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Advanced Patho/Phys. > Patho Exam 1 > Flashcards

Patho Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Largest membrane bound organelle

A

Nucleus

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2
Q

Nucleus function

A

cell division and control of genetic information

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3
Q

What does the nucleus contains that is a small dense structure composed largely of RNA, most of the cellular DNA, and the DNA-binding proteins, such as the histones, which regulate its activity.

A

Nucleolus

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4
Q

What is the RNA function

A

direct cellular activity

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5
Q

Where does RNA processing occur

A

The Nucleus

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6
Q

Most of a cell’s genetic information, including RNA and DNA, is contained in the

A

Nucleus

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7
Q

During which phase of the cell cycle is DNA synthesized?

A

S phase

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8
Q

What does DNA contain?

A

Genetic information

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9
Q

What are the major chemical components of the cell membranes?

A

Lipids and proteins

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10
Q

RNA protein complexes synthesized in the nucleus and secreted into the cytoplasm through pores in the nucleus envelope

A

Ribosome

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11
Q

What is the Ribosome function?

A

provide sites for cellular protein synthesis

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12
Q

Which organelle produce a “recognition sequence” or signal like an address on a letter ?

A

newly produced Ribosome

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13
Q

What is the mechanism by which the energy produced from carbohydrates, proteins, and lipids is transferred to adenosine triphosphate (ATP)?

A

Oxidative Phosphorylation

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14
Q

Where does Oxidative phosphorylation occurs ?

A

Mitochondria

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15
Q

What cell component originates from the Golgi complex, provides energy to digest proteins into amino acids, functions as the intracellular digestive system, and are capable of digesting most cellular constituents down to their basic forms, such as amino acids, fatty acids, and sugars.

A

Lysosomes

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16
Q

Which cell component is capable of cellular autodigestion when it is released during cell injury?

A

Lysosome

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17
Q

The cellular uptake of the nutrient cholesterol depends on which process?

A

Receptor-mediated endocytosis

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18
Q

Which structure prevents water-soluble molecules from entering cells across the plasma membrane?

A

Lipid bilayer

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19
Q

Passive transport is best described with which statement?

A

Being driven by osmosis, hydrostatic pressure, and diffusion

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20
Q

Which form of cell communication is used to communicate within the cell itself and with other cells in direct physical contact?

A

Protein channel (gap junction)

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21
Q

What is the primary function of proteins? (4)

A

Proteins are binding units.
Proteins are transport channels.
Proteins provide cell surface markers.
Proteins are chemical reaction catalysts.

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22
Q

What are glycoproteins?

A

membrane bound proteins that are cell surface markers

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23
Q

Passive transport is dependent on what 4 things ?

A

semipermeable membrane
osmosis
hydrostatic pressure
diffusion

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24
Q

Active transport occurs across which type of membranes? (what does it require?)

A

Membranes that have receptors that are capable of binding with the substances to be transported

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25
Q

The transport of glucose from the blood to the cell is accomplished by which process?

A

Passive-mediated transport (facilitated dissuison)

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26
Q

Under anaerobic conditions, what process provides energy for the cell?

A

Glycoloysis

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27
Q

A patient who has diarrhea receives a 3% saline solution intravenously to replace the sodium and chloride lost in the stool. What effect will this fluid replacement have on cells?

A

shrink

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28
Q

When changes in total body water are accompanied by proportional changes in electrolytes, what type of alteration occurs?

A

Isotonic

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29
Q

Water movement between the intracellular fluid (ICF) compartment and the extracellular fluid (ECF) compartment is primarily a function of:

A

Osmosis

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30
Q

In addition to osmosis, what force is involved in the movement of water between the plasma and interstitial fluid spaces?

A

Hydrostatic pressure

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31
Q

The role of cytokines in cell reproduction is that they:

A

Provide growth factor for tissue growth and development.

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32
Q

Potassium and sodium are transported across plasma membranes by:

A

Adenosine triphosphatase (ATPase) enzyme

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33
Q

Why is it possible for potassium to diffuse easily into and out of cells?

A

The resting plasma membrane is more permeable to potassium

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34
Q

What causes the rapid change in the resting membrane potential to initiate an action potential?

A

Sodium gates open, and sodium rushes into the cell, changing the membrane potential from negative to positive.

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35
Q

In hypoxic injury, sodium enters the cell and causes swelling because:

A

ATP is insufficient to maintain the pump that keeps sodium out of the cell.

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36
Q

During cell injury caused by hypoxia, sodium and water move into the cell because:

A

The pump that transports sodium out of the cell cannot function because of a decrease in ATP levels.

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37
Q

Removal of part of the liver leads to the remaining liver cells undergoing compensatory:

A

Hyperplasia

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38
Q

What is an example of compensatory hyperplasia?

A

Hepatic cells increase cell division after part of the liver is excised.

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39
Q

Examples of adaptive cellular responses include: (4)

A

Atrophy, hypertrophy, hyperplasia, and metaplasia

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40
Q

After ovulation, the uterine endometrial cells divide under the influence of estrogen. This process is an example of hormonal:

A

Hyperplasia

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41
Q

It is true that nondividing cells are:

A

Found in gastrointestinal lining

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42
Q

The abnormal proliferation of cells in response to excessive hormonal stimulation is called:

A

Pathological Hyperplasia

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43
Q

Which type of cell adaptation occurs when normal columnar ciliated epithelial cells of the bronchial lining have been replaced by stratified squamous epithelial cells?

A

Metaplasia

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44
Q

The mammary glands enlarge during pregnancy primarily as a consequence of hormonal:

A

Hyperplasia

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45
Q

Modification in the shape of a specific cell type

A

Dysplasia

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46
Q

Which organs are affected by lead consumption?

A

Bones and Nerves

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47
Q

Lead causes damage within the cell by interfering with the action of:

A

Calcium

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48
Q

Lead poisoning affects the nervous system by:

A

Interfering with the function of neurotransmitters

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49
Q

Infants are most susceptible to significant losses in total body water because of an infant’s:

A

Kidneys are not mature enough to counter fluid losses

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50
Q

Obesity creates a greater risk for dehydration in people because:

A

Adipose cells contain little water because fat is water repelling.

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51
Q

When changes in total body water are accompanied by proportional changes in electrolytes, what type of alteration occurs?

A

Isotonic

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52
Q

Which groups are at risk for fluid imbalance? (3)

A

Infants, Obese, and older adults

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53
Q

Which statements regarding total body water (TBW) are true? (4)

A
  1. durin g childhood, TBW slowly decreases in relationship to body weight
  2. Men tend to have greater TBW as a result of their muscle mass.
  3. Estrogen plays a role in female TBW.
  4. Older adults experience a decrease in TBW as a result of decreased muscle mass.
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54
Q

Which arterial pH will initiate the formation of ammonium (NH4) from ammonia (NH3), referred to as academia, in the tubular lumen of the kidney?

A

7.25

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55
Q

A patient’s blood gases reveal the following findings: pH, 7.3; bicarbonate (HCO3) 27 mEq/L; carbon dioxide (CO2), 58 mm Hg. What is the interpretation of these gases?

A

Respiratory Acidosis

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56
Q

During acidosis, the body compensates for the increase in serum hydrogen ions by shifting hydrogen ions into the cell in exchange for which electrolyte?

A

Potassium

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57
Q

It is true that Kussmaul respirations indicate:

A

A compensatory measure is needed to correct metabolic acidosis.

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58
Q

In addition to osmosis, what force is involved in the movement of water between the plasma and interstitial fluid spaces?

A

Hydrostatic pressure

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59
Q

Venous obstruction is a cause of edema because of an increase in which pressure?

A

Capillary hydrostatic

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60
Q

At the arterial end of capillaries, fluid moves from the intravascular space into the interstitial space because the:

A

Capillary hydrostatic pressure is higher than the capillary oncotic pressure.

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61
Q

Low plasma albumin causes edema as a result of a reduction in which pressure?

A

Plasma oncotic

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62
Q

The pathophysiologic process of edema is related to which mechanism?

A

Lymphatic obstruction

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63
Q

Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure results in edema because of:

A

Sodium and water retention

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64
Q

Water movement between the intracellular fluid (ICF) compartment and the extracellular fluid (ECF) compartment is primarily a function of:

A

Osmotic forces

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65
Q

Two thirds of the body’s water is found in its:

A

Intracellular fluid compartments

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66
Q

Which enzyme is secreted by the juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney when circulating blood volume is reduced?

A

Renin

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67
Q

What mechanism can cause hypernatremia?

A

Hypersecretion of aldosterone

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68
Q

What causes the clinical manifestations of confusion, convulsions, cerebral hemorrhage, and coma in hypernatremia?

A

High sodium in the blood vessels pulls water out of the brain cells into the blood vessels, causing brain cells to shrink.

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69
Q

The electrolyte imbalance called hyponatremia exhibits which clinical manifestations? (4)

A

Headache, Seizures, Confusion, Lethargy

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70
Q

Thirst activates osmoreceptors by an increase in which blood plasma?

A

Osmotic pressure

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71
Q

Insulin is used to treat hyperkalemia because it:

A

Transports potassium from the blood to the cell along with glucose.

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72
Q

Causes of hyperkalemia include:

A

Renal failure and Addison disease

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73
Q

Chvostek and Trousseau signs indicate which electrolyte imbalance?

A

Hypocalcemia

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74
Q

The electrolyte imbalance hypercalcemia exhibits which clinical manifestations? (3)

A
  1. calcium-based kidney stones
  2. lethargy
  3. bradycardia
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75
Q

The most common cause of hypermagnesemia is:

A

Renal failure

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76
Q

Which secretion is a first line of defense against pathogen invasion that involves antibacterial and antifungal fatty acids, as well as lactic acid?

A

Sebaceous gland sebum

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77
Q

Which cell is the body’s primary defense against parasite invasion?

A

Eosinophil

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78
Q

Newborns often have deficiencies in collectin-like proteins, making them more susceptible to what type of infection?

A

Respiratory

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79
Q

Which action is a purpose of the inflammatory process?

A

To prevent infection of the injured tissue

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80
Q

What causes the edema that occurs during the inflammatory process?

A

Increased capillary permeability

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81
Q

What process causes heat and redness to occur during the inflammatory process?

A

Vasodilation of blood vessels

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82
Q

What plasma protein system forms a fibrinous meshwork at an inflamed site?

A

Coagulation

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83
Q

The chemotactic factor affects the inflammatory process by:

A

Directing leukocytes to the inflamed area

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84
Q

Which manifestation of inflammation is systemic?

A

Fever and Leukocytosis

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85
Q

The acute inflammatory response is characterized by fever that is produced by the hypothalamus being affected by:

A

Endogenous pyrogens (aka fever causing cytokines)

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86
Q

Which chemical mediators induce pain during an inflammatory response? (2)

A

Prostaglandins and Bradykinin

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87
Q

Which component of the plasma protein system tags pathogenic microorganisms for destruction by neutrophils and macrophages?

A

Complement cascade

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88
Q

Which chemical interacts among all plasma protein systems by degrading blood clots, activating complement, and activating the Hageman factor?

A

Plasmin

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89
Q

The function of opsonization related to the complement cascade is to:

A

Tag of pathogenic microorganisms for destruction by neutrophils and macrophages.

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90
Q

Which cytokine is produced and released from virally infected host cells?

A

IFN-a

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91
Q

What is an outcome of the complement cascade?

A

Lysis of bacterial cell membranes

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92
Q

Which chemical mediator derived from mast cells retracts endothelial cells to increase vascular permeability and to cause leukocyte adhesion to endothelial cells?

A

Platelet-activating factor

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93
Q

In regulating vascular mediators released from mast cells, the role of eosinophils is to release:

A

Histaminase, which limits the effects of histamine during acute inflammation

94
Q

What is the vascular effect of histamine released from mast cells?

A

Vasodilation

95
Q

What is the correct sequence in phagocytosis?

A

Recognition, engulfment, fusion, destruction

96
Q

During phagocytosis, what is occurring during the step referred to as opsonization?

A

Phagocytes recognize and adhere to the bacteria

97
Q

Fusion is the step in phagocytosis during which:

A

Lysosomal granules enter the phagocyte.

98
Q

During the process of endocytosis, the phagosome step results in:

A

An intracellular phagocytic vacuole is formed

99
Q

What is the role of a natural killer (NK) cells?

A

Elimination of malignant cells

100
Q

The main function of NK cells includes: (2)

A
  1. recognition of virus-infected cells
  2. elimination of virus-infected cells
  3. eliminating previously identified cancer cells
101
Q

Which cytokine is needed for the maturation of a functional helper T cell?

A

IL-2

102
Q

Cytokines are vital to a cell’s ability to do which function?

A

Communicate

103
Q

What occurs during the process of repair after tissue damage?

A

Nonfunctioning scar tissue replaces destroyed tissue

104
Q

Many neonates have a transient depressed inflammatory response as a result of which condition?

A

Complement and chemotaxis are deficient.

105
Q

Which type of immunity is produced by an individual after either natural exposure to the antigen or after immunization against the antigen?

A

Active-acquired immunity

106
Q

What type of immunity is produced when an immunoglobulin crosses the placenta?

A

Passive-acquired immunity

107
Q

Which statement is true regarding maternal antibodies provided to the neonate?

A

The antibodies enter into the fetal circulation by means of active transport

108
Q

Vaccinations are able to provide protection against certain microorganisms because of the:

A

Level of protection provided by IgG

109
Q

When antigens are administered to produce immunity, why are different routes of administration considered?

A

Each route stimulates a different lymphocyte-containing tissue, resulting in different types of cellular and humoral immunity.

110
Q

Where are antibodies produced?

A

Plasma cells

111
Q

How do antibodies protect the host from bacterial toxins?

A

Binding to the toxins to neutralize their biologic effects

112
Q

Evaluation of umbilical cord blood can confirm that which immunoglobulin level is near adult levels?

A

IgG

113
Q

Which statement is true concerning the IgM?

A

IgM is the first antibody produced during the initial response to an antigen.

114
Q

What immunoglobulin crosses the placenta

A

IgG

115
Q

What immunoglobulin is predominately found in the blood and body secretions?

A

IgA

116
Q

What immunoglobulin mediates many common allergic responses

A

IgE

117
Q

Which immunoglobulin is present in blood, saliva, breast milk, and respiratory secretions?

A

IgA

118
Q

Which antibody initially indicates a typical primary immune response?

A

IgM

119
Q

An individual is more susceptible to infections of mucous membranes when he or she has a seriously low level of which immunoglobulin antibody?

A

IgA

120
Q

Which cell has the ability to recognize antigens presented by the MHC class I molecules?

A

CD 8

121
Q

Which cell has a role in developing cell-mediated immunity?

A

Th1

122
Q

CD4 is a characteristic surface marker and a result of which of the following? (4)

A
  1. Activity in the primary lymphoid organs
  2. Process of cellular differentiation
  3. Alterations to T cells
  4. Clonal selection
123
Q

What is the term for the process during which lymphoid stem cells migrate and change into either immunocompetent T cells or immunocompetent B cells?

A

Clonal diversity

124
Q

The generation of clonal diversity includes a process that:

A

Takes place in the primary (central) lymphoid organs.

125
Q

Which T cell controls or limits the immune response to protect the host’s own tissues against an autoimmune response?

A

Regulatory T (Treg) cells

126
Q

The generation of clonal diversity occurs primarily during which phase of life?

A

Fetal

127
Q

In which structure does B lymphocytes mature and undergo changes that commit them to becoming B cells?

A

Bone Marrow

128
Q

Th2 cells produce IL-4 and suppress which cells?

A

Th1 cells

129
Q

Hypersensitivity is best defined as a(an):

A

Altered immunologic response to an antigen that results in disease

130
Q

A hypersensitivity reaction that produces an allergic response is called:

A

Anaphylaxis

131
Q

Which type of antibody is involved in type I hypersensitivity reaction?

A

IgE

132
Q

Blood transfusion reactions are an example of:

A

Alloimmunity

133
Q

During an IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction, which leukocyte is activated?

A

Eosinophils

134
Q

During an IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction, what causes bronchospasm?

A

Smooth muscle contraction caused by histamine bound to H1 receptors

135
Q

During an IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction, the degranulation of mast cells is a result of which receptor action?

A

Histamine bound to H2

136
Q

What is the mechanism that results in type II hypersensitivity reactions?

A

Antibodies bind to the antigens on the cell surface.

137
Q

How are target cells destroyed in a type II hypersensitivity reaction?

A

Natural killer cells

138
Q

Graves disease (hyperthyroidism) is an example of which type II hypersensitivity reaction?

A

Modulation

139
Q

Type III hypersensitivity reactions are a result of which of the following?

A

Antibodies binding to soluble antigens that were released into body fluids and the immune complexes being deposited in the tissues

140
Q

A type IV hypersensitivity reaction causes which result?

A

Lymphokine-producing Th1 cells directly attacking and destroying cellular targets

141
Q

In a type III hypersensitivity reaction, the harmful effects after the immune complexes that are deposited in tissues are a result of:

A

Complement activation

142
Q

Raynaud phenomenon is classified as a type III hypersensitivity reaction and is due to:

A

Immune complexes that are deposited in capillary beds, blocking circulation

143
Q

Urticaria are a manifestation of a which type of hypersensitivity reaction?

A

Type I

144
Q

Graves disease is a result of:

A

Autoantibodies binding to thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)-receptor sites

145
Q

Raynaud phenomenon is an example of which type of hypersensitivity?

A

Type III

146
Q

Immunoglobulin E (IgE) is associated with which type of hypersensitivity reaction?

A

Type I

147
Q

Graves disease is an autoimmune disease that results in which maternal antibody?

A

Affecting the receptor for TSH, causing neonatal hyperthyroidism

148
Q

Exposure to which of the following could result in a type IV hypersensitivity reaction? (4)

A

poison ivy, neomycin, nickel, and detergents

149
Q

The common hay fever allergy is expressed through a reaction that is mediated by which class of immunoglobulins?

A

IgE

150
Q

When mismatched blood is administered causing an ABO incompatibility, the erythrocytes are destroyed by:

A

Complement-mediated cell lysis

151
Q

Which disorders are considered autoimmune? (4)

A

Crohn disease, Addison Disease, Rheumatoid arthritis, and SLE

152
Q

Which statement is true regarding immunodeficiency?

A

Immunodeficiency is generally not present in other family members.

153
Q

In which primary immune deficiency is there a partial-to-complete absence of T-cell immunity?

A

DiGeorge syndrome

154
Q

A person with type O blood is considered to be the universal blood donor because type O blood contains which of the following?

A

No antigens

155
Q

When antibodies are formed against red blood cell antigens of the Rh system, the blood cells are destroyed by:

A

Phagocytosis in the spleen

156
Q

Which blood cell carries the carbohydrate antigens for blood type?

A

Erythrocytes

157
Q

A person with type O blood is likely to have high titers of which anti-antibodies?

A

A and B

158
Q

Phagocytosis involves neutrophils actively attacking, engulfing, and destroying which microorganisms?

A

Bacteria

159
Q

Which statement concerning exotoxins is true?

A

Exotoxins are released during bacterial growth.

160
Q

Some bacterial surface proteins bind with the crystalline fragment (Fc) portion of an antibody to:

A

Produce a protective “self” protein

161
Q

Which organism is a common sexually transmitted bacterial infection?

A

Treponema pallidum

162
Q

Cytokines are thought to cause fevers by stimulating the synthesis of which chemical mediator?

A

Prostaglandins

163
Q

Considering the hypothalamus, a fever is produced by:

A

Endogenous pyrogens acting directly on the hypothalamus.

164
Q

Which secretion transmits HIV? (2)

A

Semen & breast milk

165
Q

Which statement is a characteristic of HIV?

A

HIV is a retrovirus.

166
Q

What is the role of reverse transcriptase in HIV infection?

A

It converts RNA into double-stranded DNA.

167
Q

After sexual transmission of HIV, a person can be infected yet seronegative for how many months?

A

6 to 14

168
Q

Which cells are primary targets for HIV?

A

CD4+ Th cells, macrophages, and natural killer cells

169
Q

What area in the body may act as a reservoir in which HIV can be relatively protected from antiviral drugs?

A

Central nervous system

170
Q

HIV antibodies appear within how many weeks after infection through blood products?

A

4 to 7

171
Q

Ability of the pathogen to invade and multiply in the host

A

Infectivity

172
Q

Capacity of a pathogen to cause severe disease

A

Virulence

173
Q

An important factor in determining a pathogen’s ability to produce disease by the production of a soluble toxin

A

Toxigenicity

174
Q

Ability of an agent to produce disease

A

Pathogenicity

175
Q

Toxigenicity is defined as the:

A

Pathogen’s ability to produce disease by the production of a soluble toxin

176
Q

The ability of the pathogen to invade and multiply in the host is referred to as:

A

Infectivity

177
Q

What is the most common cause of Down syndrome?

A

Maternal nondisjunction

178
Q

What is the second most commonly recognized genetic cause of mental retardation?

A

Fragile X syndrome

179
Q

The presence of a zygote having one chromosome with the normal complement of genes and one with a missing gene is characteristic of which genetic disorder?

A

Cri du chat

180
Q

A child with which genetic disorder has a characteristic cry?

A

Cri du chat

181
Q

Which clinical manifestations would be expected for a child who has complete trisomy of the twenty-first chromosome

A

An IQ of 25 to 70, low nasal bridge, protruding tongue, and flat, low-set ears

182
Q

What syndrome, characterized by an absent homologous X chromosome with only a single X chromosome, exhibits features that include a short stature, widely spaced nipples, and webbed neck?

A

Turner

183
Q

A person with 47, XXY karyotype has the genetic disorder resulting in which syndrome?

A

Klinefelter

184
Q

What is the chromosomal variation that causes Klinefelter syndrome?

A

Nondisjunction of X chromosome in the mother

185
Q

What is the risk for the recurrence of autosomal dominant diseases?

A

50%

186
Q

Which statement is true regarding X-linked recessive conditions?

A

These conditions are passed from affected father to all of his female children.

187
Q

Huntington disease

A

autosomal dominant disease

188
Q

Cystic fibrosis and sickle cell

A

Autosomal recessive

189
Q

A couple has two children diagnosed with an autosomal dominant genetic disease. What is the probability that the next child will have the same genetic disease?

A

one half

190
Q

Cystic fibrosis is caused by what type of gene?

A

Autosomal recessive

191
Q

Consanguinity refers to the mating of persons:

A

Having common family relations

192
Q

Males are more often affected by which type of genetic disease?

A

Sex-linked recessive

193
Q

When a child inherits a disease that is autosomal recessive, it is inherited from:

A

Both parents

194
Q

Which is an important criterion for discerning autosomal recessive inheritance?

A

Consanguinity is sometimes present.

195
Q

An X-linked recessive disease can skip generations because:

A

The disease can be transmitted through female carriers.

196
Q

Becker muscular dystrophy and Duchenne muscular dystrophy are

A

X-linked recessive disorders.

197
Q

The data reporting that sickle cell disease affects approximately 1 in 600 American blacks is an example of which concept?

A

Prevalence

198
Q

The number of persons living with a specific disease at a specific point in time is referred to by which term?

A

Prevalence

199
Q

The number of new cases of a disease reported during a specific period divided by the number of individuals in the population is defined as which characteristic of a disease?

A

Incidence rate

200
Q

The ratio of the disease among the exposed population to the disease rate in an unexposed population is referred to as what type of risk?

A

Relative

201
Q

Empirical risks for most multifactorial diseases are based on:

A

Direct observation

202
Q

The BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutations increase the risk of which cancer in women?

A

Ovarian

203
Q

Which type of cancer is said to aggregate among families?

A

Breast

204
Q

What percentage of all cases of breast cancer are identified as an autosomal dominant form?

A

5

205
Q

When a woman has one first-degree relative with breast cancer, her risk of developing breast cancer is how many times greater?

A

2

206
Q

Which dietary lifestyle choice has been associated with a decreased risk for developing colon cancer?

A

Decreased consumption of foods high in fat

207
Q

Prader-Willi syndrome causes a chromosomal defect that is:

A

Inherited from the father

208
Q

A malfunction in DNA methylation can lead to:

A

Cancer

209
Q

When microRNA (miRNA) are methylated their messenger RNA (mRNA) targets are over-expressed, the resulting effect on existing cancer would be:

A

Metastasis

210
Q

Hypomethylation and the resulting effect on oncogenes result in a(an):

A

Increase in tumor progression from benign to malignant

211
Q

What are tumor cell markers?

A

Hormones, enzymes, antigens, and antibodies that are produced by cancer cells

212
Q

The function of the tumor cell marker is to:

A

Screen individuals at high risk for cancer.

213
Q

Which statement supports the hypothesis that intestinal polyps are benign neoplasms and the first stage in the development of colon cancer?

A

An accumulation of mutations in specific genes is required for the development of cancer.

214
Q

What are characteristics of benign tumors?

A

Benign tumors include the suffix -oma.

215
Q

Which terms represent the correct nomenclature for benign and malignant tumors of adipose tissue, respectively?

A

Lipoma, liposarcoma

216
Q

Which statement concerning benign tumors is true?

A

The cells are well-differentiated.

217
Q

Carcinoma in situ is characterized by which changes?

A

Cells remain localized in the glandular or squamous cells.

218
Q

It has been determined that a tumor is in stage 2. What is the meaning of this finding?

A

Cancer is locally invasive.

219
Q

Which statement is true regarding pain and cancer?

A

Pain is generally associated with late-stage cancer

220
Q

The survival rate for stage IV Hodgkin disease can be as high as:

A

70%

221
Q

What is the role of caretaker genes?

A

Maintenance of genomic integrity

222
Q

In a normal, nonmutant state, an oncogene is referred to as a:

A

Proto-oncogene

223
Q

Which environmental factors have been shown to have greatest significant effect on the frequency of genetic mutations in humans? (3)

A

Tobacco, radiation exposure, and obesity

224
Q

Research has shown a link between cancer and which sexually transmitted disease?

A

HPV

225
Q

Research supports the premise that exercise has a probable impact on reducing the risk of which cancer?

A

Colon

226
Q

Which cancers pose the highest risk for radiologists?

A

Leukemia

227
Q

Which substance has been shown to increase the risk of cancer when used in combination with tobacco smoking?

A

Alcohol

228
Q

Research has supported that alcohol consumption has a convincing impact on increasing the risk of which cancer?

A

Pharynx

229
Q

What congenital malformation is commonly linked to acute leukemia in children?

A

Down Syndrome

230
Q

Which form of cancer is linked to congenital malformation syndromes?

A

Wilms tumor

231
Q

Currently, what percentage of children with cancer can be cured?

A

80%

232
Q

Which intervention has the greatest affect on a child’s mortality rate when diagnosed with cancer?

A

Participation in clinical trials.

Advanced Patho/Phys. (4 decks)

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