Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Pathology > path MCQ 2014 March recalls - formatted > Flashcards

path MCQ 2014 March recalls - formatted Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which of the following is included in the diagnosis of SLE?

a. erosive arthritis
b. muscle weakness
c. pericarditis
d. peripheral neuropathy
e. pulmonary hypertension

A

c. pericarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  1. Which is true regarding neuroblastoma:

a. males have a worse prognosis than females
b. most have normal levels of catecholamines
c. multiple deep blue cutaneous metastases can regress spontaneously
d. anterior mediastinum is a common site of origin
e. most common site of organ involvement is the adrenal cortex

A

multiple deep blue cutaneous metastases can regress spontaneously
90% abnormal catecholamine
adrenal medulla involved

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. Which of the following is more common in ulcerative colitis than Crohn’s disease?

a. colovesical fistula
b. fibrosing strictures
c. fissuring ulcers
d. toxic megacolon
e. vitamin B12 malabsorption

A

. toxic megacolon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. strongest association with forming cholesterol gallstones?

a. Ascaris lumbricoides
b. ileal bypass
c. sickle cell disease
d. total parental nutrition
e. ?(sorry can’t recall - hope it was false)

A

d. total parental nutrition

a. Ascaris lumbricoides pigment
b. ileal bypass pigment
c. sickle cell disease pigment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. which of the pure forms of testicular germ cell tumours presents in infancy?

a. embyronal carcinoma
b. endodermal sinus (yolk sac) tumour
c. seminomad. spermatocytic seminoma
e. teratoma

A

endodermal sinus (yolk sac) tumour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. Pregnancy all of the following are complications except:
  2. Hepatic hematoma
  3. Thrombocytosis
A
  1. Thrombocytosis

Read HELLP syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. Associations:
  2. Carcinosarcoma in post menopausal females.
  3. Vulval sarcoma
A
  1. Carcinosarcoma in post menopausal females.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which of the association is not true:

  1. NSAID’s associated diffuse cortical necrosis.
  2. Contrast agent and acute tubular necrosis
A
  1. NSAID’s associated diffuse cortical necrosis. Renal cortical necrosis cause- hypovolaemia - shock etc- HUS- renal transplant

*AJL - mnemonic for renal cortical necrosis = SHT (like shit without an I…)
Shock, HUS, Transplant.

(Combine with COAG for cortical nephrocalcinosis and you’ll sound like a smart cookie in a viva)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. Stromal tumor of uterus least likely to present as metastatis:
  2. Leiomyoma
  3. Leiomyosarcoma.
A
  1. Leiomyoma

**LJS - caution, depends what other answers are. Rare variants of fibroid - benign metastsizing leiomyoma and disseminated peritoneal leiomyomatosis (Rob 9th ed)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. Which of the following presents as painless mass:
  2. Perisosteal osteosarcoma
  3. Paraosteal osteosarcoma low grade
  4. High grade surface osteosarcoma
  5. Telangiectatic osteosarcoma
  6. Small cell osteosarcoma
A
  1. Paraosteal osteosarcoma low grade
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. Radiograph of mandible shows lucent lesion near the root of the tooth with denticle particles. Which is most likely
  2. Odontoma
  3. Kertogenic odondtoid tumor.
  4. Dentigerous cyst
  5. Ameloblastoma
  6. Cementoma rare but also periapical, has density
A
  1. Odontoma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. Young patient after trauma undergoes Contrast CT of abdomen. It shows non enhancing upper pole of left kidney. No bleeding or collection.
  2. Dissection at renal hilum.
  3. Avulsion of segmental artery.
  4. Venous thrombosis.
  5. Venous dissection.
A
  1. Dissection at renal hilum.
  2. Young patient after trauma undergoes Contrast CT of abdomen. It shows non enhancing upper pole of left kidney. No bleeding or collection.
  3. Dissection at renal hilum.
  4. Avulsion of segmental artery. No bleeding
  5. Venous thrombosis. ?expect some enhancement. Not commonly assoc with trauma.
  6. Venous dissection. Never heard of this - ? Even possible
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Regarding knee trauma: Most likely

  1. Common peroneal nerve is most commonly involved.
  2. Often associated with avulsion fracture
  3. Must do DSA to rule out Popliteal artery injury
A
  1. Common peroneal nerve is most commonly involved.

Regarding knee trauma: Most likely

  1. Common peroneal nerve is most commonly involved.
  2. Often associated with avulsion fracture can be it not often
  3. Must do DSA to rule out Popliteal artery injury
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. Multiple myeloma: Most likely
  2. x-ray is most sensitive than bone scan for staging of myeloma
  3. More sensitive anyway
A
  1. x-ray is most sensitive than bone scan for staging of myeloma
  2. More sensitive anyway
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  1. Young female presenting with back pain and sclerotic lesion in the vertebra
  2. Osteoid osteoma
  3. Metastasis
  4. GCT
  5. Osteoblastoma
  6. ABC
A
  1. Osteoid osteoma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. Phthisis Bulbi
  2. Osseous metaplasia
  3. Optic nerve hypertrophy.
A
  1. Osseous metaplasiaphthisis bulbi changes- micropthalmia- thickened sclera- effusion between choroid and sclera- dystrophic calcification- osseous metaplasia

**LJS - optic nerve atrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
  1. Juvenile Nasopharyngeal angiofibroma
  2. Location: posterolateral wall of nose
  3. Complication is sarcomatous transformation
A
  1. Location: posterolateral wall of nose
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
  1. Parotid malignancy: ( don’t remember the Q but I think it said least likely)
  2. Acinar cell carcinoma
  3. Mucinous mucoepidermoid
  4. Pleomorphic x adenocarcinoma
  5. SCC
A

LJS edit - order of parotid malignancy in descending frequency:
mucoepidermoid > adenoid cystic > acinar cell.
Not sure where carcinoma ex pleomorphic adenoma fits in but 5-10% transform and it is the most common benign parotid tumour, so I would think this is not the least common. However, primary SCC of the parotid is very rare (occurs via chronic inflammation = squamous metaplasia), so I think this is the answer (though nodal met of skin SCC to intraparotid nodes is not that rare, so would depend on the wording of the question.

  1. Pleomorphic x adenocarcinoma
  2. Parotid malignancy: ( don’t remember the Q but I think it said least likely)
  3. Acinar cell carcinoma 1-5% of salivary gland tumours.
  4. Mucinous mucoepidermoid?
  5. Pleomorphic x adenocarcinoma I think. 10% over 15 years convert
  6. SCC
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Peutz Jegher. Describe

A
  • Harmatomatous polyposis + mucutaneous pigmentation- AD- smooth muscle core polyps -> differentiate from Cowden and Cronkite canada- non-neoplastic polyps- stomach and small intestine, and othersIncreased risk of cancer- GI adenocarcinoma- breast- lung- pancreas- ovary - sex cord tumour- uterus- cervix adenoma malignum (adenocarcinoma subtype of the cervix)- testis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
  1. Pseudohermophroditism: same question was included in the radiology and pathology.
  2. Leydig cell tumor
  3. Serotoli Leydig cell tumor
  4. Granulosa cell tumor
  5. Serous malignancy
  6. Mucinous tumor
A
  1. Serotoli Leydig cell tumor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
  1. Which of the following association is LEAST correct:
  2. Nodular fasciitis has irregular margins
  3. Nodular fasciitis presents in forearm
  4. Nodular fasciitis is associated
  5. Myositis ossificans has well defined margins
  6. Myositis ossificans involves proximal extremity.
A

*AJL - Myositis ossificans has a well-defined calcified margin after 4-6 weeks but can be ill-defined early on.
Nodular fasciitis appears to have smooth margins (as LJS describes below)
Preferred answer is probably 1.
(acknowledging that there’s no acuity mentioned or what the association is)

**LJS - agree that margins only calcified later on, but no time frame specified, so could be considered correct. Nodular fasciitis is described as well circumscribed, and all the RP/statdx/google pics look round/oval with relatively smooth margins. Maybe 1. is incorrect?

Previous answer…
4. Myositis ossificans has well defined margins

  1. Which of the following association is LEAST correct:
  2. Nodular fasciitis has irregular margins – Nodular.
  3. Nodular fasciitis presents in forearm. Most common
  4. Nodular fasciitis is associated with trauma usually
  5. Myositis ossificans has well defined margins
  6. Myositis ossificans involves proximal extremity. Yes – “large muscles”Nodular fasciitis is a rapidly growing non-neoplastic soft tissue lesion that is frequently located in the deep subcutaneous region or in the fascia. The most common locations for nodular fasciitis are the volar aspect of the forearm, the lower extremity, and the chest and back. It typically manifests as a rapidly growing mass.Idiopathic causeTx: excise and monitor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q
  1. Squamous cell skin cancer: Not associated
  2. SLE
  3. CLL
  4. Post renal transplant
  5. HPV
  6. Sun rays
A
  1. SLE ?? is apparently, but not mentioned in Robbins20.

Squamous cell skin cancer: Not associated
1. SLE ?? is apparently, but not mentioned in Robbins
*LW: –> Infrequently, squamous cell carcinoma develops in sites of DLE. Squamous cell carcinoma in DLE is estimated to occur in 2 to 3 percent of DLE patients, is postulated to be related to the presence of chronic inflammation, and is associated with increased risk for a poor prognosis for squamous cell carcinoma.
This is relatively rare assoication.

  1. CLL yes
  2. Post renal transplant yes
  3. HPV definitely
  4. Sun rays obviously
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q
  1. Primary biliary cirrhosis: (F)
  2. Elevated serum transaminase
  3. Associated with antimitochondrial antibodies
  4. Associated with HCC
  5. Middle aged female
  6. Involves both intra and extra hepatic radicals
A

. Involves both intra and extra hepatic radicals - FALSE:
Intra only
PBC is characterized by the destruction of small intrahepatic bile ducts, portal inflammation, and progressive scarring. The cause of PBC is unknown, but it is probably due to an inherited abnormality of immunoregulation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q
  1. Cholangiocarinoma association
  2. PBC
  3. Choldedochal cyst
  4. Bile duct adenoma
A
  1. Choldedochal cyst
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q
  1. Miliary nodules in spleen
  2. Cardiac failure
  3. Myelofibrosis
  4. CLL possibly
  5. Portal hypertension
  6. Polycythemia vera
A
  1. Portal hypertension possibly – gamma gandy bodies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q
  1. Polycythemia vera: Not associated

1. Cyanosis

A
  1. Cyanosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q
  1. Sickle cell anemia. what doesn’t happen
  2. Acute chest pain
  3. Shock with splenic sequestration
  4. Aplastic crisis – with B19
  5. Staph aureus with autosplenectomy
A
  1. Staph aureus with autosplenectomy Faplastic cris- parvovirus B1 infects RBC progenitors in bone marrow, resulting in impaired cell division for a few days.- In people with SCD, however, the RBC lifespan is greatly shortened (usually 10-20 days), and a very rapid drop in Hb occurs. The condition is self-limited, with bone marrow recovery occurring in 7-10 days, followed by brisk reticulocytosis.Splenic sequestration- blood pools in spleen causing venous infarct and anaemia + splenomegaly
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q
  1. Chronic meningoencephalitis (F)
  2. Borelia burgdorferia (lyme disease)
  3. Listeria
  4. TB
  5. Syphilis
  6. ? crypto
A
  1. Listeria (causes rhombencephalitis)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q
  1. Association which is true:
  2. H influenza in neonates
  3. Genitourinary infection
  4. Corynebacterium diphtheria and genitourinary
A
  1. H influenza in neonates
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q
  1. Adenocarcinoma of lung
  2. Scar association – lung
  3. Cavitating lesion
  4. Location is periphery
A
  1. Location is periphery

LW favoured answer, although I think scar carcinoma is of adenocarcinoma histology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q
  1. Lobular carcinoma in situ (repeat): Least likely
  2. Presents as speculated mass
  3. Microcalcification
  4. Seen only on one mammographic view.
A
  1. Microcalcification
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q
  1. Spiculated lesion in breast
  2. Sclerosing adenosis
  3. Fibroadenoma
A
  1. Sclerosing adenosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q
  1. Picks disease which is true:
  2. Anterior parietal lobe atrophy
  3. Asymetric frontal and temporal lobe atrophy
  4. Substansia niagra atrophy
  5. Cerebellar atrophy
A
  1. Asymetric frontal and temporal lobe atrophy
    * AJL - Picks disease is also called frontotemporal lobar dementia.

Pick disease is a neurodegenerative disease, and one of the tauopathies characterised by the accumulation of Pick bodies.- sometimes used synonymously with frontotemporal lobar degeneration- cortical atrophy of the frontal and temporal lobes. These changes can be markedly asymmetric and affect one region much more than another. Tauopathies are a heterogeneous group of neurodegenerative diseases characterised by abnormal metabolism of tau proteins leading to intracellular accumulation and formation of neurofibrillary tangles (NFT). These neurofibrillary tangles are deposited in the cytosol of neurons and glial cells. Examples of tauopathies include 3:

  • Alzheimer disease- progressive supranuclear palsy (PSP)
  • frontotemporal lobar degeneration (FTLD-TAU)
  • corticobasal degeneration
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q
  1. HIV infection least associated:
  2. JC papovo virus
  3. CMV virus
  4. Toxoplasmosis
  5. Cryptosporidium
  6. Nocardia asteroides
A
  • AJL - all are associated. Nocardia is rare so probably the answer in this case.
    35. HIV infection least associated:
  1. JC papovo virus (presumably this is JC polyomavirus, otherwise this is definitely incorrect)
  2. CMV virus
  3. Toxoplasmosis
  4. Cryptosporidium
  5. Nocardia asteroides
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q
  1. Toxoplasmosis:
  2. 75% in the basal ganglia
  3. Hemorrhage with treatment
A
  1. 75% in the basal ganglia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q
  1. Cereberal venous thrombosis:
  2. Spares the cortex with hemorrhagic infarct of the subcortical white matter
  3. Empty delta sign in noncontrast CT
  4. Dense sinus in non contrast CT
  5. Non vascular territory infarcts?
A
  1. Dense sinus in non contrast CT

* AJL - ?also non-vascular territory infarcts. (Though dense sinus is more correct)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q
  1. Tunneled catheter(repeat)
  2. Femoral catheter can stay in place for long time
    2.
A
  1. Femoral catheter can stay in place for long time 2.

**LJS - Femoral catheters < 30days use (high risk infection, limited mobility)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q
  1. Most common intravascular device used to retrieve the foreign bodies:
  2. Goose neck snare
  3. Intravascular biopsy forceps
  4. Stent
A
  1. Goose neck snare
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Patient with minimal claudication with 20 cm of SFA occlusion. No critical ischemia

  1. Exercise programme.
  2. Angioplasty
  3. Stent
  4. Bypass
A
  1. Exercise programme. Solely chosen using logic. Long segment (not amenable to perc intervention) and minimal sx – why risk it?
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q
  1. Cervical cancer with smoking not associated with adeno
A

Cervical cancer with smoking not associated with adenobut a/w SCC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q
  1. Endometrial cancer :
  2. Endometrial ca with diabetes
  3. Endometrial ca with nulliparity
A
  1. Endometrial ca with nulliparity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q
  1. Ovarian cyst 4.5cm 35Y presenting with pain, CA 125 was normal, anechoic simple
  2. Gynaecological referral
  3. 12 months follow up
  4. Mention in the report no follow up needed possible
  5. Aspiration of the cyst
A
  1. Gynecological referral because of pain? May have torted. From a follow-up perspective <5cm pre-menopausal does not need follow-up
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q
  1. Testis: 2year old MC germ cell tumor
  2. Yolk sac tumor
  3. Choriocarnioma
  4. Teratoma
  5. Seminoma
  6. Spermatocytic seminoma
A
  1. Yolk sac tumor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q
  1. Cryptorchidism: False
  2. Infertility resolves with orchidopexy
  3. Complete descent in 1 year most
  4. Malignancy of the contralateral testis
  5. Majority located in the inguinal canal
A

**LJS - infertility persists despite orchidopexy. Therefore 1 is false. Malignancy risk is increased for BOTH testes, not just undescended one
2 and 4 also true
*AJL agree.

  1. Cryptorchidism: False
  2. Infertility resolves with orchidopexy
  3. Complete descent in 1 year most
  4. Malignancy of the contralateral testis
  5. Majority located in the inguinal canal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q
  1. All of the following will metastasize to brain except
  2. Lung
  3. RCC
  4. Breast
  5. Prostate
  6. Melanoma
A
  1. Prostate can met to meninges
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q
  1. Uveal melanoma
  2. Ciliary body melanoma has good prognosis than iris melanoma
  3. Iris melanoma better prognosis than choroidal melanoma
  4. Naevi is a precussor of uveal melanoma.
  5. Spreads to cervical lymph nodes
  6. Commonest hematogenous spread to liver
A
  1. Iris melanoma better prognosis than choroidal melanoma
  2. Commonest hematogenous spread to liver
    * *LJS - this is correct answer.
    * LW: agree

**LJS - Robbins 9th ed p1331
Prognosis related to:
-Size
-Cell type - epithelial worse than spindle
-Proliferative index.
-No mention of different parts of the uvea having different prognosis

*AJL - Disagree with the last comment. Both 2 and 5 are correct.
Robbins says iris melanoma follows a relatively indolent course while choroidal and ciliary are more aggressive. (Robbins 10th p1318)
Almost purely haematogenous spread (first to liver).

Previous answer:
Malignant uveal melanomas, also referred as choroidal melanomas, are the most common primary tumour of the adult eye

Malignant melanoma of the uvea is the most common primary intraocular malignancy and is predominantly seen in Caucasians .
The incidence of these tumours increases with age, with only 2% of tumours found in patients younger than 20 years of age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q
  1. 2 Year child with hyperinflated lung on expiratory and inspiratory film with hilar mass overlying the hilum
  2. Foreign body
A
  1. Foreign body
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q
  1. Neonate with hyperdense mass in the hilum which shows the rim calcification and homogenous enhancement
  2. Carcinoid
  3. Bronchial carcinoma
  4. Teratoma should
  5. SJ syndrome
  6. Bronchopulmonary
A

not sure53. Neonate with hyperdense mass in the hilum which shows the rim calcification and homogenous enhancement

  1. Carcinoid no
  2. Bronchial carcinoma seems very unlikely
  3. Teratoma should have some hypodense parts and rim calcification unusual
  4. SJ syndrome no. Response to infection
  5. Bronchopulmonary ???
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q
  1. Elderly patient presenting with hemorrhage in parietal lobe white matter with no enhacment on CT.
  2. Amyloidosis
  3. Hemorragic metastatis
A
  1. Amyloidosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q
  1. Pediatric tumor involving the cerebellum: LEAST likely
  2. Ependymoma
  3. Medulloblastoma
  4. Hemangioblastoma
  5. Juvenile pilocytic astrocytoma
  6. Pleomorhic xanthoastrocytoma
A

PXA

  • LJS edit - Haemangioblastoma typically middle age but can occur earlier in VHL. PXA is paed tumour but almost invariably supratentorial (>98%). I think PXA is less likely in the cerebellum of a kid than haemangioblastoma. I would say 5. is answer*
  • AJL agrees
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q
  1. Difference between Lefort 1 and lefort 2. Which least likely favours lefort 2
  2. Orbital floor
  3. Posterolateral maxillary wall
  4. Anterior wall
  5. Medial wall
  6. Pterygoid plates
A
  1. Medial wall of the maxillary sinus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q
  1. Transverse fracture involving pterygoid plates,
  2. Lefort 1
  3. Lefort 2
  4. Lefort 3
  5. Maxill
A
  1. Lefort 1- answer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q
  1. Juvenile papilomatosis of breast(repeat)
  2. Present as palpable mass
  3. Nipple discharge
  4. Malignant potential no potential to degenerate, but condition is associated with increased risk of malignancy
  5. Prepubertal age group
A
  1. Present as palpable mass- papillary proliferation of ductal epithelium- present like a peripheral mass- no nipple discharge- young patient group 19-24

Patients present with a firm, well-defined, mobile mass often in the periphery of the breast.
There is usually no nipple discharge.
Despite being a benign entity, it is considered by some to be a marker for familial breast cancer. Approximately 10% of those with papillomatosis are thought to develop breast cancer later in life 10.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q
  1. Mamographic appearance of papilloma
  2. Microlobulations
  3. Calcification
A
  1. Calcification
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q
  1. Ultrasound showing intensely hyperechoic lesion
A

Lipoma, hamartoma, fat necrosis, LN, haematoma. Rarely malignancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q
  1. Pagets disease (repeat)
  2. Refer to breast surgeon
  3. Dermatological reference for the dermatitis
A
  1. Refer to breast surgeon
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q
  1. Bilateral ovarian tumor least likely
  2. Serous if cystadenocarcinoma
  3. Mucinous
  4. Metastatic adenocarcinoma
  5. Endometroid carcinoma
A
  1. Mucinous
  2. Bilateral ovarian tumor least likely
  3. Serous if cystadenocarcinoma
  4. Mucinous
  5. Metastatic adenocarcinoma
  6. Endometroid carcinoma second commonest malignancy neoplasm. Bilateral 30%. 30% have endometrial carcinoma
58
Q
  1. Which of the following is least likely
  2. Vulval sarcoma
  3. Fallopian tube serous adenocarcinoma occurs
  4. Cervical mucoid
A
  1. Cervical mucoid cant find a mention of this
59
Q
  1. Mesothelioma
  2. Smoking is associated
  3. Mediastinal invasion
  4. Commonly associated with pulmonary asbestosis
  5. Metastasis is associated at presentation
A
  1. Mediastinal invasion says “usually” in Robbins
  2. Mesothelioma
  3. Smoking is associated
  4. Mediastinal invasion says “usually” in Robbins
  5. Commonly associated with pulmonary asbestosis 25%
  6. Metastasis is associated at presentation 25%
60
Q
  1. Pleural effusion
  2. Hemorrhagic effusion in renal causes
  3. Transudative effusion in liver causes
  4. Empyema is defined as collection of pus with spread of infection from lung
  5. Hemothorax is collection of blood associated with trauma
  6. Chylothorax is collection of lymph fluid due to obstruction of thoracic duct.
A
  1. Transudative effusion in liver causes
61
Q
  1. Which one of the following will not cause systemic hypertension
  2. Recurrent pulmonary embolism
  3. Coarctation of aorta
A
  1. Recurrent pulmonary embolism
  2. Which one of the following will not cause systemic hypertension
  3. Recurrent pulmonary embolism
  4. Coarctation of aorta although not truly systemic
62
Q
  1. All of the following will cause aortic regurgitation except
  2. Bicuspid aortic valve
  3. Hypertension
  4. Marfan’s syndrome
  5. Syphilis
  6. Infective endocarditis
A
  1. Hypertension
63
Q
  1. All of the following cause restrictive cardiomyopathy except
  2. Radiation
  3. Hemochromatosis
  4. Sarcoidodis
  5. Amyloidosis
A

*AJL changed question from dilated to restrictive…

Answer - Haemochromatosis does not cause restrictive cardiomyopathy (see below)

(Robbins) Restrictive cardiomyopathy can be idiopathic or associated with distinct disorders that affect the myocardium, principally amyloidosis (described later), sarcoidosis, radiation-induced fibrosis, metastatic tumors, or the accumulation of metabolites from inborn errors of metabolism.

Dilated cardiomyopathy:
Familial (up to to 50%)
Myocarditis
Peripartum
Toxic (eg EtOH, chemo, Iron overload)
Idiopathic
Supraphysiologic stress (excess catecholamines, persistent tachycardia, hyperthyroidism, fetus of IDDM mother, cocaine, phaeochromocytoma)
64
Q
  1. CPPD
  2. Negatively bireferengent
  3. MC ankle
  4. Secondary associated with hemochromatosis.
A
  1. Secondary associated with hemochromatosis.
    CPPD- positive birefringent- rhomboid
    (gout- negative- needle)
    CPPD cause - OA- hyperparathyroidism- hypomangnesmia- hypothyroidism- ochronosis
65
Q
  1. Slipped capital femoral epiphysis
  2. 5-10years
  3. Posterolateral
  4. Early radiograph in frog leg position
  5. Most commonly bilateral
A
  1. Early radiograph in frog leg position
66
Q
  1. MRI shows retraction of psoas tendon with hyperintensity in the anterior aspect of the hip
  2. Avulsion of the lesser trochanter
  3. Intertrochanteric fracture
  4. Subtranchanteric fracture
A
  1. Avulsion of the lesser trochanter

* AJL - These are typically pathological in an adult (might be a different way of asking the same question)

67
Q
  1. THR ( repeat). Bone scan blood pool high Loosening vs infection
68
Q
  1. Bone scan radiation dose compared to CXR
  2. 50
  3. 200
  4. 500
  5. 1000
  6. 2000
A

**LJS - 200x that of CXR

*AJL (agree)
CXR - 0.02msV
bone scan - 6mSV
Therefore 300x the dose (closest option is 200x)

69
Q
  1. Pulmonary edema with normal heart size

a. Raised intracranial pressure
b. Mediastinal fibrosis
c. Massive pulmonary embolism
d. Constrictive pericarditis

A

a. Raised intracranial pressurenoncardiogenic pulmonary edema

  1. Pulmonary edema with normal heart size
    a. Raised intracranial pressure
    b. Mediastinal fibrosis
    c. Massive pulmonary embolism NO
    d. Constrictive pericarditis – potentially but mostly right sided
70
Q
  1. Complication of the right coronary artery block
  2. AV Conduction block
  3. Aneurysm
  4. Mural thrombus
A
  1. AV Conduction block
71
Q

Inversion injury. Anterior drawer test positive

  1. Anterior talofibular ligament
  2. Deltoid ligament
A
  1. Anterior talofibular ligament rupture
72
Q
  1. An elite sports player present with shoulder pain and recurrent shoulder dislocation. Which one of the following is the BEST investigation
  2. MRI
  3. Xray
  4. USG
73
Q
  1. PET negative lymphoma:
  2. Nodular sclerosing HD
  3. T cell lymphoma
  4. Lymphocyte depleted lymphoma
  5. Follicular B1 lymphoma
    5.
A
  1. T cell lymphoma
74
Q
  1. Pathological FDG uptake is seen in

a. Thyroid
b. Stomach
c. Small intestine
d. Colon
e. Rectum

A

a. Thyroid:

Normal physiological uptake

  • brain tissue
  • skeletal muscle, especially after strenuous activity and laryngeal muscles following speech
  • myocardium
  • gastrointestinal tract, e.g. intestinal wall
  • genitourinary tract: FDG is excreted via the renal system and passes into the collecting systems
  • brown fat
  • thymus
  • bone marrow
75
Q
  1. Normal uptake is not seen in

a. Thyroid
b. Stomach
c. Small intestine
d. Colon
e. Rectum

A

a. Thyroid

76
Q
  1. Amyloidosis least correct
  2. Jaundice
  3. Diarrhea
  4. Protenuria
  5. Dilated cardiomyopathy
A

Dilated cardiomyopathy

  1. Amyloidosis least correct
  2. Jaundice I think so
  3. Diarrhea can do
  4. Protenuria definitely
  5. Dilated cardiomyopathy restrictive
77
Q
  1. Waldenstoms Macroglobulinemia: Least correct
  2. Bone lesions can be painful
  3. Cold agglutinins
  4. Coomb’s test
A
  1. Bone lesions can be painful
    * AJL - Often incidental diagnosis (as in asymptomatic). If patients are symptomatic they present with fatigue, polyneuropathy or B symptoms.
78
Q
  1. Which of the associations is not true
  2. Mucormycosis with diabetic ketoacidosis
  3. Rhinosporidiosis ?
  4. Leprosy involves the nasal septum
  5. Immunocompetent male with allergic rhinitis and aspergilus infection
A
  1. Rhinosporidiosis ? Must be this one
79
Q
  1. Fetal scan to look for cleft lip
  2. Midline Saggital scans are the best.
  3. Incidence is 1: 80,000
  4. Cleft lip is commonly missed on us scans
A
  1. Incidence is 1: 80,000It is estimated to occur with an incidence of ~1 in 700-to-1000 live births 1 ???ummmm

**LJS - all false

80
Q
  1. Which of the following association are true

1. Pneumothorax with paraseptal emphysema

A
  1. Pneumothorax with paraseptal emphysema
81
Q
  1. A new born with small volume lungs and diffuse ground glass opacity:
  2. Transient tachypnea of newborn
  3. HMD
82
Q
  1. New born with HMD treated with surfactant through ET tube, why there is patchy distribution
  2. Because of differential aeration of the lung I think
  3. ET tube displacement
  4. Mucous plugging
A
  1. Because of differential aeration of the lung I think
83
Q
  1. Least likely to have L-R shunt:
    a. Transposition of great vessels
    b. PDA
    c. VSD
    d. ASD
    e. Patent foramen ovale
A
  • *LJS - PFO only allows R to L shunting due to flap in place. Causes paradoxical emboli, but not L to R shunt.
    https: //www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC2649639/

TGA (D-loop) needs a shunt to survive. Complex flow dynamics depending on where the shunt is and variable directions during systole and diastole, but significant amount needs to be L-R to supply systemic circulation with oxygenated blood via RV-aorta connection
https://www.ahajournals.org/doi/pdf/10.1161/01.CIR.73.1.95

Previous answer:
a. Transposition of great vessels

84
Q
  1. Association which is false:

f. Antiendomycial antibodies with diarrhea
g. Anticardiolipin and symmetric arthritis
h. Antibasement antiobodies and hemoptysis
i. Anti neutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies and epistaxis
j. Anti mitrochondrial antibodies and jaundice

A

g. Anticardiolipin and symmetric arthritis

antiendomycial - coeliac disease
antiBM - goodpasture (pulmonary haemorrhage, glomuerlonephritis and antiGBM antibody)
ANCA - wegners
AMA - primary biliary cholangitis

Anticardiolipin Ab ass/w antiphospholipid syndrome. Which is in turn ass/w SLE, which can have symmetric arthritis, but this is the least direct association of those listed

85
Q
  1. Rheumatoid arthritis:

a. No gender predilection
b. Commonly involve the axial skeleton
c. Commonly feet joints are spared
d. Rhematoid nodules affect the heart valves

A

b. Commonly involve the axial skeleton

LJS - 50% involvement of the c-spine. I guess that’s commonly. Rheumatoid nodules do affect the heart valves (but uncommon)

86
Q
  1. Precocius puberty is associated with all the following except:
  2. Craniopharygioma
  3. Ovarian cyst
  4. Adrenocortical carcinoma
A
  1. Craniopharygioma delayed puberty, decreased libido, diabetes insipidis, visual symptoms, headaches/raised ICP.
87
Q
  1. Regarding Pituitary macroadenoma

a. Shows delayed intense enhancement.
b. Has calcification. 1-2%

A

a. Shows delayed intense enhancement.

  1. Regarding Pituitary macroadenoma
    a. Shows delayed intense enhancement.
    b. Has calcification. 1-2%um not sure
88
Q
  1. Rarest form of pituitary adenoma
  2. Non functioning PA
  3. TSH secreting PA
  4. ACTH secreting PA
  5. FSH and LH secreting PA
  6. Prolactin secreting PA
A
  1. TSH secreting
  2. Rarest form of pituitary adenoma
  3. Non functioning PA 20-30%
  4. TSH secreting PA 1-2%
  5. ACTH secreting PA 10%
  6. FSH and LH secreting PA 10, 5%
  7. Prolactin secreting PA 30%

non functioning 30%, prolactin 30%
ACTH 10%, FSH LH 10%
TSH 1%

89
Q
  1. Meningioma Least likely
  2. Contains haemorrhage and necrosis
  3. Can invade the overlying bone
  4. Appear en-plaque meningioma
  5. Pressure effect on the adjacent brain
A
  1. Contains haemorrhage and necrosis
90
Q
  1. Fibrinoid necrosis is seen in which of the following
  2. Myocardial infarct
  3. Vasculitis
  4. TB
  5. Trauma
A
  1. Vasculitis
91
Q
  1. Not associated with prion disease(repeat)
  2. CJ
  3. Kuru
  4. SSPE
A
  1. SSPE (subacute sclerosing panenchephalitis - measles)
92
Q
  1. X lined recessive inheritance
  2. Adrenleucodystrophy
  3. Metachromatic leukodystrophy
  4. Alexander disease
  5. Cannavan disease
A
  1. Adrenleucodystrophy
  2. X lined recessive inheritance
  3. Adrenleucodystrophy
  4. Metachromatic leukodystrophy AR
  5. Alexander disease Sporadic
  6. Cannavan disease AR
93
Q
  1. Cavitating lung lesions: Least likely
  2. TB
  3. Mycoplasma
  4. Lymphomatoid granulomatosis
A
  1. Mycoplasma
  2. Cavitating lung lesions: Least likely
  3. TB
  4. Mycoplasma
  5. Lymphomatoid granulomatosis Similar to Wegeners, type of NHL. Can get multiple cysts.
94
Q
  1. All of the following are seen with NF1 except:
  2. Acoustic schwanoma
  3. Kyphoscoliosis
  4. Café au lait spots
  5. Optic glioma
A
  1. Acoustic schwanoma
95
Q
  1. Most common type of urinary bladder injury with blunt abdominal trauma
  2. Intra peritoneal rupture
  3. Extra peritoneal rupture
  4. Both intra and extra peritoneal ruture
  5. Mucosal laceration
A

LJS opinion - blunt trauma to full bladder causes intraperitoneal rupture. Penetrating trauma/pelvic fractures causes extraperitoneal rupture (much more common)*

*LW: as always I agree with LJS, however i wonder if the wording in this question may be important….
Blunt ABDO trauma, such as car crash dash board, which results in pelvic fractures hence causing penetrating bladder injury and thus extra peritoneal rupture (i.e most common).
Vs.. penetrating ABDOMINAL trauma, such as shrapnel etc, would also likely result in extra peritoneal.
Vs… blunt BLADDER trauma resulting in intra peritoneal rupture.
One would hope there was more to the stem, and I am likely over thinking this……

  1. Extra peritoneal rupture
96
Q
  1. Proximal fibular fracture with tibiotalar slant
  2. Maisonneuve fracture.
  3. Weber’s A
  4. Weber’s B
  5. Weber’s C
A
  1. Maisonneuve fracture.
97
Q
  1. Cholesteatoma:
  2. Most commonly seen in Prussacks space
  3. Fistula is most common in superior semicircular canal
  4. CT is specific in assessing the size of the cholestetoma
  5. Erosion of the scutum is not significant
A
  1. Most commonly seen in Prussacks space
98
Q
  1. Infraspinatus atrophy. Which nerve is involved(repeat)
  2. Suprascapular nerve
  3. Nerve to latismi dorsi
  4. Long thoracic nerve
  5. Axillary nerve
A
  1. Suprascapular nerve
99
Q
  1. Which of the following commonly causes cholesterol gall stones:
  2. Ileal bypass
  3. Sickle cell anemia
  4. TPN
  5. Ascariasis
100
Q
  1. GIST:
  2. Stomach GIST most are malignant
  3. Esophageal GIST
  4. Association of leiomyoma in MEN syndrome.
  5. Recurrence of GIST is related to the initial Size
A
  1. Recurrence of GIST is related to the initial Size. – I think
  2. GIST:
  3. Stomach GIST most are malignant: FALSE: tend to behave in a more benign fashion
  4. Esophageal GIST uncommon compared to leiomyomas.
  5. Association of leiomyoma in MEN syndrome.
  6. Recurrence of GIST is related to the initial Size. – I think
GIST location:
stomach: 70%
small intestine: 20-25%
anorectum: 7%more likely to be high grade 
colon esophagus: rare.
101
Q
  1. Which of the following is least correct.
  2. Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis requires treatment of asthma.
  3. Acute eospinophilic pneumonia present with transient opacification which resolves with corticosteroid therapy
  4. Chronic esosinophilic pneumonia present with peripheral consolidation not responding to corticosteroid therapy.
  5. Tropical eosinophilia responds to antifilarial treatment
  6. Loefflers syndrome presents and patchy consolidation and is self limiting.
A
  • LJS opinion - 3 is false. Chronic eosinophilic pneumonia responds promptly to steroids. Remainder of the answers are true*
  • AJL agrees

Previous answer - 1 or 5

  1. Which of the following is least correct.
  2. Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis requires treatment of asthma.
  3. Acute eospinophilic pneumonia present with transient opacification which resolves with corticosteroid therapy
  4. Chronic esosinophilic pneumonia present with peripheral consolidation not responding to corticosteroid therapy.
  5. Tropical eosinophilia responds to antifilarial treatment
  6. Loefflers syndrome presents and patchy consolidation and is self limiting.
102
Q
  1. Hirshprung disease
  2. Present with fluid and electrolyte imbalance.
  3. Common in female
  4. Presents with megacolon and perforation
  5. Presents in new born with unable to pass the meconium
A
  1. Presents in new born with unable to pass the meconium
103
Q
  1. Ulcerative colitis: Most

1. Toxic megacolon is more common

A
  1. Toxic megacolon is more common
104
Q
  1. Complication of crohn’s disease: Most likely

1. Adenocarcinoma

A
  1. Adenocarcinoma
105
Q
  1. Asian with thickening of the ileum and ceacum with hypodense lymph nodes:
  2. TB
  3. Carcinoid
    3.
106
Q
  1. What is true regarding small bowel malignancy:
  2. Carcinoid is common in distal small bowel.
  3. Enteropathic T cell lymphoma and Ileum
A
  1. Carcinoid is common in distal small bowel.
107
Q
  1. Carcinoid (repeat)
  2. Appendix is common site.
  3. Carcinoid syndrome is common.
A

*LW:
Per previous discussions, most common site varies with edition of Robins:
7th or 8th states appendix
9th onwards states distal small bowel

1.	Appendix is common site.
SR CASP
small bowel
rectum
colon
appendix
stomach
pancreas

Carcinoid syndrome in 10%

108
Q
  1. HNPCC: Least likely
  2. HNPCC with endometrial carcinoma
  3. Small bowel adenocarcinoma
  4. HNPCC with urothelial cancer
A

*AJL - urothelial has the lowest rate at 1-7%. (RP)
Small bowel - 5%
Endometrial - 15-60%.

Hopefully there was an answer that isn’t normally included in HNPCC.

Previous answer:
All of the above are true

HNPCC= aka lynch- most people develop colorectal cancer by 30 - GBM- gastric- small bowel- colorectal cancer 80% lifetime risk- genitourinary

109
Q
  1. ADPKD association least likely (repeat)
  2. Hepatic fibrosis
  3. Liver cyst
  4. Pancreatic cysts
  5. MVP
  6. Berry aneurysm
A
  1. Hepatic fibrosis ARPKD
110
Q
  1. A patient present with knee swelling which has T2 low signal and shows diffuse calcification on CT. Most likely
  2. PVNS
  3. Gouty tophi.
  4. Desmoid
  5. Fibroma
  6. GCT
A

This sounds like osteochondromatosis
2. Gouty tophi.

PVNS calcification very rare

111
Q
  1. Non-accidental injury: LEAST likely
A
  1. Posterior rib fractures are characteristic.
112
Q
  1. Diffuse axonal injury
  2. Is mostly hemorrhagic
  3. Occurs in posterior brain stem
  4. Genu of corpus callosum is most commonly involved
  5. Involves the cortex.
  6. T2 hypointense
A
  1. Occurs in posterior brain stem
113
Q
  1. Young child with chest wall mass, which shows punctate calcification
  2. Hemangioma
  3. Teratoma
  4. Lymphangioma
  5. Venous malformation
A
  1. Venous malformation
114
Q
  1. Which of the following is least likely associated-
  2. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia is associated with TTP microangiopathic
  3. HUS can occur in pregnancy. Probably
  4. Gall stones is associated with polycythemia vera.
    4.
A
  • *LJS polycythaemia has incr rbc production, ?not significant destruction, can’t find any evidence of link to gallstones
  • In TTP get microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia (dmg to rbc passing through narrow bv)

*LW: agree with LJS, no evidence of gall stone increase in PCV, and hence is my preferred answer

  1. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia is associated with TTP microangiopathic
  2. Gall stones is associated with polycythemia vera.
115
Q
  1. Small bowel ischemia which is least likely cause
  2. NSAIDS
  3. PAN
  4. Aortic aneurysm
  5. Combined OCP
  6. Atherosclerosis
116
Q
  1. Which of the renal tumor has central scar
  2. Oncocytoma
  3. RCC
A
  1. Oncocytoma
117
Q
  1. Hepatic adenoma :
  2. Liver specific agents show early enhancement
  3. Anabolic steroids in men assoication
  4. Associated with cirrhosis
  5. Very low risk of malignancy
A
  • *LW:
    2. Anabolic steroids in men assoication: TRUE –> beta catenin-mutated hepatic adenoma:

Early arterial enhancement and become nearly isointense about liver on delayed images
T1 C+ (hepatocyte-specific): adenomas usually appear hypointense on hepatobiliary phase (20 mins after injection) due to reduced uptake of Gd-EOB-DTPA/Eovist (cf. FNH which appears iso- to hyperintense).

Rarely hepatic adenomas can degenerate into hepatocellular carcinomas (HCC), particularly in men, and most commonly in beta catenin-mutated hepatic adenoma:

*AJL also 1. Liver specific agents show early enhancement

Adenomas and FNH have early enhancement.
Adenoma washes out (atypical hepatocystes)
FNH retains/becomes iso on delayed (‘normal’ hepatocytes with atypical bile ducts)

118
Q
  1. 45 year old female with hepatic specific contrast show early enhancement, iso in the delayed phase, no central scar: Least likely ?
  2. Hepatic adenoma
  3. FNH
  4. Hemangioma
  5. Metastasis
A
  1. Metastasis

**LJS - agree
Adenoma also does not retain heptatobiliary specific contrast but was a bit more variable with older agents, so is less correct answer
https://pubs.rsna.org/doi/pdf/10.1148/rg.296095515

119
Q
  1. 3 month old infant with rapidly enlarging neck mass
  2. Congenital hemangima
  3. Infantile hemangioma
  4. Lymphangioma
  5. Venous malformation
  6. AVM
A
  1. Infantile hemangioma
120
Q
  1. Multiple cysts in the left lung. Stomach bubble in normal position
  2. CPAM
  3. CDH
121
Q
  1. Predisposing factor for UB malignancy LEAST likely
  2. Cysitis glandularis association with adeno
  3. Schistosomiasis and SCC
  4. Aniline dye and adeno carcinoma
  5. Bladder diverticula
A
  1. Aniline dye and adeno carcinoma SCC
122
Q
  1. Prostatic Ca: LEAST likely
  2. Most commonly in peripheral zone
  3. Appears more hypoechoic than hyperechoic on USG
  4. PSA levels are proportionate to the prostate size
  5. PSA levels can be raised in prostatitis
  6. 50% ???????????
A

everything is rightso probably the weird 50%

123
Q
  1. Rash with diabetes. Enhancing tumor in arterial and venous phase involving pancreas
  2. VIPoma
  3. Gastrinoma
  4. Somatostatinoma
  5. Insulinoma
  6. Glucagonoma
A
  1. Glucagonoma 4D’s: depression, DM, dermatitis and DVT
124
Q
  1. Esophageal narrowing at T11 with distal dilation:
  2. barrets esophagus
  3. Zenker’s diverticulum
  4. Malignancy
A
  1. barrets esophagus most common??
125
Q
  1. Alcoholic after binge drinking presents with blood tinged vomiting. Barium swallow normal(repeat)
  2. Mallory Weiss syndrome
  3. Boerhaav’s syndrome
  4. Erosive gastritis
    4.
A
  1. Mallory Weiss syndrome
126
Q
  1. Barrets esophagus:

1. predisposes to adenocarcinoma

A
  1. predisposes to adenocarcinoma risk of oesophageal cancer- smoking - drinking- barret- HPV- radiation- plummer vinson- asbestos
127
Q
  1. Risk factos or Breast ca(repeat): LEAST likely associated
  2. VHL
  3. Cowdens
  4. Li fraumeni
  5. Ataxia telangiectasia
  6. BRCA 2
A
  1. VHL

li fraumeni- hereditary cancer syndrome- a/w mutation of P53- 50% of patient will develop cancer by 30 types of cancer- brain: glioma, medullo- breast- adrenal cortical carcinoma- leukaemia- sarcoma

Cowdens: germ line mutation in PTEN

BRCA 1 and BRCA 2

ataxia Telangiectasia.

128
Q
  1. Abruption placenta is most commonly associated with (repeat)
  2. Circumvallate placenta
  3. Succinturate lobe
  4. Valamentous insertion of cord
A
  1. Circumvallate placenta
129
Q
  1. Hydatiform mole: LEAST likely(repeat)
  2. Partial mole is less associated with choriocarcinoma
  3. Complete mole is frequently associated with fetal parts
  4. Could be associated with abortion.
  5. Metastasis?
A
  1. Complete mole is frequently associated with fetal parts
130
Q
  1. Fibromatosis: Least likely
  2. Intrabdominal fibromatosis is associated with gardner’s syndrome
  3. Palmar fibromatosis is commonly seen in 4th/5th metacarpal region.
  4. Penile fibromatosis is commonly associated with constriction of urethra
  5. Plantar fibromatosis is commonly seen in female
  6. Abdominal fibromatosis is common in post partum women.
A

**LJS
4 (Plantar fibromatosis is commonly seen in female ) is false.
Superficial fibromatoses are M > F.
Aide memoire: picture all the men with Dupuytrens and bent knobs
Peyronie does cause urethral stricture
9th ed Rob p 1221

  1. Fibromatosis: Least likely
  2. Intrabdominal fibromatosis is associated with gardner’s syndrome
  3. Palmar fibromatosis is commonly seen in 4th/5th metacarpal region.
  4. Penile fibromatosis is commonly associated with constriction of urethra
  5. Plantar fibromatosis is commonly seen in female
  6. Abdominal fibromatosis is common in post partum women.
131
Q
  1. Thyroid disorders: LEAST likely
  2. Antibodies in hashimoto’s thyroiditis are directed against TSH.
  3. Subacute Dequervain thyroiditis has seasonal variation due to viral infection
  4. Grave’s disease has low TSH levels.
  5. Simple goiter is associated with cassava consuming population
  6. Plummer syndrome is due to toxic nodule in multinodular goiter.
A
  1. Antibodies in hashimoto’s thyroiditis are directed against TSH. FALSE
    - –> antithyroglobulin antibodies: found in ~70% of cases 2
    - –> thyroid peroxidase antibodies (TPO): found in 90-95% of cases

Plummer disease, also called toxic multinodular goitre
Cassava can cause simple goitre- it is a type of plant root

132
Q
  1. All of the following is associated with short limbs except:
  2. Cleidocranial dysplasia
  3. Achondrogenesis
  4. Thanatotrophic dysplasia.
  5. Hypochondrogenesis
  6. Hypochondroplasia
A
  1. Cleidocranial dysplasia
133
Q
  1. Viable pregnancy least likely associated with:
  2. Transabdominal 28 mm. No yolk sac or embryo
  3. 6 weeks USG with no heart beat.
  4. CRL 3 mm no heart beat.
  5. Transabdominal CRL 8mm. No heart beat
  6. No fetus with bHCG 700IU.
A

**LJS
- both MSD and CRL criteria are supposed to be called on TV scan.
- Absent HB more likely to be missed on TA scanning than absent fetal pole?
I think MSD 28mm is least incorrect answer

*LW: agree with LJS.
RP states:
TA scanning:
–> when the MSD measures ≥25 mm a fetal pole should be visible, hence option one is least likely to be associated with viable pregnancy.
–> when the MSD measures 20 mm a yolk sac should be visible
However, lack of a yolk sac is not a definite indication of pregnancy failure

With regards to TA CRL 8mm with no heart beat;
–> Cardiac activity should be present in an embryo with a CRL ≥7 mm. If it not detected at this size on transvaginal scanning performed by an experienced operator, it is an indicator of failed early pregnancy, so although technically unlikely to be associated with viable pregnancy, require TV to confirm!

Previous answer:
4. Transabdominal CRL 8mm.

No heart beat crown-rump length (CRL) of ≥7 mm and no heartbeat on a transvaginal scan
mean sac diameter (MSD) of ≥25 mm and no embryo on a transvaginal scan
absence of embryo with heartbeat ≥2 weeks after a scan that showed a gestational sac without a yolk sac
absence of embryo with heartbeat ≥11 days after a scan that showed a gestational sac with a yolk sac
pregnancy with an embryo with no heart activity on initial scan and repeat scan ≥7 days later 2

134
Q
  1. Which of the following is least likely
  2. Bone changes of ? primary hyperparathyroidism is due to osteomalacia.
  3. Vit D deficiency can exacerbate the bone changes due to secondary hyperparathyroidism.
A
  • LW:
    1. Bone changes of ? primary hyperparathyroidism is due to osteomalacia - agree this is LEAST likey.

. Vit D deficiency can exacerbate the bone changes due to secondary hyperparathyroidism. correct.
Also occurs in primary, hence why is recommend as part of clinical work up and testing.

135
Q
  1. Patient with CT scan which shows hyperdense nodules

1. Alveolar microlithiasis.

A
  1. Alveolar microlithiasis.
136
Q
  1. Microangiopathic changes in diabetes mellitus:Least likely
  2. Papillary necrosis
  3. Glomerulosclerosis
  4. Autonomic neuropathy
  5. Sensory motor neuropathy
  6. Macular edema
A
  1. Papillary necrosis

*AJL:
All these things can happen in diabetes however agree with LJS below.

**LJS - I think they want to know specifically which is not a microvascular complication. Although they are pathologically foci of ischaemic coagulative necrosis, I would say papillary necrosis is predominantly a manifestation of pyelonephritis that occurs commonly in diabetics, rather than a direct result of microangiopathy. This seems to be least clearly a microvascular complication
Robbins 9th ed endocrine and renal chapters

137
Q
  1. Intertitial lung changes with nodular thickening with hilar lymphadenopathy and bilateral pleural effusion
  2. Lymphangitis carcinomatosis
A
  1. Lymphangitis carcinomatosis
138
Q
  1. Which of the following tumor crosses the open epiphyseal plate
  2. Chondroblastoma
  3. Osteochrondroma
  4. Enchondroma
  5. Chondro myxoid Fibroma
  6. Periosteal true if osteosarcoma
A
  1. Chondroblastoma can do
139
Q
  1. PAN spares(Repeat)
  2. Pulmonary circulartion
  3. Renal circulation
A
  1. Pulmonary circulation

The pulmonary circulation is typically spared, although bronchial arteries may occasionally be involved.

140
Q
  1. Regarding contrast reactions: false

Steroid prep not useful in major contrast reactions

141
Q
  1. Regarding extrinsic allergic alveolitis
  2. silica
    2.beryllium
    3.cedar wood dust
    4coal dust.
    5.Thermophyllic actinomyces.
A

5.Thermophyllic actinomyces.

142
Q
  1. Least common type of pituitary adenoma

a. Non secreting
b. Lactotroph
c. Thyrotroph
d. Gonadotroph
e. Corticotroph

A

c. Thyrotroph

non secreting 30%
PLH 30%
GNH 10
ACTH 10%
thyrotroph 1%

Pathology (24 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions