Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Pathology I Final > Path Final Additional cards > Flashcards

Path Final Additional cards Flashcards

1
Q

What is hypertrophy?

A

1) General increase in the bulk, not due to tumor formation2) increase in size of cells not #

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What happens to tissue once it stretches or stress is put on a tissue?

A

It will adapt to the stress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is atrophy or hypotrophy?

A

wasting of tissue from death and reabsorption of cells, diminished cellular proliferation, decreased cellular volume, pressure, ischemia or malnutrition that leads to lessened function or hormonal changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What causes atrophy in the brain?

A

Aging and reduced blood supply

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How does a brain that has undergone atrophy appear grossly?

A

The brain has narrowed gyri and widened sulci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What causes atrophy of the thyroid gland?

A

Longstanding autoimmune disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is hyperplasia?

A

increase in # cells excluding tumor formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What causes endometrial hyperplasia?

A

Estrogen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What causes calluses on the heels of feet?

A

Stresses due to constant wear on feet (ie: tight shoes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is BPH?

A

Benigh Prostatic hyperplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is hypoplasia?

A

incomplete development of tissue (ie: neural fold defects)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is metaplasia?

A

reversible replacement of one differentiated cell type with another differentiated cell type (ie: barrett’s esophagus where cells have migrated from the stomach to the esophagus due to constant stress)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is anaplasia?

A

A change in the structure of cells and a change in their orientation to each other.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is aplasia?

A

The defective development, or congenital absence of an organ or tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is dysplasia?

A

Abnormal tissue growth with loss of cell orientation, shape, and size

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is dysplasia?

A

Abnormal tissue growth with loss of cell orientation, shape, and size

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Dysplasia is always what?

A

Pre-cancerous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What type of cell injury is found with lysosome swelling and rupture?

A

Irreversible as necrosis will occur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What cell injury occurs when fat calcification begins?

A

Irreversible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What happens to reversible damaged cells when looking at them with light microscope?

A

They have fatty changes (steatosis).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Is nuclear clumping the same as nuclear condensation?

A

NO!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the difference between necrosis and apoptosis?

A

Necrosis- common after ischemia and chemical injury CELL SWELLING. Apoptosis- is programmed cell death and CELL SHRINKAGE.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Does necrosis or apoptosis has neighbor or adjacent cell inflammation?

A

Usually necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What happens to the plasma membrane during necrosis?

A

It is disrupted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What happens to the plasma membrane during apoptosis?

A

Intact/altered.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What happens with the cells contents with necrosis ?

A

enzymatically digested

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What happens with the cells contents with apoptosis?

A

intact and packaged to be phagocytosed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What causes necrosis?

A

Inavriably pathologic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What causes apoptosis?

A

Often physiological

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What does serum CK-MB check for?

A

Cardiac tissue ischemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What does serum CK-BB check for?

A

Brain Tissue ischemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What does serum CK-MM check for?

A

Generic muscle ischemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What does cytochrome c do once it is outside of the mitochondrial membrane?

A

It induces secondary apoptotic effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are the sources of internal calcium?

A

1) mitochondrial damage2) cell injury (external calcium enters cell)3) ER damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Where will Vitamin E be doing free radical protection?

A

In the membranes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Glutothione is stored mostly where and to do what?

A

Stored in the retina to protect against all redox reactions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the role of P-450?

A

Detox. It is enzymes that increase the solubility of compounds and help excrete them.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the down side of P-450?

A

While detoxing it can make some reactive oxygen intermediates which can injure cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Where are the P-450 enzymes found?

A

In the Smooth ER of hepatocytes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What process is NADPH oxidase found in?

A

Pentose Shunt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Is iron required in the human body?

A

yes but excess can cause oxidative changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Is copper required in the human body?

A

Yes but only in trace amounts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Free radical injury is induced through what?

A

membrane lipid peroxidation, protein modification, DNA breakage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

How are free radicals degraded?

A

Through enzymes, spontaneous decay, and antioxidants.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Why is homogenated milk bad for us?

A

Xanthine oxidase is better absorbed in body and causes more free radicals in circulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Reperfusion after anoxia (an abnormally low amount of oxygen in the body tissues) induces what?

A

Free radical production.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are some free radicals found in the body?

A

Super oxide, peroxide, hydroxide and nitrous oxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are some antioxidants that neutralize the free radicals in the body that are found in the cytosol?

A

Superoxide dismutaseGlutathionePeroxidaseFerritinCeruloplasminQuercitin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is the function of ferritin?

A

Moves iron around the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the function of ceruloplasmin

A

Transports copper around the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Where is quercitin found?

A

in orange peel (white part)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What can initiate injury via free radicals?

A

Radiation exposure, metabolism of drugs (phase I), redox reaction, nitric oxide, transition metals, leukocyte oxidative burst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

How do free radicals cause cell injury?

A

Through membrane lipid peroxidation, protein modification and DNA breakage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What are the different types of necrosis?

A

1) Coagulative2) Liquefactive3) Caseous4) Fat5) Fibrinoid6) Gangrenous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Coagulative necrosis happens with necrosis to what areas?

A

Heart, liver, and kidney.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Coagulative necrosis is a result of what?

A

Protein denaturation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What will coagulative necrosis look like?

A

Preservation of basic cell outline for several days.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Liquefactive necrosis happens where?

A

Brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Liquefactive necrosis is characteristic of what 2 things?

A
  1. Bacterial infection. 2. CNS stroke.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Liquefactive necrosis is a result of what?

A

Enzymatic digestion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Gangrenous necrosis is associated with what area?

A

Limbs and GI tract.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Gangrenous necrosis usually results in what?

A

limb with loss of blood and Coagulation necrosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is wet gangrene?

A

Coagulation necrosis with liquifactive action of bacterial infection and attracted leukocytes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Caseous necrosis occurs due to what?

A

It is seen in tuberculosis infections.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is the appearance of caseous necrosis?

A

Cheesy white appearance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Caseous necrosis is a distinct form of which type of necrosis?

A

Coagulative necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is makes caseous necrosis a special form of coagulative necrosis?

A

Tissue architecture is obliterated unlike coagulative necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

How does Caseous necrosis look microscopically?

A

1) amorphus granular debris of fragmented coagulated cell2) amorphus granular debris enclosed within distinctive inflammatory border (granulmatous reaction)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Can scarring from caseous necrosis be seen via x-ray? And how long does scarring last?

A

Yes it can be seen in x-ray and the scarring remains with the patient for life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Fat necrosis occurs where?

A

In the pancreas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Is fat necrosis a typical necrosis pattern?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What will fat necrosis look like under microscope?

A

Foci of shadowy outlines of fat cells with basophilic calcium deposits surrounded by inflammatory reaction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What will fat necrosis look like grossly?

A

Chalky area due to fat saponification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Is fat necrosis focal or widespread?

A

Focal area of fat destruction usually due to lipase release

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What does P-450 do? What is an unfortunate result?

A

P-450 neutralizes toxins but creates free radicals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What is the stimulus for coagulative necrosis?

A

Hypoxia, toxins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What is the stimulus for apoptosis?

A

Physiologic and pathologic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What is the histology of the coagulative necrosis?

A

Cellular swellingcoagulative necrosisorganelle disruption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What is the histology for apoptosis?

A

Cellular shrinkageChromatin condensationApoptotic bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What is the DNA Breakdown in coagulative necrosis?

A

Random, diffuse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What is the DNA Breakdown in apoptosis?

A

Internucleosomal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What are the mechanisms of coagulative necrosis?

A

ATP depletionMembrane injuryFree radical damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What are the mechanisms of apoptosis?

A

Gene activationEndonucleasesProteases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What is the tissue reaction of coagulative necrosis?

A

Inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What is the tissue reaction of apoptosis?

A

No inflammationPhagocytosis of ABs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

During what instances does apoptosis occur?

A

1) Embryogenesis2) hormone induction (menstruation)3) immune cell-mediated death4) injurious stimuli (ie: radiation, hypoxia)5) regulation of cell population and tumor suppression6) atrophy (ie: endometrial lining during menopause)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Which type of cell death is more controlled?

A

Apoptosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Which type of cell death involves more cells?

A

Necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What are the two types of pathologic calcification?

A

Dystrophic calcificationMetastatic calcification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Where does Dystrophic calcification occur?

A

Deposition occurring locally in dying tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What happens to the serum calcium level of the dystrophic calcification?

A

Nothing, it is normal serum calcium level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Is there any calcium metabolism pathology associated with dystrophic calcification?

A

No, no calcium metabolism pathology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What are some examples of dystrophic calcification?

A

Atherosclerosis of arteries, damaged heart valves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Where does metastatic calcification occur?

A

Deposition in otherwise normal tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What happens to the serum calcium level of the metabolic calcification?

A

Systemic elevation calcium levels in the blood and all tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What usually causes metastatic calcification?

A

Usually due to secondary hypercalcemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What happens to calcium levels in injured cells with dystrophic calcification?

A

The calcium levels will increase due to release from ER and mitochondria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What happens to mitochondrial initiation with dystrophic calcification?

A

The mitochondrial permeability transition increases and therefore calcium diffuses through into the cell.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What is arachidonic acid?

A

Arachidonic acid is derived from phospholipids through the action of phospholipases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

How is arachidonic acid metabolized?

A

1) Lipoxygenase pathway2) Cyclooxygenase pathway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What are the 5 arachidonic acid derivatives?

A

1) Leukotrienes2) Lipoxins3) Thromboxane4) Prostacyclin5) Prostaglandins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What is the function of leukotrienes?

A

Chemoxtaxis, vascular permeability and bronchospasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What is the function of lipoxins?

A

vasodilatation, inhibition of neutrophil chemotaxis, and monocyte adhesion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What is the function of thromboxane?

A

Platelet aggregation, thrombosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What is the function of Prostacyclin?

A

Opposes the effects of thromboxane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What is the function of Prostaglandins?

A

Smooth muscle contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Is Omega 3 fatty acids (fish oil) a good substrate for conversion?

A

No it is a poor substrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Are animal fats good for conversion to substrate?

A

Yes, animal fat is a good substrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Generally, what lymphokines are released with macrophage activation and lead to inflammation?

A

Interleukin-1 and Tumor Necrosis factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

What are the acute-phase reactions activated by interleukin-1 and tumor necrosis factor?

A

1) Fever2) increased sleep need3) decreased appetite4) Increased acute-phase proteins5) hemodynamic effects (shock)6) Neutrophilia (attract neutrophils)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

What are the endothelial effects activated by interleukin-1 and tumor necrosis factor?

A

1) increased leukocyte adherence2) Increased prostacyclin synthesis3) Increased procoagulant activity4) decreased anticoagulant activity5) Increased Interleukin and platelet derived growth factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

What are the fibroblast effects activated by interleukin-1 and tumor necrosis factor?

A

1) increased proliferation2) increased collagen synthesis3) increased collagenase4) increased protease5) increased prostaglandin synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

What are the leukocyte effects activated by interleukin-1 and tumor necrosis factor?

A

Increased cytokine secretion (interleukin 6 and 8)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

What does long term tumor necrotic factor production lead to?

A

Cachexia (wasting away syndrome)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

What leads to the pathogenesis of fever?

A

TNF and IL-1 that changes the set point of internal temperature in the hypothalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

What are two types of edema?

A

Exudate and Transudate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

What is exudate made of?

A

It is rich in protein and blood cells and are typical of inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

What is transudate made of?

A
  • Contains less protein and fewer cells

- an ultra-filtrate of plasma fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

What is a typical cause of transudate?

A

Typical of hydrostatic or osmotic pressure pathology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

What is the specific gravity of transudate?

A

Specific gravity is usually less than 1.012 and a protein content of less than 2gm/100mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

What are some factors towards the pathogenesis of Edema?

A

1) increase in hydrostatic pressure2) Increase in wall permeability3) Decrease oncotic pressure (decrease albumin concentration)4) Lymphatic obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Is transudate hypocellular or cellular?

A

Hypocellular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Is transudate protein rich or poor?

A

Protein poor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

What is the specific gravity of transudate?

A

Specific gravity <1.012

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

What is transudate due to?

A

Increased hydrostatic pressureDecreased Oncotic pressureNa+ retention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Is exudate hypocellular or cellular?

A

Cellular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Is exudate protein rich or poor?

A

Protein rich

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

What is the specific gravity of exudate?

A

Specific gravity >1.020

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

What is exudate due to?

A

Lymphatic obstruction or Inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

What are the 4 mechanisms of MMP regulation?

A
  1. regulation of synthesis by growth factors or cytokines. 2. Inhibition of synthsis by corticosteroids or TGF-beta. 3. secreted in inactive form. 4. Blockage of the enzymes by specific tissue inhibitors of metalloproteinase.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

The inflammation phase of wound healing lasts how long?

A

3 days.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

The granulation tissue phase of the healing process takes place when?

A

0.3 days until 10 days.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

The wound contraction phase of the healing process takes place when?

A

3 days to 30 days.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

What will clean up an injured site after the healing process?

A

Macrophages.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

What type of scaring occurs with primary intention healing?

A

Minimal scarring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

What type of scaring occurs with secondary intention healing?

A

Broader scar result of granulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

What type of scaring occurs with tertiary intention healing?

A

Wound is purposely left open

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

What type of injury is primary intention healing?

A

Little tissue loss.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Most surgical wounds heal by which intention?

A

Primary intention healing. (wound edges are directly next to each other)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

How is a primary intention wound is closed?

A

By sutures, staples or adhesive.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

What is allowed to happen to the wound with secondary intention healing?

A

It is allowed to granulate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Why can the healing process be slower with secondary intention healing?

A

Due to the presence of drainage from infection and surgeons may pack the wound with gauze or use a drainage system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

How long will a tertiary intention scar be left open?

A

4-5 days.(where the wound is initially cleaned, debrided and observed before closure)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

What is Keloid?

A

Excess collagen deposition in the skin forming a raised scar.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

What is inflammation?

A

The reaction of the blood vessels, leading to the accumulation of fluid and leukocytes in the extravascular tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

What is the function of inflammation?

A

A protective response- eliminate microbes and toxins- eliminate necrotic cells and tissues- prepare for tissue repair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

What do neutrophils do?

A

First responder (acute inflammation) bacterial or fungal infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

What forms pus?

A

Increased activity and death of neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

What general percentage of WBC’s do neutrophils make up?

A

60%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

What do lymphocytes do?

A

Chronic inflammation- T cell and B cell response/activation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

What general percentage of WBC’s do lymphocytes make up?

A

30%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

What do monocytes do?

A

Long lived Phagocyte that present pathogen parts to T cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

What are monocytes when they are in tissue?

A

Macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

What general percentage of WBC’s do monocytes make up?

A

5-6%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

What do eosinophils do?

A

Parasite and Allergic response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

What general percentage of WBC’s do eosinophils make up?

A

2-3%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

What do basophils do?

A

Allergic and antigen response and releasing the chemical histamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

What are basophils when they are in tissue?

A

Mast Cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

What general percentage of WBC’s do basophils make up?

A

<1%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

What is the order from largest to smallest of the WBC’s?

A

NeutrophilsLymphocytesMonocytesEosinophilsBasophils(Never Let Monkeys Eat Bananas)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

Where do T lymphocytes mature?

A

Thymus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

Where do B lymphocytes mature?

A

Bone maroow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

Are thrombocytes WBCs?

A

No they are platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

What is the function of thrombocytes?

A

To plug up holes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

What is the life span of an RBC?

A

120 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

What is the life span of WBC?

A

days to years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

What is the life span of a platelet?

A

8 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

What are the two types of inflammation?

A

Acute and Chronic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

What is the duration and onset speed of acute inflammation?

A

Rapid onset and short duration (min/hours/days)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

Is there edema with acute inflammation?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

What type of leukocyte is predominantly present with acute inflammation?

A

Predominantly neutrophils, but also eosinophils and antibody mediated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

What is the duration and onset speed of chronic inflammation?

A

Slower onsetLong duration (wks, months, years)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

What are some characteristic appearances of chronic inflammation?

A

Presence of new blood vessels, fibrosis, and tissue necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

What type of leukocyte is predominantly present with chronic inflammation?

A

Predominantly macrophages and lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

What are the key signs and symptoms of acute inflammation?

A

1) Redness2) Heat3) Swelling4) Pain5) Loss of function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

What is the Latin term for redness?

A

Rubor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

What is the Latin term for heat?

A

Calor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

What is the Latin term for swelling?

A

Tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

What is the Latin term for Pain?

A

Dolor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

What is the Latin term for Loss of function?

A

Functio laesa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

What vascular changes occur with inflammation?

A

1) Vascular dilation and increased blood flow (causing erythema and warmth)2) Extravasation and deposition of plasma fluid and proteins (edema)3) Leukocyte emigration and accumulation in the site of injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

What is the net flow of fluid of microvasculature in normal circulation?

A

Small flow out of the precapillary arteriole but returned in the precapillary venuole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

What happens to the net flow of the microvasculature with acute inflammation?

A

Arteriole pressure is increased and the mean capillary pressure is increased due to arteriolar dilation. The venous pressure increases and the osmotic colloidal pressure is reduced due to protein leakage across the venule which results in an excess of extravasated tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

What is oncotic pressure?

A

Pressure bringing in fluid into vasculature from tissue due to albumin concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

What causes oncotic pressure?

A

Albumin concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

What controls arteriole pressure?

A

Sphincters of muscles that clamp off blood flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

What collects the small flow out of the capillary bed?

A

Lymphatic system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

What is hyperemia?

A

Increased blood flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

What occurs with the precapillary sphincter during normal circumstances?

A

The precapillary sphincters are closed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

What occurs with the precapillary sphincter during acute inflammation?

A

The precapillary sphincters are open

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

During normal flow how are the RBC’s and platelets and neutrophils distributed?

192
Q

Where in a circulatory vessel is the flow the fastest?

A

The middle because of laminar flow

193
Q

What is the term for the stacking of RBCs as they move towards laminar flow?

A

Rouleaux of RBC

194
Q

What does marginalization of neutrophils refer to?

A

When the neutrophils are pushed aside and moving towards the endothelium

195
Q

What is the rouleaux relation to erythrocyte sedimentation rate?

A

It elevates the ESR

196
Q

What are the steps of leukocyte extravasation?

A

1) Margination2) Pavementing3) Extravascular migration

197
Q

What is the main leukocyte of margination?

A

Neutrophils

198
Q

What are the parts of the pavementing stage of leukocyte extravasation?

A

1) rolling2) tight binding3) diapedesis/migration

199
Q

What are some parts of tight binding of the pavementing stage of leukocyte extravasation?

A

1) integrin activation2) stable adhesion

200
Q

What occurs in extravascular migration?

A

Chemokines and cytokines direct the leukocyte to go to specific area

201
Q

What are the 3 steps of phagocytosis of a particle?

A

1) recognition and attachment- microbes bind to phagocyte receptors2) engulfment- phagocyte membrane zips up around microbe3) killing and degradation- fusion of phagosome with lysosome- killing of microbes by lysosomal enzymes in phagolysosome

202
Q

What 2 groups are the mediators of inflammation divided into?

A

1) plasma derived2) cell derived

203
Q

Do mediators of inflammation act only on a single cell?

A

No, they are multifunctional and act on many cells and tissues

204
Q

Are mediators of inflammation biochemically the same or diverse?

A

Biochemically diverse including biogenic amines, peptides and arachidonic acid derivatives

205
Q

What is a histamine?

A

Biogenic amine that is from a cell derived source (stored in cell)

206
Q

Where histamines released from?

A

Platelets and mast cells

207
Q

What is the function of histamine?

A

Stimulates retraction of endothelial cells of the venules and leads to gaps therefore increased permeability

208
Q

Is the action of histamine short or long and why?

A

The action of histamine is short because it is inactivated by histaminase

209
Q

What vitamin stabilizes mast cells?

A

Vitamin C, during an acute response

210
Q

What is bradykinin?

A

Plasma protein in the liver that is derived from kininogen through the enzymatic action of kallikrein?

211
Q

what is Kallikrein do and what is it activated by?

A

Kallikrein acts on the clotting and fibrinolytic systems of the blood and activated by Hageman factor

212
Q

What does bradykinin induce?

213
Q

What is the relationship between bradykinin and histamine?

A

They both have a similar action

214
Q

What were the mast cells called before they exited the blood vessel?

215
Q

What does neoplasia mean?

A

New Growth

216
Q

What does tumor mean?

A

Swelling, formation of masses

217
Q

What does cancer mean?

A

Tissue invasion appearance like crawling crab

218
Q

What does oncology mean?

A

Study of Swelling

219
Q

What does carcinoma in situ mean?

A

Means “in its place” but is a tumor that has not penetrated the basement membrane

220
Q

Are all tumors a neoplasia?

221
Q

Is a neoplasia always a tumor?

A

No, sometimes there’s no distinct mass as in leukemia or malignant disease of bone marrow

222
Q

What are the 3 types of reversible plasias?

A

1) Hyperplasia2) Metaplsia3) Dysplasia

223
Q

What are the 3 types of irreversible plasias?

A

1) anaplasia2) neoplasia3) desmoplasia

224
Q

What is anaplasia?

A

Irreversible Abnormal cells lacking differentiation; like primitive cells equated with undifferentiated malignant neoplasms

225
Q

What is desmoplasia?

A

Irreversible Fibrous tissue formation in response to neoplasm

226
Q

What are the two classifications of tumors?

A

BenignMalignant

227
Q

How are tumors classified?

A

Histologically

228
Q

How do the growths of benign and malignant tumors differ?

A

Benign tumors are slow and expansive and malignant tumors are fast and invasive

229
Q

Are both benign and malignant tumors metastatic?

A

No, Benign tumors are not metastatic

230
Q

How do the external surface features of benign and malignant tumors differ?

A

Benign = smoothMalignant = irregular

231
Q

Do both benign and malignant tumors have capsules?

A

No, only benign tumors have capsules

232
Q

Are both benign and malignant tumors capable of necrosis?

A

No, only malignant tumors are capable of necrosis

233
Q

Are both benign and malignant tumors capable of hemorrhage?

A

No, only malignant tumors are capable of hemorrhage

234
Q

How does the architechture of benign and malignant tumors differ?

A

Benign = resembles normal tissue of originMalignant = Does not resemble normal tissue of origin

235
Q

How does the cells of benign and malignant tumors differ?

A

Benign = well differentiatedMalignant = Poorly differentiated

236
Q

How do the nuclei of benign and malignant tumors differ?

A

Benign = normal size and shape; uniformMalignant = pleomorphic (variable in shape)

237
Q

How does the mitosis of benign and malignant tumors differ?

A

Benign = few in mitosisMalignant = many and irregular

238
Q

What is a regular nuclear to cytoplasmic ratio?

239
Q

What does a nuclear to cytoplasmic ratio of 1:2 or 1:3 signify?

A

It means they are neoplastic

240
Q

What does metastasis mean?

A

Change in position

241
Q

What are the main pathways of metastasis?

A

1) lymphatics2) blood (hematogenous spread)3) Seeding surface of body cavities (transcoelomic spread)

242
Q

What are some other pathways of metastasis?

A

Intraepithelial

243
Q

What are the steps of hematogenous metastatic cascade?

A

1) primary tumor2) metastatic clone evolves3) proliferation of the clone and invasion of vessel4) transport by circulation5) emobilization6) invasion7) new tumor formation at the site of metastasis

244
Q

What is transcoelomic spreading?

A

Direct seeding of a cavity by neoplastic cells within that cavity therefore there is no plane of resistance to spreading

245
Q

What is intraepithelial spread?

A

1) Tumor cells infiltrate between the cells of normal epithelium without invading the underlying stroma

246
Q

What is the best example of intraepithelial spread?

A

Paget’s disease of the nipple where cells of ductal carcinoma in situ grow into nipple skin and resemble eczema

247
Q

What is tumor-induced angiogenesis?

A

The biologic role of tumors to overcome limitation of nutrient and oxygen delivery

248
Q

What do mesenchymal tumors with the -oma ending mean?

A

It stands for a mesenchymal benign tumor

249
Q

What do mesenchymal tumors with the -sarcoma ending mean?

A

It means that it is a mesenchymal malignant tumor

250
Q

What do epithelial tumors with the adenoma ending mean?

A

It is a benign epithelial tumor

251
Q

What do epithelial tumors with the carcinoma ending mean?

A

It is a malignant epithelial tumor

252
Q

What are the three exceptions to the “oma” being benign rule? Why?

A

LymphomaMultiple myelomaGliomaBecause they only exist via blood cells, lymph system and glial cells

253
Q

What is common between squamous cell carcinoma and adenocarcinoma?

A

They both are surrounded by non-neoplastic stroma

254
Q

What are some tumors of blood cells and lymphocytes?

A

LeukemiaLymphomaMultiple Myeloma

255
Q

What are some tumors of neural cells?

A

GanglioneuromaNeuroblastoma

256
Q

What are some tumors of glial and nueral suporting cells?

A

Glioma and meningioma

257
Q

What are some germ cell tumors?

A

Teratoma, embryonal carcinoma and seminom/dysgerminoma

258
Q

What are blastomas?

A

Blastomas are malignant tumors composed of embryonic cells originating from embryonic primordia

259
Q

What is a teratoma?

A

Teratomas are derived from germ cells and contain tissues that are formed from all three germ layers: etoderm, mesoderm and endoderm

260
Q

What are eponymic tumors?

A

These tumors carry the name of physicians who have described them first

261
Q

What does Hodgkin’s disease affect?

A

lymph nodes

262
Q

What does Ewing’s sarcoma affect?

263
Q

What does Kaposi’s sarcoma affect?

264
Q

What is tumor staging based on?

A

Clinical assessment during gross examination, surgery, x-ray examinations

265
Q

What is the grading of tumors based on?

A

Based on histologic examination

266
Q

What does the TNM system of staging take account for?

A

T = size of tumorN = presence of lymph node metastasesM = Distant metastases

267
Q

What is the grading scale of the TNM system?

A

0-4 in each category TNM

268
Q

What grading of M signifies metastases?

A

a 1 represents metastasis

269
Q

What do the roman numeral stages of tumor range from?

270
Q

What is a stage 0 tumor?

A

A carcinoma that is in situ

271
Q

What is a stage I cancer?

A

Cancer that is localized to one part of the body

272
Q

What is a stage II cancer?

A

A locally advanced (same as stage III but specific criteria differ according to diagnosis)

273
Q

In Hodgkin’s disease what is the difference between stage II and stage III?

A

Stage II: lymph nodes on only one side of the diaphragmStage III: lymph nodes above and below the diaphragm

274
Q

What is a stage IV cancer?

A

Canvers that have metastasized or spread to other organs or throughout the body

275
Q

what is the Ann Arbor staging for? and what stages are there?

A

For lymphomas ranging from stage I - IV

276
Q

What is a stage I in the Ann arbor staging?

A

Cancer is located in a single region, usually one lymph node and the surrounding area. Stage I often will not have outward symptoms

277
Q

What is a stage II in the Ann arbor staging?

A

Cancer is located in two separate regions, an affected lymph node or organ within the lymphatic system and a second affected area, and that both affected areas a confined to one side of the diaphragm (ie: both are above the diaphragm or both are below the diaphragm)

278
Q

What is a stage III in the Ann arbor staging?

A

Cancer has spread to both sides of the diaphragm, including one organ or area near the lymph nodes or the spleen

279
Q

What is a stage IV in the Ann arbor staging?

A

Diffuse or disseminated involvement of one or more extralymphatic organs, including any involvement of the liver, bone marrow, or nodular involvement of the lungs

280
Q

What does the tumor grades range from?

A

Grade I - III

281
Q

What is tumor grading based on?

A

Histologic examination

282
Q

What is a grade I tumor?

A

well differentiated

283
Q

What is a grade II tumor?

A

Moderately well differentiated

284
Q

What is a grade III tumor?

A

undifferentiated

285
Q

Overall, which has more predictive value, grading or staging of tumors?

286
Q

Is the difference between normal and malignant cells qualitative or quantitative?

A

Quantitative

287
Q

Are cancer cells more or less adapted to survive unfavorable conditions and are they more or less differentiated than normal cells?

A

Cancer cells are less differentiated and more adapted to survive under unfavorable conditions as they require less oxygen to survive

288
Q

In which gender has deaths from lung cancer plateaued? and which is continuing to rise?

A

Males = plateauFemales = rise

289
Q

Is cancer the leading cause of death in the US?

A

No it is number 2, heart disease is 1st

290
Q

Define Incidence

A

The number of new cases that have been registered over a specific time in a defined population

291
Q

Define prevalence

A

The number of all cases, new and old, within a defined population at a defined time

292
Q

Define Mortality

A

The number of deaths attributed to cancer during a specified period in a defined population

293
Q

Define morbidity

A

number suffering from a disease that has been registered over a specific time in a defined population

294
Q

What is the most important risk factor and most common initial symptom for lung cancer?

A

Smoking -> Cough

295
Q

What is the most important risk factor and most common initial symptom for breast cancer?

A

Family history of cancer -> lump

296
Q

What is the most important risk factor and most common initial symptom for colon cancer?

A

Family history of colonic polyps -> blood in stool

297
Q

What is the most important risk factor and most common initial symptom for cervix cancer?

A

Promiscuity (early intercourse or multiple partners) -> vaginal bleeding (spotting)

298
Q

What is the most important risk factor and most common initial symptom for uterus cancer?

A

Hormonal: imbalance and treatment -> vaginal bleeding

299
Q

What is the most important risk factor and most common initial symptom for skin cancer?

A

Sun exposure -> sun lesion

300
Q

What is the most important risk factor and most common initial symptom for prostate cancer?

A

Old age -> dysuria

301
Q

What cancer has the highest incidence in men?

302
Q

What cancer is the second highest incidence in men and women?

A

Lung & bronchus

303
Q

What cancer is the third highest incidence in men and women?

A

Colon & rectum

304
Q

What cancer has the highest incidence in women?

305
Q

What cancer has the highest mortality in men and women?

A

Lung & bronchus

306
Q

What cancer has the third highest mortality in men and women?

A

Colon & rectum

307
Q

What cancer has the second highest mortality in men?

308
Q

What cancer has the second highest mortality in women?

309
Q

Where does metastatic cancers usually travel to?

A

LiverLungBrainBone

310
Q

What does metastatic cancer usually indicate?

A

A poor pronosis

311
Q

How does the insertion part of viral carcinogens?

A

Slow transforming oncogenic RNA viruses, insert into the genome and activate a latent cellular oncogene, which is then capable of transforming the normal cell into a malignant cell

312
Q

What are the different types of human carcinogenic viruses?

A

DNA viruses and RNA viruses

313
Q

What are some examples of human carcinogenic DNA viruses?

A
  • Human Papilloma virus- Epstein-Barr virus- Hepatitis B and C virus- Kaposi’s sarcoma-associated herpesvirus
314
Q

What are the types of HPV that can cause cervical, penile/anal carcinoma?

315
Q

What can epstein-barr virus cause?

A

Burkitt’s lymphoma (B cell neoplasia)Nasopharyngeal carcinoma

316
Q

What can Hepatitis B and C virus cause?

A

Liver cancer

317
Q

What can Kaposi’s sarcoma-associated herpesvirus cause?

A

Kaposi’s sarcoma, a type of skin cancer

318
Q

What is a type of RNA virus and what can it cause?

A

Human T-cell leukemia/lymphoma virus and it can cause adult T cell leukemia (HIV group)

319
Q

What are human oncogenes?

A

Homologous to viral oncogenes and thus called cellular oncogenes

320
Q

What do human oncogenes represent?

A

Represent activated normal genes (proto-oncogenes)

321
Q

How does an oncogene function?

A

An oncogene has gained function and becomes a cancer-inducing agent

322
Q

How many damaged allele does it require to activate an oncogene?

A

Only 1 damaged allele

323
Q

What are different ways of transformation of proto-oncogenes into oncogenes?

A

1) point mutation2) gene amplification3) chromosomal rearrangement4) insertion of viral oncogene

324
Q

What do tumor suppressor genes do?

A

Protect the cells against activated or newly acuired oncogenes

325
Q

What happens to a tumor suppressor gene that has lost function?

A

It is no longer a cancer-inhibiting agent

326
Q

How many tumor suppressor gene alleles out of the two need to be lost in order for expression of disease?

A

Both alleles

327
Q

What are different types of Hereditary cancer?

A

1) Neurofibromatosis type 12) familial adenomatous polyposis coli3) Wilms’ tumor4) Skin tumors in xeroderma pigmentosum5) chromosomal fragility syndromes (Bloom’s syndrome, Fanconi’s syndrome)

328
Q

What are some cells that pose an immune response to tumors?

A

1) Natural Killer Cell2) Macrophage3) Neutrophil4) B lymphocyte5) Cytotoxic T lymphocyte

329
Q

What is the immunotherapy of Cancer?

A

1) some tumors involute spontaneously under the influence of immune factors2) BcG (attenuated tuberculosis bacillus of calmette and Guerin) is used for treatment of bladder cancer3) Tumor vaccines are used for treatment of melanoma and renal cell carcinoma

330
Q

Should tumor markers be used as a primary tool for cancer diagnosis?

331
Q

What should tumor markers be used for?

A

Confirming a diagnosis, to monitor for tumor recurrence and to monitor response to therapy

332
Q

What is the Tg tumor marker detect?

A

Thyroglobulin. Thyroid cancers

333
Q

What is active hyperemia?

A

Dilatation of arterioles leading to blushing, exercise, inflammation

334
Q

What is passive hyperemia?

A

Venous back pressure; often associated with hydrostatic edema, cyanosis- heart failure - pulmonary edema and heart failure cells

335
Q

What does a chronic passive congestion of lungs lead to?

A

Leads to edema and RBC extravasation into alveoli

336
Q

What is a chronic passive congestion of lungs accompanied by?

A

Accompanied by anoxia & often results in pulmonary fibrosis

337
Q

In a chronic passive congestion of the lungs, what does an alveolar macrophage do?

A

Alveolar macrophages take up RBC & degrade hemoglobin = hemosiderin accumulation

338
Q

Cardiac hemorrhage is often what? And what is it caused by?

A
  • often fatal

- MI, Gun Shot Wound, stabbing wound

339
Q

What is an aortic hemorrhage caused by?

A
  • MVA (organs kee moving at a high speed and rips off part of aorta via ligamentum arteriosum - weakness due to copper deficiency -> aneurysm
340
Q

What will an arterial hemorrhage look like? What causes it?

A
  • penetrating wound, fractured bones

- presents as a bright red, pulsating/squirting

341
Q

What will cause a capillary hemorrage? What does it do to venous pressure?

A
  • Trauma, weakness due to vitamin C (scurvy) -increase in venous pressure
342
Q

With the venous, how does it present as a hemorrhage?

A

Dark/bluish color, oozing

343
Q

In a hemorrage what are some signs and symptoms?

A
  • Intracerebral hemorrhage
  • Hematemesis or hemoptysis
  • Cardiac hemorrhage
  • Venous hemorrhage
  • Aortic hemorrhage
  • Capillary hemorrhage
  • hematochezia or melena (from anus)
  • Hematuria
344
Q

What are some clinically important forms of hemorrhage?

A
  • skin/surface hemorrhage
  • large accumulation of blood in body cavities/space
  • hemoptysis
  • epistaxis
345
Q

What are some different types of skin/surface hemorrhage?

A
  • petechia
  • purpura
  • ecchymosis
346
Q

What is a petechia?

A

<1 mm and speckles of blood vessels

347
Q

What is purpura?

A

Between 1 mm- 1cm and larger blotches

348
Q

What is ecchymosis?

A

Large/blotchy bruises

349
Q

What are some large accumulation of blood in body cavities/spaces?

A

Hemothorax, hemopericardium, hemoperitoneum, or hemarthrosis

350
Q

What is a hemoptysis?

A

Respiratory tract/expectoration of blood

351
Q

What is a epistaxis?

A

Nose bleed

352
Q

What is hematemesis?

A

Vomiting blood

353
Q

What is hematochezia

A

anorectal bleeding

354
Q

what is melena

A

passage of black blood in stool

355
Q

what is hematuria

A

blood in urine

356
Q

What is metrorrhagia?

A

bleeding not related to normal monthly menses

357
Q

what is menorrhagia?

A

Profound menstrual bleeding

358
Q

What happens in a massive hemorrhage?

A

Blood loss, hypovolemic shock, exsanguination, death

359
Q

If <500 ml of blood is lost what happens?

A

homeostatic compensation but it is reversible

360
Q

If 1000-1500 ml of blood is lost what happens?

A

Circulatory shock

361
Q

If >1500 ml of blood is lost what happens?

362
Q

What are some of the types of hemorrhage?

A
  • Massive hemmorhage
  • Hematoma
  • Intracerebral hemorrhage
  • Chronic hemorrhage
363
Q

What can an intracerebral hemorrhage lead to?

A

Stroke, death

364
Q

What can a chronic hemorrhage lead to?

A

Slow blood loss, iron deficiency anemia (70 ml for normal menstruation)

365
Q

Which hemorrhage has a better outcome, Subdural or epidural hemorrhage?

A

A subdural hemorrhage because the lower pressure veins bleed more slowly than arteries

366
Q

What Is the different types of pathogenesis causes of Edema?

A

1) Inflammatory2) Hydrostatic3) Oncotic4) Obstructive5) Hypervolemic

367
Q

Why does inflammatory lead to the pathogenesis of edema?

A

Increases permeability & hyperemia

368
Q

How does hydrostatic lead to the pathogenesis of edema?

A

Increased arterial pressure (hypertension)Increased venous back pressure (heart failure)

369
Q

How does the oncotic pressure lead to the pathogenesis of edema?

A

Hypoalbuminemia due to:-loss/proteinuria- decreased protein synthesis

370
Q

How does the obstruction lead to the pathogenesis of edema?

A
  • Most often b tumor or chronic inflammation- Filaria (worm) -> elephantiasis
371
Q

How does hypovolemia lead to the pathogenesis of edema?

A

Usually d/t sodium and water retention:- kidney function, renin, angiotensinogen, & aldosterone- Kidney disease -> increased renin release -> angiotensinogen -> increased aldosterone -> increased Na retention -> increased water retention

372
Q

What are some clinical forms of edema?

A

1)Cerebral edema2) Pulmonary edema (d/t left-sided heart failure, post-surgery)3) Pitting edema of the lower extremities4) Periorbital (facial) edema5) Hydrothroax6) Hydropericardium7) Hydroperitoneum (ascites)8) Anasarca (Extremegeneralized edema)

373
Q

What is TORCH(ES) syndrome?

A

a medical acronym for a set of perinatal infections (i.e. infections that are passed from a pregnant woman to her fetus).

374
Q

When should we test for TORCH(ES) syndrome?

A

Early in pregnancy.

375
Q

What will the T in Torches syndrome stand for and how do we get it?

A

Toxoplasma we get it from cat shit so stay away from Julie.

376
Q

What will the O in TORCHES syndrome stand for?

A

Others that are less common like Epstein-Barr virus, Varicella virus, Listeria monocytogenes, leptospira.

377
Q

What will the R in TORCHES syndrome stand for?

378
Q

What will the C in TORCHES syndrome stand for?

A

Cytomegalovirus (CMV).

379
Q

What will the H in TORCHES syndrome stand for?

A

Herpesvirus.

380
Q

What will the (ES) in TORCH(ES) syndrome stand for?

381
Q

What does rubella cause?

A

1) Small (microcephaly)/strucuraly abnormal brain2) Heart defects.

382
Q

What will Toxoplasma cause?

A

1) Microcalcification of basal ganglia and dilation of lateral ventricles (hydrocephalus)2) CNS defects.

383
Q

What will cytomegalovirus (CMV) cause?

A

The same as Toxoplasma.

384
Q

What will herpesvirus affect?

A

1) CNS defects2) Skin lesions.

385
Q

What are 2 types of chromosomal anomalies?

A

Structural and numerical anomalies

386
Q

What is Aneuploidy?

A

Loss or gain of chromosomes.

387
Q

What are 2 types of aneuploidy?

A

Hyperdiploidy- 46+1 or 46+2. Hypodiploidy- 46-1 or 46-2.

388
Q

What is monosomy?

A

Missing one chromosome

389
Q

What is Trisomy?

A

Gaining an extra chromosome (3 of one chromosome)

390
Q

What is the most common risk factor for Down syndrome?

A

Paternal age increases risk of having a baby born with down syndrome

391
Q

What disorder is associated with Down syndrome?

A

Trisomy 21 (D= drinking age 21)

392
Q

What disorder is associated with Edward’s syndrome?

A

Trisomy 18 (E = election age 18)

393
Q

What disorder is associated with Patau’s syndrome?

A

Trisomy 13 (P = puberty age 13)

394
Q

Of the 3 disorders Down, Edward’s and Patau’s, which one is most common?

A

Down Syndrome

395
Q

What happens to a baby’s hands with down syndrome?

A

Simian crease.

396
Q

Down syndrome or trisomy 21 leads to what mental issues?

A

Most commonly leads to mental retardation

397
Q

How will down syndrome affect the head?

A

Flat facial profile and epicanthic folds

398
Q

How will down syndrome affect the heart?

A

Congenital heart defects like septum primum due to endocardial cushion defects.

399
Q

How will down syndrome affect the limbs and feet?

A

HypotoniaA gap between first 2 toes.

400
Q

What is the life expectancy with edwards sydnrome aka trisomy 18?

A

less than 1 year.

401
Q

What will edwards syndrome cause?

A

Severe mental retardation.

402
Q

How will edwards syndrome affect the head?

A

1) Prominent occiput2) micrognathia (small jaw)3) low set ears.

403
Q

How will Down syndrome affect the umbilicus and intestines?

A

Causes umbilical hernia and intestinal stenosis

404
Q

What is the incidence of down syndrome?

A

1 in 700 births

405
Q

How will edwards syndrome affect the heart?

A

Congenital heart defects will be present.

406
Q

How will edwards syndrome affect the hands and feet?

A

Hands- Clenched hands Feet- Rocker-bottom feet.

407
Q

What is the life expectancy with down syndrome?

A

45-50 years old

408
Q

What is the incidence of Edward’s syndrome?

A

1 in every 8000 births

409
Q

What some limb changes with Edward’s symptoms

A

Limited hip abductionRocker bottom feet

410
Q

What is the incidence of Edward’s syndrome?

411
Q

What are some neurological issues with patau symptoms?

A

Microcephaly and mental retardation

412
Q

What are some head changes with patau symptoms?

A

Cleft lip and palateMicrophthalmia

413
Q

What are some limb issues with patau symptoms?

A

1) Polydactylyl2) Focker -bottom feel

414
Q

What is the incidence of Patau syndrome?

A

1 in 15000

415
Q

What is the life expectancy of Down syndrome?

416
Q

What is the life expectancy of Edwards syndrome?

417
Q

What is the life expectancy of Patau syndrome?

418
Q

In which disorder(s), (Downs, Edwards, Patau) does mental retardation occur?

A

Yes, severe in Edwards and Patauand the most common cause is Down Syndrome

419
Q

What are some other disease risks for Down Syndrome?

A

ALL, Alzheimer’s >age 35

420
Q

What are two disorders that are caused by abnormalities of sex chromosomes?

A

1) Turner syndrome2) Klinefelter syndrome

421
Q

Who can get turner’s syndrome and who can get Klinefelter’s syndrome?

A

They are abnormalities of sex chromosomes so only females can get Turners and Only males can get Klinefelter’s syndrome.

422
Q

Pathogenesis of sex chromosome abnormalities are due to what?

A

Nondisjunction.

423
Q

What is nondisjunction?

A

Failure of paired chromosome to separate.

424
Q

How common is Turners syndrome?

A

1 in every 3,000 female births.

425
Q

What are the symptoms of Turners syndrome? (It’s super long, sorry)

A

1) Short stature2) heart- shaped face3) low posterior hairline4) webbing of neck5) heart disease and coarctation of aorta6) broad chest and widely spaced nipples7) pigmented nevi (moles)8) cubitus valgus(elbows turned in)9) streak ovaries, hypoplastic uterus, amenorrhea10) peripheral lymphedema at birth.

426
Q

Are Turner’s considered male or female?

A

Female presentation

427
Q

What symptoms will Klinefelter’s syndrome present with?

A

1) Tall long arms and legs2) lack of beard body hair and pubic hair3) gynecomastia4) female like hips5) testicular atrophy.

428
Q

Is Klinefelter syndrome considered male or female?

A

Male presentation (based on penis presentation)

429
Q

What type of disorder is spherocytosis?

A

A congenital RBC membrane disorder. IT is an autosomal dominant disease.

430
Q

What are 3 possible symptoms of spherocytosis?

A

anemia, jaundice, splenomegaly.

431
Q

How is spherocytosis diagnosed?

A

requires demonstration of increased RBC osmotic fragility and negative direct antiglobulin test.

432
Q

How often will spherocytosis patients less than 45 years old need a splenectomy?

433
Q

With spherocytosis what causes RBC abnormalities?

A

Alterations in membrane proteins.

434
Q

What alternations in membrane proteins of RBC happens with spherocytosis?

A

Surface area is decreased disproportionately to the intracellular content.

435
Q

What will decreased surface area of a RBC membrane cause?

A

Flexibility needed for the cell to traverse the spleen’s microcirulation.

436
Q

With western treatments how will spherocytosis be cured?

A

Splenectomy.

437
Q

Presence of spherocytes in the peripheral blood smear suggest what?

A
  1. Hereditary spherocytosis (HS). 2. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia (AIHA).
438
Q

When there are spherocytes in the peripheral blood smear how can you distinguish between hereditary spherocytosis or autoimmune hemolytic anemia?

A

Coomb’s test.

439
Q

What will a negative and positive Coomb’s test mean?

A

Negative- Hereditary spherocytosis. Positive- Autoimmune hemolytic anemia.

440
Q

Huntington’s disease is what type of disorder?

A

An autosomal dominant characterized by chorea and progressive cognitive deterioration.

441
Q

How will Huntington’s disease be diagnosed?

A

Genetic testing.

442
Q

What is treatment of Huntington’s disease like?

A

Supportative.

443
Q

What type of relatives of patients with Huntington’s disease should be tested?

A

first-degree relatives.

444
Q

Will Huntington’s disease effect males or females more?

A

Both equal.

445
Q

What parts of the CNS will Huntington’s disease effect?

A

Caudate nucleus atrophies, medium spiny neurons in the corpus striatum degenerate, and levels of neurotransmitters gamma aminobutyric acid and substance P decrease.

446
Q

What genes are effected with Huntington’s disease?

A

Gene on chromosome 4.

447
Q

The gene on chromosome 4 (Huntington’s disease) will lead to what?

A

Abnormal repetition of DNA sequence CAG that codes for amino acid Glutamine.

448
Q

The gene product of abnormal CAG codes that make glutamine leads to what?

A

a large protein called huntingtin and it has large stretches of polyglitamine residue.

449
Q

How will the huntingtin protein lead to huntington’s disease?

450
Q

The more CAG repetitions means what?

A

The earlier the disease begins and the more severe the effects.

451
Q

What will huntington’s disease be like from generation to generation?

A

over time it leads to more severe phenotype and more CAG codes that make more polyglitamine residues.

452
Q

How do Symptoms of Huntington’s disease develop?

A

Insidiously (inconspicuous or seemingly harmless way ).

453
Q

When do Signs and symptoms of Huntington’s disease develop?

A

start between 35-50, but can develop before adulthood.

454
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of Huntington’s disease?

A

Dementia or psychiatric disturbances, abnormal movements including tongue protrusion.

455
Q

Death usually occurs how long after the first signs and symptoms of Huntington’s disease appear?

A

13-15 years.

456
Q

What will the cause of death usually be with Huntington’s disease?

A

Coronary heart disease or pneumonia

457
Q

What is the secondary or aquired immunodeficiency?

A

AIDS aquired immunodeficiency syndrome.

458
Q

What will cause severe combined immunodeficiency, and what type of immunodeficiency is it?

A

It is primary and caused by a defect of lymphoid stem cells pre-B, Pre-T cells.

459
Q

What is the most common type of primary immunodeficiency diseases?

A

Isolated deficiency of IgA.

460
Q

What % of people have Isolated deficiency of IgA?

A

1 out of every 700 people

461
Q

What is isolated deficiency of IgA like in the population?

A

Often asymptomatic.

462
Q

What type of immunodeficiency disease is DiGeorge’s syndrome and what causes it?

A

It is a primary one caused by T-cell deficiency related to aplasia of thymus associated with aplasia of parathyroid glands.

463
Q

What type of virus is HIV aka Human immunodeficiency virus?

A

RNA retrovirus.

464
Q

AIDS infects what?

A

T helper Cells (CD4+).

465
Q

Where is AIDS stored at?

A

Macrophages and related phagocytic cells.

466
Q

What are the clinical presentations of HIV/AIDS?

A

acute illness, asymptomatic infection, persistent generalized lymphadenopathy.

467
Q

What are 5 pahtologic findings in AIDS?

A
  1. Lymphadenopathy. 2. Kaposis sarcoma. 3. Nephrophaty. 4. Weakness. 5. oral thresh.
468
Q

What type of infections happen with AIDS?

A

Opportunistic.

469
Q

What 3 places are prone to opportunisitic infections?

A
  1. Lungs. 2. GI tract. 3. CNS.
470
Q

What are the 3 tumors that develop with AIDS?

A
  1. Lymphoma of lymph nodes or GI tract. 2. Lymphoma of the CNS. 3. Kaposis sarcoma.
471
Q

All antibodies are composed of what?

A

Light and heavy chains.

472
Q

Which chains of antibodies are changeable and which chain is the same?

A

Light- same. Heavy are specific for each Ig.

473
Q

What is another name for light and heavy chains?

A

Light-Fc. Heavy-Fab.

474
Q

What is the largest Ig?

475
Q

What is the function of the IgM?

A

To neutralize microorganisms.

476
Q

The IgM has how many complement binding sites?

477
Q

What is the first Ig to appear?

Pathology I Final (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions