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Patho D New questions Flashcards

1
Q

TRUE for myxoedema in piglets and lambs

a. The mothers have goitre
b. Selenium deficiency is the cause
c. Goitre is developing in newborns
d. Sporadic occurrence within the flock

A

c. Goitre is developing in newborns

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2
Q

Which vitamin deficiency could cause neural lesions?

a. D
b. A
c. C
d. B6 deficiency but adequate B5 supply

A

d. B6 deficiency but adequate B5 supply

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3
Q

What is encephalomalacia?

a. Haemorrhage in the brain
b. Necrosis in the brain
c. Inflammation in the brain
d. Swelling of the brain

A

b. Necrosis in the brain

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4
Q

The virus of foot and mouth disease does not infect this species

a. Goat
b. Cattle
c. Horse
d. Pig

A

c. Horse

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5
Q

Which statement is TRUE for the lesions caused by Fusobacterium necrophorium?

a. In the case of ear, tail chewing it usually produces metastasis in the liver
b. In the case of rumen acidosis it can cause metastatic lesions in the liver
c. It can only infect the lung via haematogenous route
d. Metritis caused by the bacteria tends to heal

A

b. In the case of rumen acidosis it can cause metastatic lesions in the liver

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6
Q

What kind of abnormal incisor wearing can appear in the case of prognathia inferior?

a. Saw mouth
b. Exsuperantia dentis
c. Shear mouth
d. Dorsal curvature / frown

A

d. Dorsal curvature / frown

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7
Q

What is TRUE for swine typhus / typhoid?

a. It is a localised disease of the large intestine
b. Lesions can only be found in the spleen
c. Pigs show severe acute symptoms of septicaemia and die quickly
d. Lesions spread through episodes of bacteraemia

A

d. Lesions spread through episodes of bacteraemia

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8
Q

What is TRUE for the actinobacillosis?

a. It is caused by an obligate pathogen
b. The pathogens are inhaled to the deepest airways
c. Actinobacillus lignieresi is causing septicaemia
d. The pathogen needs a portal of entry in the oral mucosa

A

d. The pathogen needs a portal of entry in the oral mucosa

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9
Q

What is TRUE for the Salmonella enterocolitis?

a. It is a subclinical infection
b. The lymph nodes are not affected
c. The lesions are mostly fibrinonecrotic and ulcerative
d. In affected animals lesions are only seen in the ileum and colon

A

c. The lesions are mostly fibrinonecrotic and ulcerative

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10
Q

Which layer of the stomach ruptures first?

a. Serous membrane
b. Muscle layer
c. Mucous membrane
d. Supplying blood vessles

A

b. Muscle layer

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11
Q

What causes the death of the animal after dilation of the forestomachs?

a. Rupture of the forestomachs
b. Suffocation
c. Shock
d. Obstruction of the orifices of the forestomachs

A

b. Suffocation

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12
Q

How long does it take for the cell-poor granulation tissue to develop?

a. 1 week
b. 2 weeks (10-14 days)
c. Minimum 3 weeks
d. 4 weeks

A

b. 2 weeks (10-14 days)

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13
Q

What is the “Bradzot”?

a. Acute catarrhal gastritis
b. Stomach ulceration of pigs
c. Abnormal content of the forestomachs
d. Malignant oedema of the abomasum

A

d. Malignant oedema of the abomasum

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14
Q

In which area of the stomach the ulcers frequently occur in dogs?

a. Pars oesophagea
b. Cardia
c. Fundus
d. Pylorus

A

d. Pylorus

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15
Q

Which can lead to meaty (non-congested) spleen?

a. Anthrax
b. Amyloidosis
c. Spleen oedema
d. None of them

A

d. None of them

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16
Q

Which kind of lymphoid hyperplasia goes with the proliferation of T-cells?

a. Follicular
b. Parafollicular
c. Sinus histiocytosis
d. Suprefollicular

A

b. Parafollicular

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17
Q

What kind of disease form is caused by Erysipelothrix rusiopathiae in pigs?

a. Acute septicaemic erysipelas
b. Diamond skin disease
c. Chronic erysipelas
d. All of them

A

d. All of them

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18
Q

What is the actual cause of oedema formation in oedema disease?

a. Stx2e toxaemia
b. Septicaemia caused by invasive E. coli strains
c. Protein losing enteropathy
d. All answers are correct

A

a. Stx2e toxaemia

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19
Q

Why are newborn piglets sensitive for Clostridium perfringens C infection?

a. The beta toxin is sensitive for tripsin
b. Newborn animals produce small amounts or tripsin
c. There are tripsin inhibitors in the colostrum
d. All answers are correct

A

d. All answers are correct

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20
Q

Subaortic stenosis can lead to this

a. Concentric left ventricular hypertrophy
b. Excentric left ventricular hypertrophy
c. Concentric right ventricular hypertrophy
d. Excentric right ventricular hypertrophy

A

a. Concentric left ventricular hypertrophy

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21
Q

Which statement is true for Aleutian disease of minks?

a. Caused by picornavirus
b. The causative agent infects humans as well
c. Caused by arbovirus
d. The virus infects minks, weasels, and ferrets

A

d. The virus infects minks, weasels, and ferrets

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22
Q

TRUE for dysautonomia

a. Disorder of the vegetative nerve system
b. Always comes with glia cell proliferation
c. Not important in rabbits
d. Unknown in horses

A

a. Disorder of the vegetative nerve system

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23
Q

What is TRUE for Listeria monocytogenes infection of ruminants?

a. It causes thromboembolic meningoencephalitis
b. Is causes severe endocarditis thromboulcerosa
c. It reaches the brain via the N. trigeminus
d. All answers are correct

A

c. It reaches the brain via the N. trigeminus

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24
Q

In which organ system are autonomous nerve originated tumours well known in dogs?

a. Digestive
b. Respiratory
c. Urogenital
d. Skeletal

A

a. Digestive

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25
Q

Hematogenous nephritis is…

a. Ascending type
b. Descending type
c. Same as urinogenic
d. Always glomerulonephritis

A

b. Descending type

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26
Q

What kind of pigment is stored in the tubular epithelial cells after the Monday morning disease?

a. Haemoglobin
b. Myoglobin
c. Hemosiderin
d. Bilirubin

A

b. Myoglobin

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27
Q

Which condition leads to “rubber jaw”?

a. Bacterial infection
b. Enteritis
c. Renal failure
d. Heart failure

A

c. Renal failure

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28
Q

How does necrotizing enteritis of piglets look like during necropsy?

a. The intestinal lesions start with a sharp margin
b. The mucosal surface is yellowish
c. The lesions are visible from the serosal surface
d. All the answers are correct

A

d. All the answers are correct

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29
Q

What is the causative agent of lamb dysentery?

a. Clostridium perfringens A
b. Clostridium perfringens B
c. Clostridium perfringens C
d. Clostridium perfringens D

A

b. Clostridium perfringens B

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30
Q

What is the causative agent of swine dysentery?

a. Brachyspira pilosicoli
b. Brachyspira hyodisenteriae
c. Brachyspira innocens
d. Brachyspira suanatina

A

b. Brachyspira hyodisenteriae

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31
Q

Which following disease can cause lesions in the large intestines of pigs?

a. Swine dysentery
b. Salmonella typhimurium infection
c. Classical swine fever
d. All answers are correct

A

d. All answers are correct

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32
Q

What is true for the Salmonella enterocolitis?

a. The lesions are seen mostly in the duodenum and the jejunum
b. It is characterised by villus clubbing, villus fusion and epithelial denudation
c. It is the result of umbilical infection
d. The mesenteric lymph nodes are enlarged

A

d. The mesenteric lymph nodes are enlarged

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33
Q

What leads to fatty liver syndrome in cattle?

a. Positive energy balance of the feed
b. Vitamin A deficiency
c. Lack of carbohydrates
d. Pregnancy

A

d. Pregnancy

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34
Q

Which layer of the stomach ruptures last?

a. Serous membrane
b. Muscle layer
c. Mucous membrane
d. Supplying blood vessels

A

d. Supplying blood vessels

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35
Q

Which one is a primary lesion in teratology of Fallot?

a. Pulmonary stenosis
b. Aortic stenosis
c. Right ventricular hypertrophy
d. Left ventricular hypertrophy

A

a. Pulmonary stenosis

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36
Q

How do you recognize catarrhal bronchopneumonia during necropsy?

a. Cranioventral location, greyish red colour, liver-like texture, mucopurulent content on the cut surface
b. Cranioventral location, greyish red colour, liver-like texture, dry cut surface
c. Dorsal areas affected
d. All answers are correct

A

a. Cranioventral location, greyish red colour, liver-like texture, mucopurulent content on the cut surface

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37
Q

Which kind of pleuritis can be caused by traumatic reticuloperitonitis?

a. Serous
b. Purulent
c. Haemorrhagic
d. Ichorous

A

d. Ichorous

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38
Q

Which statement is TRUE for Streptococcus infection of piglets?

a. Caused by obligate pathogens
b. Mainly caused by Streptococcus suis
c. Mainly caused by Streptococcus equi ssp. zooepidermicus
d. Mostly affects older animals

A

b. Mainly caused by Streptococcus suis

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39
Q

What can lead to splenomegaly?

a. Passive congestion
b. Leukaemia
c. Inflammation
d. All of them

A

d. All of them

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40
Q

Which can cause purulent lymphadenitis?

a. Streptococcus equi
b. Fusobacterium necrophorum
c. Toxoplasma gondii
d. Bacillus anthracis

A

a. Streptococcus equi

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41
Q

Which statement is true for haemotropic mycoplasma?

a. They live in red blood cells
b. They are only relevant in pigs
c. They can cause icterus
d. Mycoplasma cati occur in cats

A

c. They can cause icterus

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42
Q

What is true for the necrotising enteritis of piglets?

a. The lesions are found in the large intestines
b. It is caused by Clostridium perfringens B

c. The animals lose weight slowly and fail to thrive
Is affects 1-2 weeks old piglets

d. Is affects 1-2 weeks old piglets

A

d. It affects 1-2 weeks old piglets

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43
Q

What is the outcome of Suid herpesvirus 1 infection in dogs?

a. Inapparent infection
b. Dogs are not susceptible
c. Kennel cough
d. Central nervous symptoms and death

A

d. Central nervous symptoms and death

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44
Q

What is true for rabies?
a. The viremia is developing after a very long incubation time

b. It spreads via the peripheral nerves
c. It causes severe purulent leukoencephalitis
d. All answers are correct

A

b. It spreads via the peripheral nerves

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45
Q

How do we call the abnormal facial fissures with only soft tissue involvement?

a. Chelioschisis
b. Cheliognathoschisis
c. Crachygnathia
d. Prognathia

A

a. Chelioschisis

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46
Q

In general, the absence of counterpressure on the teeth leads to this

a. Saw mouth
b. Exsuperantia dentis
c. Shear mouth
d. Dorsalis curvature / frown

A

b. Exsuperantia dentis

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47
Q

What is the cause of nutritional muscle dystrophy?

a. Lack of selenium
b. Lack of vitamin E
c. Lack of methionine and cysteine
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

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48
Q

Where does osteodystrophia fibrosa frequently occur?

a. In the long bones
b. In the vertebrae
c. In the facial bones
d. Anywhere in the skeletal system

A

c. In the facial bones

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49
Q

Which pathogen can cause rarefier and ossifying osteitis?

a. Tuberculosis
b. Actinomycosis
c. Glanders
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

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50
Q

What can acute necrotic myocarditis?

a. Parvovirus
b. Toxocara larvae
c. Fusibacterium necrophorum
d. Clostridium chauvoei

A

c. Fusibacterium necrophorum

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51
Q

What is bronchiectasia?

a. Lack of air in the bronchi
b. Pathologic widening of the bronchial lumen
c. Inflammation of the bronchial wall
d. Inflammation of the bronchial wall due to tuberculosis

A

b. Pathologic widening of the bronchial lumen

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52
Q

The bile-duct coccidiosis

a. Is a disease of hare
b. Results in chronic purulent cholangitis
c. Causes atrophy of the bile-duct epithel cells
d. Induces liver carcinoma

A

a. Is a disease of hare

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53
Q

What is typical for necrobiotic / macrovascular fatty infiltration in the liver?

a. Accumulation of fat droplets and nuclear changes
b. Reduction of glycogen and degeneration
c. Activation of the MPS system
d. Fatty degeneration without nuclear changes

A

a. Accumulation of fat droplets and nuclear changes

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54
Q

Which statement it true for stachybotryotoxicosis?

a. The toxins induce epithelial proliferation
b. The local effect of the toxins is necrosis
c. Only the number of the leucocytes and thrombocytes decreases
d. The liver is never affected

A

b. The local effect of the toxins is necrosis

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55
Q

What kind of structures will become erosions in foot and mouth disease?

a. Papula
b. Erythema
c. Macula
d. Vesicle

A

d. Vesicle

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56
Q

How do you recognise alveolar emphysema during necropsy?

a. The affected area is shrunken
b. The affected area is paler
c. The affected area does not crepitate upon incision
d. All answers are correct

A

b. The affected area is paler

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57
Q

Where are the primary lesions in the case of porcine proliferative enteropathy (PPE)?

a. In the caecum
b. In the duodenum
c. In the rectum
d. In the ileum

A

d. In the ileum

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58
Q

What kind of pigment is stored in the tubular epithelial cells in case of Wesselbron disease?

a. Haemoglobin
b. Myoglobin
c. Hemosiderin
d. Bilirubin

A

d. Bilirubin

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59
Q

What does a porcine circovirus-2 (PCV-2) infection cause in the kidneys?

a. Exudative glomerulonephritis
b. Proliferative glomerulonephritis
c. Interstitial nephritis
d. Suppurative nephritis

A

c. Interstitial nephritis

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60
Q

In which case can the tubular epithelial cells regenerate?

a. If the basement membrane is intact
b. Is there are enough cells for replacement
c. Is the cause is removed
d. All three is needed

A

d. All three is needed

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61
Q

What is the primary cell type in the meningeal inflammation in Glässer’s disease?

a. Eosinophil granulocyte
b. Lymphocyte
c. Neutrophil granulocyte
d. Macrophage

A

a. Eosinophil granulocyte

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62
Q

What is the causative agent of Aujeszky disease?

a. Suid herpesvirus 1
b. Porcine reproductive and respiratory virus
c. Atypical pestivirus
d. Porcine teschovirus

A

a. Suid herpesvirus 1

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63
Q

What is the causative agent of canine distemper?

a. Morbillivirus
b. Lyssavirus
c. Adenovirus
d. Herpesvirus

A

a. Morbillivirus

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64
Q

Which one is a form of glomerulonephrosis?

a. Glomerulus amyloidosis
b. Glomerulus lipidosis
c. Glomerulosclerosis
d. All three of them

A

d. All three of them

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65
Q

What leads to constitutional acquired myopathies in swine?

a. Endogenous intra- and extramuscular factors
b. Exogenous factors (overcrowding, nutritional problems)
c. Stress
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

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66
Q

In which area of the stomach the ulcers frequently occur in pigs?

a. Pars oesophagica
b. Cardia
c. Fundus
d. Pylorus

A

a. Pars oesophagica

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67
Q

What is the consequence of vitamin A deficiency in the forestomachs?

a. Inflammation
b. Foamy bloat
c. Hyper-and parakeratosis
d. Atony

A

c. Hyper-and parakeratosis

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68
Q

What other lesions can be seen in case of hepatosis dietetica in pigs?

a. Encephalomalatia
b. Meningitis
c. Ascites
d. Bronchopneumonia

A

c. Ascites

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69
Q

How does osteitis develop?

a. From the blood vessels of the compact bone
b. Either from the periosteum or from the bone marrow
c. Through a trauma to the bone
d. None of the above

A

b. Either from the periosteum or from the bone marrow

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70
Q

What can be seen in case of chondrodystrophia fetalis?

a. Extreme longitudinal growth of bones
b. Hindered longitudinal growth of the bones
c. Abnormal cartilage production
d. Abnormal ossification of the bones

A

b. Hindered longitudinal growth of the bones

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71
Q

What is the consequences of Ca-oxalate poisoning?

a. Tubulonephrosis
b. Hypocalcaemia
c. Mechanical trauma of the tubular epithelial cells
d. All three can occur

A

d. All three can occur

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72
Q

What is the relevance of the developmental anomalies of teeth?

a. Never cause severe consequences
b. The number of teeth is always fixed
c. If severe enough it can prevent the animal to eat
d. We can always solve it with extraction

A

c. If severe enough it can prevent the animal to eat

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73
Q

Which statement is true for stachyobotryotoxicosis?

a. In horses, necrotic dermatitis typically occurs on the lips and nares
b. There is no time for the development of secondary infections
c. There is no mitostatic effect in horses
d. Only the neutrophil count decreases in horses

A

a. In horses, necrotic dermatitis typically occurs on the lips and nares

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74
Q

What is true for paratuberculosis?

a. It is caused by Mycobacterium bovis
b. It is an acute disease leading to sudden death
c. It is causing respiratory problems due to tubercle formation in the lungs
d. The disease has a long latency period after infection

A

d. The disease has a long latency period after infection

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75
Q

What is TRUE for swine typhus / typhoid?

a. It is an acute infection with severe clinical signs
b. It is present worldwide
c. The pathogen needs predisposing factors for the development of the disease
d. Necrotic lesions are seen in the parenchymatous organs

A

d. Necrotic lesions are seen in the parenchymatous organs

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76
Q

Had been described as a cause of adrenal failure

a. Severe, lasting infectious disease
b. Mild respiratory disease
c. Long starvation
d. Feeding plants belonging to the Brassicales order

A

a. Severe, lasting infectious disease

77
Q

Which statement is true for pneumothorax?

a. Always caused by trauma
b. The lung expands because of it
c. Leads to the compression of the blood vessels and heart
d. Always leads to death

A

c. Leads to the compression of the blood vessels and heart

78
Q

What kind of pleuritis is caused by Trueperella pyogenes?

a. Serous
b. Serous-fibrinous
c. Purulent
d. Ichorous

A

c. Purulent

79
Q

Which species is the source of infection of malignant catarrhal fever of the cattle?

a. Sheep
b. Dog
c. Pig
d. Mouse

A

a. Sheep

80
Q

Which species is usually affected by encephalomyocarditis virus (EMCV)?

a. Dog
b. Cat
c. Swine
d. Cattle

A

c. Swine

81
Q

What is mucosal disease?

a. A mild form of BVD infection
b. Actinobacillosis
c. Lethal infection caused by BVD infection
d. Erosions in the oral mucous membrane caused by stachybotrytoxin exposure

A

c. Lethal infection caused by BVD infection

82
Q

Which of the following is true?

a. The causative agent of swine dysentery cannot ne demonstrated by histopathological techniques
b. Dysentery stands for a diffuse subacute catarrhal colitis
c. In case of swine dysentery mucosal necrosis can be observed
d. In case of swine dysentery in the wall of the intestine granuloma can be observed

A

c. In case of swine dysentery mucosal necrosis can be observed

83
Q

In which species does the stomach torsion occur frequently?

a. Cattle
b. Dog
c. Horse
d. Rabbit

A

b. Dog

84
Q

What can cause eosinophil granulocytic myocarditis?

a. Parvovirus
b. Toxocara larvae
c. Fusibacterium necrophorum
d. Clostridium chauvoei

A

b. Toxocara larvae

85
Q

What is true for interstitial pneumonia?

a. It always affects the cranioventral lobes
b. It always affects the caudoventral lobes
c. The affected area has a liver-like texture
d. It can be caused by viral infections

A

d. It can be caused by viral infections

86
Q

What is the difference between the lesions seen in Salmonella enterocolitis and swine dysentery?

a. The involvement of the mesenterical lymph nodes
b. The site of the primary lesion
c. Necrotic inflammation of the affected intestine
d. Signs of diarrhoea

A

a. The involvement of the mesenterical lymph nodes

87
Q

Which is the most sensitive species to stachybotryotoxicosis?

a. Chicken
b. Pig
c. Dog
d. Horse

A

d. Horse

88
Q

What is TRUE for the lesions of the head in foot and mouth disease?

a. There are always some lesions around the ear
b. The conjunctiva is usually intact
c. Lesions are rare on the tongue
d. The oesophagus and nasal mucosa can be affected as well

A

d. The oesophagus and nasal mucosa can be affected as well

89
Q

Which statement is TRUE for stachybotryotoxicosis?

a. In sheep, the only symptom is the loss of wool
b. In sheep, there is no bleeding tendency
c. In pigs, the snout and teats are the predilection sites for necrosis
d. The kidney is not affected at all

A

c. In pigs, the snout and teats are the predilection sites for necrosis

90
Q

Which type in a bronchopneumonia?

a. Embolic-metastasis
b. Interstitial
c. Granulomatous
d. Krupous

A

d. Krupous

91
Q

How can African and Classical swine fever be differentiated during necropsy?

a. By the localisation if the lesions
b. By the extent of the bleedings
c. By the involvement of the intestine
d. They cannot be differentiated by necropsy

A

d. They cannot be differentiated by necropsy

92
Q

How does necrotising enteritis of piglets look like during necropsy?

a. Lesions are seen in the colon
b. There is severe hepatitis
c. The intestinal mucosa is almost black
d. Necrotic lesions are seen in the small intestine

A

d. Necrotic lesions are seen in the small intestine

93
Q

Which statement is TRUE for FIP?

a. The mutant virus uses lymphocytes to spread
b. The dry form goes with perivascular pyogranuloma formation
c. The wet form can only lead to ascites
d. Only cellular immunity had a role in the disease

A

b. The dry form goes with perivascular pyogranuloma formation

94
Q

What is the basic histopathological lesion in the case of actinobacillosis?

a. Tophus
b. Pyogranuloma
c. Tuberculum
d. Foreign body type granuloma

A

b. Pyogranuloma

95
Q

What kind of virus can cause enamel hypoplasia in dogs?

a. Canine distemper virus
b. Canine parvovirus
c. Canine herpesvirus
d. Canine retrovirus

A

a. Canine distemper virus

96
Q

What is the common consequence of the deep inflammation in the forestomach?

a. Circumscribed peritonitis
b. Reticulitis
c. Septicaemia
d. Liver abscessation

A

d. Liver abscessation

97
Q

What is TRUE for BVD?

a. It only infects cattle
b. Every virus strain is equally virulent
c. It can cause transplacental infection
d. The virus belongs to the Picornaviridae family

A

c. It can cause transplacental infection

98
Q

What is the primary site for stomach rupture?

a. At the cardia
b. Along the small curvature
c. Along the large curvature
d. At the pylorus

A

c. Along the large curvature

99
Q

What exactly is the rickets?

a. The reconstruction of bones
b. The disturbance of mineralisation
c. Result of hyperparathyroidism
d. The disturbance of bone tissue destruction

A

b. The disturbance of mineralisation

100
Q

What does “pseudohypertrophia lipomatosa musculorum” mean?

a. Enlargement of the muscle due to fat accumulation
b. Enlargement of the muscle due to increased workload in obese animals
c. Decreased size of the muscle in obese animals
d. Accommodation of the muscle due to increased pressure

A

a. Enlargement of the muscle due to fat accumulation

101
Q

Osteodystrophia fibrosa results in

a. Dyspnoe
b. Scoliosis
c. Rickets
d. Renal failure

A

d. Renal failure

102
Q

In which bones do we check for rickets in mammals?

a. Distal epiphysis of the tibia
b. Proximal epiphysis of the tibia
c. Distal epiphysis of the femur
d. Proximal epiphysis of the femur

A

c. Distal epiphysis of the femur

103
Q

Which of the following microbes is involved in the atrophic rhinitis of pigs?

a. Pasteurella dagmatis
b. Bordetella bronchiseptica
c. Porcine cytomegalovirus
d. Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae

A

b. Bordetella bronchiseptica

104
Q

How do you recognise atelectasis during necropsy?

a. The affected area is swollen
b. The affected area is paler
c. The affected area does not crepitate upon incision
d. All answers are correct

A

c. The affected area does not crepitate upon incision

105
Q

What can lead to splenomegaly?

a. Haemolysis
b. Intrapulpar diffuse haemorrhages
c. Amyloidosis
d. All of them

A

d. All of them

106
Q

What can cause exogenous haemolytic anaemia in dogs?

a. Malaria
b. Plasmodiidosis
c. Mycoplasma suis
d. Babesia species

A

d. Babesia species

107
Q

What is true for metastatic-embolic pneumonia?

a. The pathogen is distributed via the circulation
b. Multiple nodules are seen in the lungs
c. The nodules are distributed randomly in the lungs
d. All answers are correct

A

d. All answers are correct

108
Q

What kind of peritonitis can lead to autointoxication?

a. Acute circumscribed
b. Chronic circumscribed
c. Acute diffuse
d. Chronic diffuse

A

c. Acute diffuse

109
Q

What can be the consequence of pleuritis?

a. Lung atelectasis
b. Circulatory disturbance
c. Autointoxication
d. All of them

A

d. All of them

110
Q

Which one is true for gestational BVD infection?

a. It is very rare
b. Cytopathic strains can cause innumotolerance in they infect 180 days after fertilisation
c. The pregnant cow is always asymptomatic
d. Non-cytopathic strains can hurt the embryo as well

A

d. Non-cytopathic strains can hurt the embryo as well

111
Q

Which can cause fibrinous pericarditis in cattle?

a. Sporadic bovine encephalomyelitis
b. Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae infection
c. Coxiella burnetii infection
d. Bordetella bronchiseptica infection

A

a. Sporadic bovine encephalomyelitis

112
Q

Exclusively side-to-side movement of the jaw can lead to this

a. Saw mouth
b. Exsuperantia dentis
c. Shear mouth
d. Dorsalis curvature / frown

A

a. Saw mouth

113
Q

Which statement is true for Actinobacillus lignieresi?

a. It only infects pigs
b. Changing of teeth predisposes to disease caused by it
c. It is not part of the normal oral flora
d. It can penetrate to the deep tissues across intact mucous membrane

A

b. Changing of teeth predisposes to disease caused by it

114
Q

What is roseola?

a. Tiny pseudomembrane
b. Epithelial proliferation
c. Red area / spot
d. Sediment around the tongue

A

c. Red area / spot

115
Q

Which statement is true for the lesions caused by Actinobacillus lignieresi?

a. It usually affects the soft tissues
b. The macrophages are the only dominant cell types in the nodules caused by it
c. The actinobacilloma is a tumour originating from the lesions
d. The most severe connective tissue proliferation occurs during the abscess formation

A

a. It usually affects the soft tissues

116
Q

The hare lip is physiological in this breed

a. German shepherd
b. Afghan greyhound
c. English bulldog
d. Rottweiler

A

c. English bulldog

117
Q

Hemangiosarcoma can lead to this kind of lesion

a. Hydropericardium
b. Hemopericardium
c. Aortic rupture
d. Pyopericardium

A

b. Hemopericardium

118
Q

What is the consequence of the ischemic infarct in the kidney?

a. Necrobiosis and regeneration
b. Necrosis and organisation
c. Fatty infiltration
d. Histiocyte proliferation

A

b. Necrosis and organisation

119
Q

Which disease can be accompanied by osteodystrophia fibrosa?

a. Chronic lung disease
b. Chronic renal insufficiency
c. Chronic enteritis
d. Hepatic tumour

A

b. Chronic renal insufficiency

120
Q

Which enteric disease causes mesenteric lymph node enlargement in pigs

a. ETEC infection
b. Salmonella Typhimurium enterocolitis
c. Lawsonia intracellulare enteropathy
d. Brachyspira hyodysenteriae infection

A

b. Salmonella Typhimurium enterocolitis

121
Q

Which statement is TRUE for developmental anomalies caused by BVD?

a. Cerebral hypoplasia is quite common
b. Congenital hydrocephalus doesn’t cause skull enlargement
c. Ankylosis can appear
d. The bones of the skull are never affected

A

c. Ankylosis can appear

122
Q

True for thyreoid colloide

a. Haematoxylin stains it
b. Found between follicules
c. Eosin stains it vividly
d. The amount does not change with age

A

c. Eosin stains it vividly

123
Q

True for myxomatosis

a. Only insect vectors can spread it
b. Parapoxvirus is the cause
c. Ortopoxvirus is the cause
d. Myxomas are most commonly seen on the ears and eyelids

A

d. Myxomas are most commonly seen on the ears and eyelids

124
Q

What is true for toxoplasmosis?

a. Cats are the final host
b. Pregnant women are at high risk
c. It can cause nonsuppurative meningoencephalitis
d. All answers are correct

A

d. All answers are correct

125
Q

Which statement is true for Bacillus anthracis?

a. Doesn’t infect humans
b. Gram negative
c. Spore forming
d. Coccus

A

c. Spore forming

126
Q

Which statement is true for swine erysipelas?

a. There is urticaria in diamond skin disease
b. In diamond skin disease, the spleen is enlarged
c. These are no skin lesions in chronic forms
d. In chronic form, endocardiosis is a frequent lesion

A

a. There is urticaria in diamond skin disease

127
Q

Which condition leads to the “rubber jaw”?

a. Osteomalatia
b. Osteoporosis
c. Fibrous osteodystrophy
d. Rickets

A

c. Fibrous osteodystrophy

128
Q

True for swine parakeratosis dietetica

a. Only the skin can have lesions
b. Zinc deficiency is the cause
c. The dermal glands function normally
d. Starts on the head

A

b. Zinc deficiency is the cause

129
Q

True for blossoming of the pox

a. Only on the abdomen
b. The lesions starts to develop in the epithelium
c. It always happen before the infection of internal organs
d. A consequence of secondary viraemia

A

d. A consequence of secondary viraemia

130
Q

Goitre is

a. Only seen in mammals
b. Always comes with secretory disorder
c. Can be of inflammatory origin
d. A broad, collective term

A

d. A broad, collective term

131
Q

What are the main characteristics of the Salmonella Cholerasuis septicaemia?

a. Is affects newborn piglets only
b. The clinical signs are mild
c. High fever is typical
d. It causes rectal stricture due to chronic proctitis

A

c. High fever is typical

132
Q

What type of exudative inflammation does NOT develop in the forestomachs?

a. Serous
b. Catarrhal
c. Purulent
d. Haemorrhagic

A

b. Catarrhal

133
Q

What kind of pigment is stored in the tubular epithelial cells in case of the Cloisonné disease in goat?

a. Haemoglobin
b. Myoglobin
c. Hemosiderin
d. Bilirubin

A

c. Hemosiderin

134
Q

Where can we find the patent ductus arteriosus?

a. Between the aorta and vena cava
b. Between the vena cava and vena portae
c. Between the pulmonary artery and aorta
d. Between the pulmonary artery and vena cava

A

c. Between the pulmonary artery and aorta

135
Q

What is bone usuration?

a. A regressive change
b. A proliferative change
c. An inflammatory change
d. A bone tumour

A

a. A regressive change

136
Q

What kind of abnormal wearing can appear, if the animal doesn’t chew on one side?

a. Saw mouth
b. Exuperantia dentis
c. Shear mouth
d. Dorsal curvature / frown

A

c. Shear mouth

137
Q

Which process can lead to haemorrhages on the epicardium?

a. Septicaemia
b. Suffocation
c. Toxicosis
d. All of them

A

d. All of them

138
Q

What can be the cause of pulmonary atelectasis?

a. Obstructive bronchiolitis
b. Circumscribed pleuritis
c. Purulent rhinitis
d. All answers are correct

A

a. Obstructive bronchiolitis

139
Q

What is true for bovine papular stomatitis?

a. Zoonosis
b. Causes serious symptoms
c. Usually affects older animals
d. Caused by pestivirus

A

a. Zoonosis

140
Q

Osteomalatia, osteoporosis and osteodystrophia fibrosa are

a. Inflammatory changes of the boned
b. Diseases of young animals
c. Osteopathies
d. None of the above

A

c. Osteopathies

141
Q

What are the predilection sites for vesicular dermatitis in foot and mouth disease?

a. Coronary bands and teats
b. Tail and back
c. Stomach and neck
d. Ears

A

a. Coronary bands and teats

142
Q

Which statement is true for myocarditis?

a. Always visible macroscopically
b. Infectious causes are rare
c. Causes pale areas in the heart
d. Always leads to serious consequences

A

c. Causes pale areas in the heart

143
Q

In case of peracute hepatosis dietetica in pigs the liver…

a. Smaller and firmer
b. Enlarged and mottled
c. Shows cirrhosis
d. Yellow and fragile

A

b. Enlarged and mottled

144
Q

Which kind of lymphoid hyperplasia goes with the proliferation of B cells?

a. Follicular
b. Parafollicular
c. Sinus histiocytosis
d. Suprafollicular

A

a. Follicular

145
Q

How is African swine fever spreading through Europe right now?

a. By infected soft ticks
b. By contaminated food and infected wild boars
c. By infected semen transport
d. By infected mosquitoes

A

b. By contaminated food and infected wild boars

146
Q

In case of canine distemper the inclusion bodies are

a. Basophilic
b. Eosinophilic
c. Heterophilic
d. Metachromatic

A

b. Eosinophilic

147
Q

Which vascular anomaly ligates the oesophagus?

a. Dextroposition of the aortic arch
b. Sinistroposition of the aortic arch
c. Dorsoposition of the aortic arch
d. Ventroposition of the aortic arch

A

a. Dextroposition of the aortic arch

148
Q

What does fumonsin B1 toxicosis cause in pigs?

a. Purulent hepatitis
b. Lung oedema
c. Leucoencephalomelatia
d. All answers are correct

A

b. Lung oedema

149
Q

Which statement is true for stachybotryotoxicosis?

a. The Staphylococcus aureus septicaemia is a frequent complication in horses
b. In cattle, the haemorrhagic nature is well-marked
c. In horses, the hair coat frequently falls out
d. The pig is resistant to the toxin

A

b. In cattle, the haemorrhagic nature is well-marked

150
Q

Which statement is true for acute septicaemia caused by Bacillus anthracis in…

a. Causes acute hyperaemic splenitis
b. Causes chronic hyperaemic splenitis
c. Causes acute hyperplastic splenitis
d. Causes chronic hyperplastic splenitis

A

a. Causes acute hyperaemic splenitis

151
Q

What can be the cause of pulmonary atelectasis?

a. Obstructive bronchiolitis
b. Pneumothorax
c. Hydrothorax
d. All answers are correct

A

d. All answers are correct

152
Q

How does the liver look in case of fatty liver syndrome in cattle?

a. Enlarged, yellow, and fibrotic
b. Enlarged, yellow, and fragile
c. Smaller, yellow, and fibrotic
d. Smaller, yellow, and fragile

A

b. Enlarged, yellow, and fragile

153
Q

What is the Latin name for the inflammation of the rumen?

a. Ruminitis
b. Reticulitis
c. Omasitis
d. Abomasitis

A

a. Ruminitis

154
Q

Which statement is true for streptococcus infection of piglets?

a. The chronic septicaemic form goes with hyperplastic splenitis
b. Doesn’t cause lesions in the respiratory tract
c. Doesn’t cause lesions in the meninges
d. Mostly affects older animals

A

a. The chronic septicaemic form goes with hyperplastic splenitis

155
Q

Which is true for mucosal disease?

a. It appears when immunotolerant calves are superinfected by cytoplathic strains
b. The mortality is low
c. It causes catarrhal enteritis
d. It appears when immunotolerant calves are superinfected by non-cytopathic strains

A

a. It appears when immunotolerant calves are superinfected by cytopathic strains

156
Q

Which one is true for the primary infection of calves with BVD?

a. The classic sign is ataxia
b. The non-cytopathic strains cause immunosuppression as well
c. The cytopathic strains can only be related to gastrointestinal symptoms
d. Secondary infections are not relevant

A

b. The non-cytopathic strains cause immunosuppression as well

157
Q

What is a frequent predisposing factor in Clostridial enterotoxaemias?

a. Sudden change in the weather
b. Overeating
c. Viral pneumonias
d. Subsequent Salmonella infection

A

b. Overeating

158
Q

Characteristic lesions in the case of Classical swine fever

a. Bleedings in the intestinal mucosa
b. Haemorrhagic infiltration in the lymph nodes
c. Non suppurative encephalitis
d. All answers are correct

A

d. All answers are correct

159
Q

Which cells are responsible for remotion and raparation in the brain?

a. Neurons
b. Pyramidal cells
c. Purkinje cells
d. Glial cells

A

d. Glial cells

160
Q

What is the cause of spongiform encephalopathy?

a. Accumulation of abnormal proteins in the brain
b. Viruses infecting the brain by neuronal transport
c. Bacteria infecting the brain by neuronal transport
d. Oedema caused by SXT2e toxins

A

a. Accumulation of abnormal proteins in the brain

161
Q

What kind of developmental anomaly is seen in the central nervous system due to intrauterine BVDV infection?

a. Spina bifida
b. Cerebellar hypoplasia
c. Meningoencephalocele
d. Cholesterol granuloma formation

A

b. Cerebellar hypoplasia

162
Q

What kind of anomaly a supernumerary valve is?

a. Endocarditis
b. Endocardiosis
c. Valvular dysplasia
d. Valvular polyploidy

A

d. Valvular polyploidy

163
Q

What is true for myocardial necrosis caused by foot and mouth disease?

a. Only occurs in older animals
b. Is diffuse in calves
c. Only occurs in calves
d. Doesn’t affect the heart

A

b. Is diffuse in calves

164
Q

What is the actual cause of diarrhoea in neonatal ETEC infection of piglets?

a. Severe inflammation of the small intestine
b. Invagination of the intestine
c. Malfunction of the enterocytes
d. Torsion of the small intestine

A

c. Malfunction of the enterocytes

165
Q

FALSE procedure, if during the examination of a small ruminant you find circumscribed inflammatory lesions in the mouth

a. Only prescribe antibiotics for the animals
b. Report the finding to authorities (state vet office)
c. In case of mortality send samples to laboratory immediately
d. Before visiting the next farm disinfect equipment, hands, shoes, and clothes

A

a. Only prescribe antibiotics for the animals

166
Q

How do you recognise aspiration pneumonia during necropsy?

a. It can be smelly due to putrefactive bacteria
b. The lesion is affecting all the lobes equally
c. The affected area becomes paler
d. Multifocal nodules are found all over the lung tissue

A

a. It can be smelly due to putrefactive bacteria

167
Q

Why are newborn lambs sensitive for Clostridium perfringens B infection?

a. The beta toxin is sensitive for tripsin
b. Newborn animals produce small amounts of tripsin
c. The are tripsin inhibitors in the colostrum
d. All answers are correct

A

d. All answers are correct

168
Q

What is true for the pulpy kidney disease of sheep and goat?

a. The toxin absorbed from the intestine damages renal tubular epithelial cells
b. Hypomotility of the intestine causes clostridial overgrowth
c. The ε-toxin produced by the bacterium is activated by tripsin
d. All answers are correct

A

d. All answers are correct

169
Q

What is the causative agent of pulpy kidney disease?

a. Clostridium perfringens A
b. Clostridium perfringens B
c. Clostridium perfringens C
d. Clostridium perfringens D

A

d. Clostridium perfringens D

170
Q

How long does it take for the complete regeneration of the tubular epithelial cells?

a. 3 days
b. 7-14 days
c. 21-56 days
d. They cannot regenerate

A

c. 21-56 days

171
Q

What is characteristic for salt poisoning in pigs?

a. Eosinophilic perivasculitis in the brain
b. Oedema in the brain
c. Gastrointestinal inflammation
d. All answers are correct

A

d. All answers are correct

172
Q

Which pathogen induce hepatosis dietetica in pigs?

a. Infectious agents
b. Nutritional problems
c. Mycotoxins
d. Hereditary factors

A

b. Nutritional problems

173
Q

What are the Negri bodies?

a. Degenerating hepatocytes
b. Apoptotic lymphoid cells
c. Cytoplasmic inclusion bodies in the neuron during rabies
d. Degenerating neurons that are being phagocytosed by glial cells

A

c. Cytoplasmic inclusion bodies in the neuron during rabies

174
Q

What is the causative agent of necrotising enteritis of piglets?

a. Clostridium perfringens A
b. Clostridium perfringens B
c. Clostridium perfringens C
d. Clostridium perfringens D

A

c. Clostridium perfringens C

175
Q

Which is the etiological agent of swine dysentery?

a. Campylobacter jejuni
b. Salmonella typhisuis
c. Brachyspira hyodysenteriae
d. Clostridium perfringens D

A

c. Brachyspira hyodysenteriae

176
Q

Which lesion can be caused by hepatic cirrhosis?

a. Ascites
b. Pericarditis
c. Mesothelioma
d. Compression of the ductus thoracicus

A

a. Ascites

177
Q

What can be the consequence of the bronchiolitis?

a. Atelectasis
b. Emphysema
c. Pneumonia
d. All answers are correct

A

d. All answers are correct

178
Q

Which statement is true for leptospirosis?

a. Does not cause renal damage
b. Doesn’t affect humans
c. The pathogens are shedded in the faeces
d. Can cause abortion

A

d. Can cause abortion

179
Q

Which organs are damaged during a Clostridium perfringens D enterotoxaemia of sheep?

a. Heart
b. Kidney
c. Brain
d. All of them

A

d. All of them

180
Q

Which is TRUE for erosion?

a. Trauma is obligatory for it
b. There are always degenerative changes in the subcutis
c. It can’t develop from papula
d. Vesicles often precede it

A

d. Vesicles often precede it

181
Q

What can cause lympho-histiocytic myocarditis?

a. Parvovirus
b. Toxocara larvae
c. Fusibacterium necrophorum
d. Clostridium chauvoei

A

a. Parvovirus

182
Q

Which statement is true for the lesions caused by Fusobacterium necrophorum?

a. The bacteria can penetrate the intact skin and then cause lympho-haematogenous metastases
b. Causes necrotic lesions only in certain age groups
c. The causes are the bacterial toxins
d. In the case of omphalogenic infection, the site of metastasis is usually the lung

A

c. The causes are the bacterial toxins

183
Q

TRUE for swine erysipelas

a. Every case and every stage has dermal lesions
b. It has viral origin
c. In an acute case deep rhomboid ulcers form on the skin
d. In an acute case thin reddish brown squares can be seen on the skin

A

a. Every case and every stage has dermal lesions

184
Q

Which can lead to hyperaemic (congested) spleen?

a. Anthrax
b. Leukaemia
c. Spleen oedema
d. None of them

A

a. Anthrax

But if the alternative would be “all of them” that would be more correct?

185
Q

Which pneumonia type in a bronchopneumonia?

a. Purulent hepatitis
b. Catarrhal
c. Fibrinous
d. All answers are correct

A

b. Catarrhal

186
Q

What are the histological features in case of chronic interstitial nephritis?

a. Infiltration by neutrophil granulocytes
b. Infiltration by lymphocytes and plasma cells
c. Infiltration by Langerhans type giant cells
d. All these cell types are present

A

d. All these cell types are present

187
Q

NOT a common consequence of dermal ulcer

a. Endocarditis
b. Nephritis
c. Autointoxication
d. Bacteraemia

A

c. Autointoxication ???

188
Q

Which pneumonia type in a bronchopneumonia?

a. Embolic-metastasis
b. Catarrhal
c. Granulomatous
d. Interstitial

A

b. Catarrhal

189
Q

In which species can interstitial emphysema be observed more frequently?

a. Cattle
b. Dog
c. Cat
d. Horse

A

a. Cattle

Pathology (2 decks)

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