degenerative disorder of the brain’s:

A

Basal Ganglia

51
Q

Clinical manifestations of Parkinson disease are caused by a deficit in which of the brain’s neurotransmitters?

A

Dopamine

52
Q

Tremors at rest, rigidity, akinesia, and postural abnormalities are a result of the atrophy of neurons in the brain’s:

A

Substantia nigra that produces dopamine

53
Q

The clinical manifestations of Parkinson disease include:

A

Fragmented sleep, Depression, Muscle stiffness, Bradykinesia

54
Q

In Parkinson disease the basal ganglia influence the hypothalamic function to produce which clinical manifestations?

A

Inappropriate diaphoresis, Gastric retention, Urinary retention

55
Q

Prolonged high environmental temperatures that produce dehydration, decreased plasma volumes, hypotension, decreased cardiac output, and tachycardia cause which disorder of temperature regulation?

A

Heat Exhaustion

56
Q

Heat exhaustion results in:

A

profuse sweating, profound vasodilation, and a need to ingest warm liquids,

57
Q

A heat stroke is characterized by:

A

Sweat production on the face occurring even during dehydration

58
Q

Why are children more susceptible to heat stroke than are adults?

A

Children produce more metabolic heat when exercising, they have more surface area–to-mass ratio, children have less sweating capacity.

59
Q

Which medication is used to reverse the effects of malignant hyperthermia?

A

Dantrolene Sodium

60
Q

The major sleep center is located in which section of the brain?

A

Hypothalamus

61
Q

Which neuropeptide promotes wakefulness?

A

Hypocretins

62
Q

Which term is also used to refer to paradoxic sleep?

A

REM

63
Q

Coronary artery disease is most affected by which component of sleep?

A

REM

64
Q

What are the expected changes in sleep patterns of older adults?

A

Older adults experience difficulty falling asleep with less time spent in REM sleep.

65
Q

Open-angle glaucoma occurs because of:

A

Obstructed outflow of aqueous humor

66
Q

How can glaucoma cause blindness?

A

Pressure on the optic nerve

67
Q

Which factors contribute to sensorineural hearing loss?

A

Meniere disease, aging, DM, noise exposure.

68
Q

Cheyne-Stokes respirations are described as a:

A

Crescendo-decrescendo pattern of breathing, followed by a period of apnea

69
Q

-A sudden, explosive, disorderly discharge of cerebral neurons is termed:

A

Seizures

70
Q

The most critical aspect in correctly diagnosing a seizure disorder and establishing its cause is:

A

Health History

71
Q

A complex partial seizure is described as:

A

Impairment of both consciousness and the ability to react to exogenous stimuli

72
Q

What type of seizure starts in the fingers and progressively spreads up the arm and extends to the leg?

A

Focal (partial) Jacksonian seizure

73
Q

Status epilepticus is considered a medical emergency because of the:

A

development of cerebral hypoxia

74
Q

Which person is at the greatest risk for developing delirium?

A

An individual on the second day after hip replacement

75
Q

With receptive dysphasia (fluent), the individual is able to:

A

Comprehend speech, but not verbally respond

Advanced Patho/Phys. (4 decks)

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