Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

path > path from past papers > Flashcards

path from past papers Flashcards

1
Q

most common cause of constrictive pericarditis with calcifications

A

TB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Prostate scoring system

A

Gleason

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Steroid given in Covid-19 with low O2

A

Dexamethasone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Flower nuclei

A

Adult T-cell lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

<30g/L but increased IgG lambda, normal kappa lambda ration

A

smouldering

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

H pylori eradication therapy

A

PPI + amoxicillin + erythromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Cavitating lesion, bloody phlegm

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Virus that doesn’t normally become chronic but dangerous in pregnancy

A

Hep E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Hirschsprung biopsy

A

Absence of ganglion cells in the submucosal and myenteric plexuses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Low CH50, Low AP50, purpuric rash and fever

A

N meningitidis - C7 deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Hypoglycaemia drug

A

Quinine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

lung peripheries cancer, high ADH

A

small cell lung cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

skin prick testing

A

95% negative predictive value

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Unprovoked DVT - long term prophylaxis after LMWH

A

DOAC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

HIV, low CD4 count, diarrhoea, alcohol and acid fast bacilli

A

Mycobacterium avium complex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Covid antiviral

A

remsedivir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Acute pancreatitis: causative type of hyperlipidaemia

A

triglycerides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Multiple pulmonary emboli consequence

A

pulmonary HTN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

rank narrow to broad: pip taz, meropenem, cef, fluclox, co-amox

A

fluclox
co-amox
ceftriaxone
pip taz
meropenem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

osteomyelitis: s aureus, e coli, brucella melitensis, s anginosus, pseudomonas aeruginosa

A
  1. s aureus
  2. strep anginosus
  3. e coli
  4. pseudomonas aeruginosa
    5.brucella melitensis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

coeliac disease and macrocytosis

A

folate deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinaemia aka

A

lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

If they sound Multiple myeloma-esque but don’t fulfil the CRAB criteria but do have a super high calcium, + have some hint of IV drug use in their history

A

adult t cell lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

food poisoning + timeline

A

1-6 hrs: Staphylococcus aureus, Bacillus cereus*

12-48 hrs: Salmonella, Escherichia coli (watery camper)

48-72 hrs: Shigella (bloody), Campylobacter (hayfever campylo (flu prodrome) + (diarrhoea can be bloody))

7 days: Amoebiasis (Bloody), Giardiasis (Non-bloody diarrhoea)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Diarrhoea (before 12 hours)

A

staph aureus or bacillus cereus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Diarrhoea (before 12 hours) + Rice or Chinese

A

bacillus cereus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

diarrhoea after 12 hours or day after meal

A

salmonella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

diarrhoea 2-3 days post meal

A

campylobacter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

diarrhoea > 7 days after meal

A

giardiasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

bloody diarrhoea + e coli

A

salmonella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

bloody diarrhoea + campylobacter presentation

A

shigella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

bloody diarrhoea + giardiasis presentation

A

entamoeba histolytica

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Diarrhoea + (context of question e.g. Travel to Southeast Asia)

A

cholera

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

diarrhoea + travel from bangladesh

A

typhoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Diarrhoea + Sex Worker or IV Drug user or Homeless

A

HIV apparently

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

low or moderate severity community acquired pneumonia

A

oral amox + macrolide if in hosp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

high severity community acquired pneumonia

A

iv co-amoxiclav + clarithromycin
OR
cefuroxime + clarithromycin
OR
cefotaxime + clarithromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

if anyone has a penicillin allergy…

A

don’t treat with cephalosporins or amoxicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

pharyngitis: if IV?

A

benzylpenicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

pharyngitis + penicillin allergy

A

mild: clarithromycin
mod-severe: clindamycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

severe strep throat

A

IV penicillin & clindamycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

if spain mentioned in question for pneumonia?

A

legionella
clarithromycin > erythromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

normal random, fasting, and OGTT glucose

A

random: 4-<7.8
fasting: 4-<6.1
OGTT: 4-<7.8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

impaired fasting glucose

A

6.1-6.99

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

fasting glucose suggestive of diabetes

A

> 7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what next are impaired or diabetes-suggestive fasting glucose?

A

oral glucose tolerance test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

impaired glucose tolerance test

A

7.8-11.0999

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

isolation OGTT > 11.1

A

suggestive but not diagnostic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Which/What cell sits in (it’s immature form in) the periphery, and when it matures, goes to present things to T cells?

A

dendritic cells

51
Q

inhibited by presence of MHC 1

A

Natural killer cells

52
Q

Which/What cell undergoes positive and negative selection in the thymus.

A

T lymphocytes

53
Q

Loss of E cadherin breast cancer

A

Invasive lobular carcinoma

54
Q

Most common type of malignancy in the breast?

A

invasive ductal carcinoma

55
Q

Presence of E cadherin breast cancer

A

invasive ductal carcinoma

56
Q

Breast cancer aka non-specfici type

A

invasive ductal carcinoma

57
Q

Breast cancer w a high medium and low stage to it

A

ductal carcinoma in situ

58
Q

Fibroepithelial tumour with abundal stromal elements

A

Phyllodes tumour

59
Q

A 12 year old boy has recurrent chest infections, and has an ear infection. He doesn’t have any B Cells.

A

Bruton’s X-linked agammaglobulinaemia

60
Q

A boy’s father has TB. The same boy develops a mycobacterium infection, following their BCG.

A

IFN-gamma receptor deficiency

61
Q

Signs of CF + Ear infection

A

X-linked agammaglobulinaemia

62
Q

Signs of X-linked agammaglobulinaemia + Nose Bleed

A

Wiskot-Aldrich

63
Q

60 year old Man with abdominal pain radiating to back, collapses and dies

A

acute aortic aneurysm

64
Q

Man, ex-smoker, with history of hypertension and MI, has sudden chest pain which radiates to the neck

A

descending internal carotid thrombus

65
Q

50 year old lady with memory issues/progressive amnesia, hypertension (?? + bronchopneumonia??)

A

Multiple cerebral/(?cortical) infarcts

66
Q

Elderly man with atrial fibrillation with right flank pain?

A

renal infarct

67
Q

Man has an MI 3 years ago. Now comes into hospital feeling very unwell. Is having a sample taken from their pericardial layer and you find blood is aspirated from the pericardium

A

ventricular rupture

68
Q

A girl has recently been noted by her parents to be acting strange lately. A Lumbar puncture is performed and the CSF shows high lymphocytes and a raised protein, but normal glucose (on LP)

A

herpes virus

69
Q

CSF cloudy + high lymphocytes + fibrin web

70
Q

CSF clear/cloudy + normal glucose + normal/raised protein + raised white cells

71
Q

CSF cloudy, low glucose, high protein, high white cells

72
Q

pembrolizumab moa

A

blocks programmed cell-death rpotein 1 receptor (PD1 receptor)

73
Q

infliximab moa

A

TNFa blocker - used in psoriasis, Crohn’s, rheumatoid arthritis

74
Q

There are 5 special drug treatments. Which drug can be used to treat some malignancies and affects T cell activity?

A

Rituximab – Targets B cells + causes inactivation of T cells:

75
Q

denosumab

A

osteoporosis

76
Q

ustekinumab

77
Q
A

follicular lymphoma

78
Q
A

diffuse lymphoma

79
Q
A

burkitt’s

80
Q
A

hairy cell leukaemia

81
Q
A

CLL smear cells

82
Q

most common malignant ovarian tumour

A

serous cystadenocarcinoma

83
Q

most common benign ovarian tumour

A

serous cystadenoma

84
Q

Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense vector

A

tsetse fly

85
Q

Leishmaniasis vector

86
Q

50 year old man with Midshaft femur fracture – what would you find at the site of the break/fracture (or rather, which/what type of cancer does he have)?

A

chondrocarcinoma

87
Q

most common primary bone tumour

A

osteosarcoma

88
Q

ewing sarcoma on x-ray

A

onion skin periosteal reaction

89
Q

Indications for Acute Dialysis

A

AEIOU
“A”- intractable acidosis
“E”- electrolyte disarray ( K+, Na+, Ca++)
“I” - intoxicants (methanol ethylene glycol, Li, ASA)
“O”- intractable fluid overload
“U”- uremic symptoms (nausea, seizure, pericarditis, bleeding).”

90
Q

What does denosumab target?

A

Receptor activator of nuclear factor kappa-B Ligand

91
Q

Which enzyme would you expect to be raised in obstructive jaundice/biliary obstruction?

A

Gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase

92
Q

What can be used to measure the turnover of bone, and is raised in people who have Paget’s, Osteomalacia / Rickets?

A

alkaline phosphatase

93
Q

Subdural

A

Super Secret Submarine (there’s no warning before it strikes) = No loss of consciousness following initial head injury and then suddenly hours later lose consciousness

94
Q

Extradural

A

EXTRA loss of consciousness = Immediate loss of consciousness followed by lucid interval. Followed by EXTRA loss of consciousness several hours later.

95
Q

Abx of the Macrolide/lincosamide/streptogrammin group used to treat some atypical pneumonias

A

erythromycin

96
Q

A patient required an aortic valve replaced 3 months ago. They have now come back a few weeks later with jaundice, Hb-urea (haemoglobinuria), and raised reticulocytes. What is the cause?

A

mechanical haemolytic anaemia

97
Q

Which common condition can be treated with drugs that target with TNF, IL-17 and IL-12/23?

98
Q

Name the main class of drug used to treat HIV

A

nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors

99
Q

Ixodes tick disease

A

Lyme disease

100
Q

A DNA synthesis inhibitor used to treat Pseudomonal infections but bad against anaerobes

A

ciprofloxacin

101
Q

Target INR for 1st episode DVT or PE

102
Q

Target INR for atrial fibrillation

103
Q

target INR for cardiomyopathy

104
Q

target INR for symptomatic inherited thrombophilia

105
Q

target INR for mural thrombus

106
Q

Target INR for cardioversion

107
Q

Target INR for recurrent DVT or PE

108
Q

Target INR for mechanical prosthetic valve

109
Q

Target INR for coronary graft thrombosis

110
Q

Target INR for antiphospholipid syndrome

111
Q

A 25 year old man has a 10 year history of low back pain and stiffness, with symptoms being worse at night and in the early mornings. An MRI scan has shown bone marrow oedema at the sacroiliac joints. Blood tests confirm an acute phase response with C- reactive protein 18 mg/L (<5). He has shown a partial response to NSAIDS. Which cytokine could be targeted to improve disease control.

A

tumour necrosis factor alpha

112
Q

anti-IL1

113
Q

anti CD20

114
Q

anti-IL6

A

tocilizumab

115
Q

anti T cell co-stimulatory cytokines

116
Q

secukinumab used for?

118
Q

influenza A antiviral

119
Q

most common primary CNS tumour in children

A

pilocytic astrocytoma

120
Q

Mepolizumab - mode and use?

A

Eosinophilic asthma - IL5

121
Q

Secukinumab

A

IL-17
Plaque psoriasis

path (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions