Path Flashcards

1
Q

HLA Class II Molecules

A

HLA-DR
HLA-DP
HLA-DQ

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2
Q

HLA Class I Molecules

A

HLA-A
HLA-B
HLA-C

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3
Q

HLA Matching in Organ Donation

A

Clinically most important
HLA-A
HLA-B
HLA-DR

Score in series e.g. 0:0:0
Would no mismatches across HLA-A, HLA-b and HLA-DR between recipient and donor

As two alleles from each, opportunity to match 6 alleles
Maximum of 6 mismatches (MM)
6 MM= bad
0 MM = good

Sibling to sibling:
25% - 6MM
50% - 3MM
25% - 0MM

HLA matching is an important part of organ allocation procedure
Bone marrow
Kidney

HLA matching not as important (Size is more important)
Heart
Lung

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4
Q

T Cell Mediated Transplant Rejection

A

T cell mediated
Phase 1 - Recognition
Acute Rejection
Direct: donor APC presents to recipient CD8 or CD4 T cell which recognises APC as foreign and leads to destruction

Chronic Rejection
Indirect: Indirect is recipient APC finding a foreign protein (HLA molecule) and presenting to immune system

Phase 2 - T cell activation by foreign antigen
First signal is the inetreaction of APC with the T cell receptor
Second signal is co-stimulatory signals that enhance T cells activation
Third signal is when activated T cell produces cytokines, IL-2 autocrine effect

Phase 3 - Effector cells
Recruited all the immune cells
They recognise the HLA molecule as foreign 
Infiltrate organ
Cause damage to the organ 
Produce lytic enzymes
Direct cytotoxicity 
Antigen-dependent cell mediated cytotoxicity 
Graft infiltration by alloreactive CD4+ cells
Cytotoxic” T cells
Release of toxins to kill target
Granzyme B
Punch holes in target cells
Perforin
Apoptotic cell death
Fas -Ligand
Macrophages
Phagocytosis
Release of proteolytic enzymes
Production of cytokines
Production of oxygen radicals and nitrogen radicals
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5
Q

Symptoms of acute T-cell mediated rejection

A

Deteriorating graft function
Kidney transplant: Rise in creatinine, fluid retention, hypertension
Liver transplant: Rise in LFTs, coagulopathy
Lung transplant: breathlessness, pulmonary infiltrate

Pain and tenderness over graft

Fever

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6
Q

Antibody Mediated Rejection

A

Phase 1 – exposure to foreign antigen

Phase 2 - proliferation and maturation of B cells with antibody production

Phase 3 – effector phase; antibodies bind to graft endothelium (capillaries of glomerulus and around tubules, arterial)

Antibodies
Anti-A or anti-B antibodies are naturally occurring

Anti-HLA antibodies are not naturally occurring
Pre-formed – previous exposure to epitopes (previous transplantation, pregnancy, transfusion)
Post-formed - arise after transplantation

Path
Endothelium with foreign HLA antigens
Antibody against epitope on ENDOTHELIUM
Recruit complement
Complement is activated
(can detect complement for diagnosis on biopsy)
Cause formation of membrane attack complex –> cell lysis
Also liberate C3a and C5a –> potent chemotactic
Recruit inflammatory cells directly to the endothelium through the Fc receptors on macrophages and NK cells and polymorphs

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7
Q

Histology of T and B cell rejection

A

In T cell
Heavy monocytic infiltrates

In B cells
Discrete accumulation of inflammatory cells including polymorphs
Stain for complement

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8
Q

Prevention and Treatment of Transplant Rejection

A

Preventing rejection:
A. AB/HLA matching

B. Screening for anti-HLA antibodies
Before transplantation
At time of transplantation: when a specific deceased donor kidney has been assigned to the patient
After transplantation, repeat measurements to check for new antibody production

3 main types of assay
Cytotoxicity assays
Flow cytometry
Solid phase assays

C. Immunosuppression: dampen the immune system of the recipient
Induction agent ex. OKT3/ATG, anti-CD52, anti-CD25
Base-line immunosuppression: CNI inhibitor + MMF or Aza, with or without steroids = calcineurin inhibitor (cyclosporine) and anti-proliferative drug (micophenolate)

Treatment of episodes of acute rejection:
Cellular: steroids, ATG/OKT3
Antibody-mediated: IVIG, plasma exchange, anti-C5, anti-CD20

Always balance the need for immunosuppression with the risk of infection/malignancy/drug toxicity

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9
Q

Graft vs Host Disease

A

Eliminate hosts immune system (total body irradiation; cyclophophamide; other drugs)

Replace with own (autologous) or HLA-matched donor (allogeneic) bone marrow

Allogeneic HSCT leads to reaction of donor lymphocytes against host tissues

Related to degree of HLA-incompatibility

Also graft-versus-tumour effect

GVHD prophylaxis: Methotrexate/Cyclosporine

Preparative regimen for haematopoietic transplant has a role to play in developing graft vs host disease
Injury in recipients GI tract
Helps to prone donor T cells
Form immune reaction against recipients tissue

Skin: rash
Gut: nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, diarrheoa, bloody stool
Liver: jaundice

Treat with corticosteroids

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10
Q

Post transplantation infections

A

Bacterial, viral, fungal

Opportunistic
Cytomegalovirus
BK virus
Pneumocytis carinii

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11
Q

Post-transplantation Malignancy

A
Viral associated (x 100)
Kaposi’s sarcoma (HHV8)
Lymphoproliferative disease (EBV)

Skin Cancer (x20)

Risk of other cancers eg lung, colon also increased (x 2-3)

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12
Q

Causes of microcytic Anaemia

A
FAST
Fe Iron deficiency anaemia
Anaemia of chronic disease
Sideroblastic anaemia
Thalassaemia
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13
Q

Faecal calprotectin

A

Marker of GI inflammation

Produced by neutrophils

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14
Q

Coeliac Disease HLA associations

A

HLA-DQ2

HLA-DR8

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15
Q

Histopathological Changes in Coeliac Disease

A

Villous height is reduced and crypts become hyperplastic, resulting in reduced or reversed villous: crypt ratio

Although height of villi are reduced, mucosal thickness remains the same due to crypt hyperplasia

Villous atrophy results in decreased surface area –> malabsorption

Increased to >20 IELs/100 epithelial cells
These lymphocytes are 𝛄ƍ T cells

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16
Q

Causes of Increased Intra-epithelial lymphocytes

A
Coeliac Disease 
Dermatitis herpetiformis
Cows milk protein sensitivity
IgA deficiency
Tropical sprue
Post infective malabsorption
Drugs (NSAIDs)
(Lymphoma)
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17
Q

Causes of Villous Atrophy

A
Coeliac 
Giardiasis
Tropical sprue
Crohn’s disease
Radiation/chemotherapy
Bacterial overgrowth
Nutritional deficiencies
Graft versus host disease
Microvillous inclusion disease
Common variable immunodeficiency
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18
Q

Complications of Coeliac Disease

A

Malabsorption

Osteomalacia and osteoporosis (bone scan every 3 years)

Neurological disease
Epilepsy
Cerebral calcification

Lymphoma

Hyposplenism

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19
Q

Positive Anti-TTG on gluten free diet

A

The TTG antibody should be negative

It can only be positive in two cases:
Not sticking to gluten free diet
Developed lymphoma

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20
Q

Coeliac Associated Conditions

A

Dermatitis herpetiformis (prevalence = 100%)
Type 1 diabetes mellitus (prevalence = 7%)
Autoimmune thyroid disease
Down’s syndrome

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21
Q

Recombinant Cytokines

A

IFN-alpha
Hepatitis C
Hepatitis B
Kaposi’s Sarcoma (HHV-8)

IFN-gamma
Chronic granulomatous disease

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22
Q

T Cell Inhibiting APC

A

T cell expresses CTLA4, binds to CD80/CD86 on APC

Transmits inhibitory signal

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23
Q

Iplimumab

A
Block CTLA4 (inhibitory signal from T cell --> APC)
Leading to great T cell response

Indications
- Advanced melanoma

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24
Q

APC inhibiting T cell

A

PD-1 is expressed on T cells
PD-1 Ligand expressed on APC

APC causes inhibition of T cell

PD-1 also expressed on some malignant cells

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25
Q

Pembrolizumab and Nivulomab

A

Antibody binds to PD-1
Blocks immune checkpoint
Allows T cell activation

Indications
Advanced melanoma

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26
Q

Corticosteroids

A

Reduces prostaglandin synthesis
Corticosteroids inhibit phospholipase A2
- Blocks arachidonic acid and prostaglandin formation

Inhibits phagocyte migration and function
Decreased traffic of phagocytes to inflamed tissue
Decreased phagocytosis
Decreased release of proteolytic enzymes

Inhibits lymphocyte proliferation
Sequestration of lymphocytes in lymphoid tissue
Affects CD4+ T cells > CD8+ T cells > B cells
Blocks cytokine gene expression
Decreased antibody production
Promotes apoptosis

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27
Q

Cytotoxic Anti-Proliferative Drugs

A

Cyclophosphamide
Mycophenolate
Azathioprine
Methotrexate

Inhibit DNA synthesis –> affect rapidly dividing cells

Toxicity
Bone marrow suppression
Infection
Malignancy
Teratogenic
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28
Q

Cyclophosphamide

A

Alkylates guanine base of DNA
Damages DNA –> prevents cell replication

Affects B cells > T cells

Indications: Multi-system connective tissue disease/vasculitis with severe end-organ involvement
SLE, Granulomatosis with polyangiitis,

Side Effects
Toxicity to proliferating cells (bone marrow, sterility)
Haemorrhagic cystitis
Malignancy (Bladder, haematological, Non-melnoma skin)
Infection: PCP

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29
Q

Azathioprine

A

Metabolsied by liver
Azathioprine –> 6-mercaptopurine
6-mercaptopurine blocks de novo purine synthesis –> inhibits DNA replication

Preferentially inhibits T cell

Indications
Transplant
Autoimmune
Autoinflammatory disease (IBD)

Side Effects
Bone Marrow Supression (1 in 300 have polymorphism of Thiopurine methyltransferase –> inability to metabolise azathiopurine –> accumulation)

Check TPMT levels before prescribing

Hepatotoxicity

Infection

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30
Q

Mycophenolate Mofetil

A

Blocks de novo nuceltodie synthesis –> prevents DNA replication
T cell > B cells

Indications
As alternative to azathioprine in transplants
As alternative to cyclophosphamide in autoimmune and vasculitis

Side Effects
Bone marrow suppression

Infection:
Herpves virus reactivation
Progressive multi-focal leukoencephalopathy (PML) (JC virus)

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31
Q

Plasmapheresis

A

Patient’s blood passed through cell separator
Removal of pathogenic antibody

Own cellular constituents reinfused
Plasma treated to remove immunoglobulins and then reinfused (or replaced with albumin in ‘plasma exchange’)

Problems
Rebound antibody production limits efficacy, therefore usually given with anti-proliferative agent

Indications
Severe antibody-mediated disease

Goodpastures syndrome
Anti-glomerular basement membrane antibodies

Severe acute myasthenia gravis
Anti-acetyl choline receptor antibodies

Severe vascular rejection
Antibodies directed at donor HLA molecules

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32
Q

Cyclosporin and Tacrolimus

A

Block Calcineurin (normally activates NFATc which is transcription factor for cytokines)

Prevents cytokine transcription factor –> prevents lymphocyte proliferation

Indications
Transplant –> Improves graft survival

Side effects
Nephrotoxic
Neurotoxic 
Hypertension
Diabetogenic (particularly tacrolimus)
Dysmorphism (Cyclosporin only)
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33
Q

Tofacitinib

A

JAK signalling inhibitor

Indications: Rheumatoid Arthitis

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34
Q

Apremilast

A

PDE4 inhibitor

Indications: Psoriasis and Psoriatic arthritis

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35
Q

Anti-Thymocyte Globulin

A

Antibody against human thymocyte

Lymphocyte depletion
Modulation of T cell activation and migration

Indications;
Allograft rejection (renal or heart)
Give daily infusion

Toxicity
Infusion reactions
Leukopenia
Infection
Malignancy
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36
Q

Basiliximab

A

Anti-CD25 (IL-2 R alpha-chain)

Prevents T cell proliferation

Indications: pre and post-transplant
Prophylaxis against transplant rejection

Toxicity
Infusion reactions
Infection
Concern over long-term malignancy

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37
Q

Abatacept

A

Fusion: Antibody-CTLA4

CTLA4 normally on CD4 cell –> binds to APC

CTLA4 binds to APC but has antibody on the other end, blocks T cell from binding –> prevents T cell activation

Indications
Rheumatoid arthritis
Weekly subcut
Monthly IV

Toxicity
Infusion reactions
Infection (TB, HBV, HCV)

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38
Q

Rituximab

A

Anti-CD20 (Mature B cell)
–> depletion of mature B cell

Indications
Lymphoma
Rheumatoid arthritis (2 doses every 6-12 months IV)
SLE

Toxicity
Transfusion reaction
Infection (progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy, JC virus)
Exacerbated CV disease

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39
Q

Natalizumab

A

Anti-a4 integrin
a4 expressed with b1 or b7 integrin

a4b1 bind to VCAM1 and MadCAM1 on endoethelium to mediate cell rolling

Inhibits T cell migration

Indications
Multiple sclerosis
(Crohn Disease)
IV every 4 weeks

Toxicity
Infusion reaction Infection (Progressive Multifocal Luekoencephalopathy)
Hepatotoxicity
Concern over long-term malignancy

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40
Q

Tocilizumab

A

Anti-IL-6R

Reduces Activation of:
Macrophages
T cells
B cells

Indications
Castleman’s disease
Rheumatoid arthritis
IV or SC

Toxicity 
Transfusion reactions 
Infection
Hepatotoxicity 
Elevated lipids
Concern over long-term malignancy
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41
Q

Agents directed at cytokines

A
Infliximab – anti-TNFa 
Adalimumab – anti-TNFa 
Certolizumab – anti-TNFa 
Golimumab – anti-TNFa
Etanercept – TNF receptor p75-IgG fusion protein

Ustekinumab – anti-IL-12 and IL-23
Secukinumab – anti-IL-17
Denosumab – anti-RANK ligand

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42
Q

Agents directed at cell surface antigens

A
Rabbit anti-thymocyte globulin 
Basiliximab – anti-CD25
Abatacept – CTLA4-Ig 
Rituximab – anti-CD20
Natalizumab – anti-a4 integrin 
Tocilizumab – anti-IL-6 receptor
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43
Q

Anti-TNFa Antibodies

A

Infliximab
Adalimumab
Certolizumab
Golimumab

Indications
Rheumatoid arthritis
Ankylosing spondylitis
Psoriasis and psoriatic arthritis
IBD
SC or IV
Toxicity 
Infusion or injection reaction
Infection (TB, HBV, HCV)
Lupus-like syndrome
Demyelination 
Malignancy
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44
Q

Etanercept

A

TNF Antgaonists
- Inhibits TNFa and TNFb

Indications and dosing
Rheumatoid arthritis
Ankylosing spondylitis 
Psoriasis and psoriatic arthritis
Subcutaneous weekly
Toxicity
Injection site reactions
Infection (TB, HBV, HCV)
Lupus-like conditions
Demyelination
Malignancy
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45
Q

Ustekinumab

A

Anti-p40 (IL-12 and IL-23)

IL-12: p40+p35
IL-23:p40+p19

Inhibits IL-12 and IL-23
IL-12 and IL-23 on NK cell and T cell

Indications
Psoriasis and psoriatic arthritis
Subcut every 12 weeks

Complications
Injection reaction
Infection (TB)
Concern regards long-term malignancy

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46
Q

Secukinumab

A

Anti-IL-17A

Dimer of IL-17A or IL-17A/F
Binds to IL-17RA/RC receptor
IL-17AR on keratinocyte

Indications
Psoriasis and psoriatic arthritis
Ankylosing spondylitis
SC load and then monthly

Action
Inhibits IL-17A

Toxicity
Infection (TB)

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47
Q

Denosumab

A

Anti-RANKL

Inhibits RANK mediated osteoclast
differentiation and function

Indications
Osteoporosis
Subcutaneous every 6 months

Toxicity
Infection
Avascular necrosis of jaw

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48
Q

HIV-1

A
HIV-1
Retrovirus
positive sense ssRNA virus
9 genes
Reverse transcriptase: RNA --> DNA
DNA then integrated into host DNA
Infects CD4+ T cell and CD4+ monocyte
Receptor = CD4
Co-receptor = CCR5 or CXCR4
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49
Q

Immunity against HIV-1

A

Non-specific activation of NK cells and complement associated with slower disease course

Acquired immunity – B cells
Anti-gp120 and anti-gp41 (Nt) antibodies are thought to be important in protective immunity.
Non-neutralising anti-p24 gag IgG also produced.
HIV remains infectious even when coated with antibodies.
CD8+ T cells
Secrete soluble molecules (cytokines and chemokines such as MIP-1a, MIP-1b, and RANTES) which are able to prevent infection by blocking entry of virus into CD4+ T cells.
Recognise processed antigen - (peptides) - in the context of class I HLA molecules

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50
Q

HAART

A

HAART = 2NRTIs + PI (or NNRTI)

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51
Q

Management of Anaphylaxis

A

IM adrenaline 0.5mg (may repeat)

Oxygen by mask

IV Intravenous anti-histamines (10mg Chlorpheniramine)

Nebulised bronchodilators (driven by oxygen)

Intravenous corticosteroids (Hydrocortisone 200mgs)

Intravenous fluids (if hypotensive)

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52
Q

Causes of recurrent meningococcal meningitis

A
Immunological
Complement deficiency (susceptible to encapsulated bacteria)
Antibody deficiency (susceptibility to upper and lower respiratory tract infections)

Neurological: any disruption to BBB
Occult skull fracture
Hydrocephalus

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53
Q

Features of immune deficiency (SPUR)

A

Serious
Persistent
Unusual
Recurrent

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54
Q

Management of Complement Deficiency

A

Meningovax
Pneumovax
HIB vaccines

Daily prophylactic penicillin

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55
Q

Anti-CCP

A

Anti-citrullinated peptide antibodies

70% Sensitivity for RA
95% Specificty for RA

Antibodies against citrullinated proteins

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56
Q

Rheumatoid Arthritis HLA Associations

A

HLA-DR1

HLA-DR4

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57
Q

Rheumatoid Factor

A

IgM Antibody against Fc portion of human IgG

60-70% Sensitivity for RA
60-70% Specificity for RA

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58
Q

Genetic Predisposition to Rheumatoid Arthritis

A

5%DZ and 30%MZ twins

Peptidylarginine deaminase polymorphisms
PAD Type 2 & 4
Increase citrullination of proetins

PTPN 22: Protein tyrosine phosphatase non-receptor 22
Lymphocyte-specific tyrosine phosphatase –> supresses T cell activation activation
1858T allele increases susceptibility to rheumatoid arthritis, SLE, type 1 diabetes

HLA
HLA-DR1
HLA-DR4

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59
Q

Treatments for Rheumatoid Arthritis

A
Standard Mx
Methotrexate
Sulphasalazine
Hydroxychloroquine
Leflunomide 

Further Mx
TNFalpha antagonist
Inhibits downstream events in inflammation.

Rituximab
Antibody specific for CD20
Depletes B cells (not plasma cells)

Abatacept
CTLA-4 – Ig fusion protein
Binds to ligands of CD28 (CD80 and CD86) and thereby inhibits T cell activation

Tocilizumab
Antibody specific for IL-6 receptor – widespread effects

Before Starting Biologics:
Screen for exposure to TB using CXR and TB ELISPOT
Screen for exposure to Hepatitis B
Screen for exposure to Hepatitis C
Consider possibility of HIV infection
Prior history of septic arthritis/infected joint prosthesis
Educate patient to stop drug and seek advice if acute infection
Consider need for vaccinations

Consider risk of malignancy
Prior history of malignancy
Advise re sun exposure/skin protection

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60
Q

Serum Sickness

A

Penicillin can bind to cell surface proteins
Acts as “neo-antigen”: stimulates very strong IgG antibody response
Individual is “sensitised” to penicillin
Subsequent exposure to penicillin stimulates
Formation of immune complexes with circulating penicillin
Production of more IgG antibodies

Fever
Arthralgia of large joints
Vasculitic skin rash
Renal function deteriorates

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61
Q

Sjögren’s syndrome

A

Chronic auto-immune disease of salivary glands

Primary: by itself

Secondary: as a result of connective tissue disorder

F>M
Dry mouth
Dry eyes
Dry skin
Chronic cough
Muscle and joint pains
Thyroid problems

Increase risk of lymphoma

ANA +ve
SA/Ro
SB/La (far more specific)

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62
Q

Antithrombin

A

Inhibits factor IIa and factor Xa

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63
Q

Tissue factor pathway inhibitor

A

Inhibits VII –> VIIa

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64
Q

Protein C and S

A

Inhibits factor Va and VIIIa

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65
Q

Antithrombotic Mediators on Endothelium

A
Endothelial expression
TFPI
Endothelial Protein C
TFPI
Heparans

Secretes Anti-platelet mediators
Prostacyclin
NO

ENDOTHELIUM DOES NOT EXPRESS TISSUE FACTOR

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66
Q

Pregnancy and Susceptibility to Thrombosis

A

Decrease Protein S
Increase Factor VIII, Increase Fibrinogen

Stasis
Compression

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67
Q

Malignancy and Susceptibility to Thrombosis

A

Tissue Factor on tumour
Increased Inflammation
Decreased Flow

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68
Q

Anticoagulant Drugs

A

Heparin
LMWH
Unfractionated
Potentiate Antithrombin, Factor IIa and Xa
Immediate acting (potentiate anti-coagulant activity)

Warfarin
Vitamin K antagonist
Inhibits vitamin K dependent factors: II VII IX and X
Delayed action
Reduce procoagulant activity

New oral anticoag (rivoraxaban) are immediate

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69
Q

Heparin

A

Three forms
LMWH (subcut)
Unfractionated (IV only)
Pentasaccharide (subcut)

Provide immediate effect (eg for treatment of thrombosis)

Disadvanatges
Long term disadvantage – have to be given by injections, risk of osteoporosis
Difficult to dose: Variable renal dependence

Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH)
Reliable pharmacokinetics so monitoring not usually required
Can use anti-Xa assay in at-risk eg:
Renal failure (CrCl<50)
Extremes of weight or risk
In anti-Xa assay you measure ability to potentiate antithrombin in its inhibition of thrombin and Xa

Unfractionated heparin
Much more complex, Variable kinetics
Variable dose-response
Always monitor therapeutic levels with APTT or anti-Xa

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70
Q

Direct acting anticoagulants

A

Anti-Xa
Rivaroxaban, apixaban, edoxaban

Anti-IIa
Dabigatran

Properties
Oral administration
Immediate acting –peak in approx. 3-4 hours (cf LMWH)
Short half-life
No monitoring 

New agents
Oral admin
Reliable dose response,
No monitoring

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71
Q

Warfarin

A

Oral
Only anti-coagulant that can be used for metallic heart valves
Indirect effect by preventing recycling of Vit K
Action is delayed
II, VII, IX & X
Takes some time to fall
Levels of anticoagulant protein C and protein S also fall (also vit K factors, transient increase thrombotic risk at onset)

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72
Q

Reversal of Heparin

A

Protamine

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73
Q

Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) dosing

A

Thromboprophylaxis
Tinzaparin 4500U
Clexane 40mg

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74
Q

Risk Factors for VTE

A
Patient Factors 
Age > 60yrs
Previous VTE
Active cancer
Acute or chronic lung disease
Chronic heart failure
Lower limb paralysis (excluding acute CVA)
Acute infection
BMI>30
Procedure (circumstance)
Hip or knee replacement
Hip fracture
Other major orthopaedic surgery
Surgery >  30mins
Plaster cast immobilisation of lower limb
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75
Q

Bleeding risk assessment

A
Patient Factors
Bleeding diathesis (eg haemophilia, VWD)
Platelets < 100
Acute CVA in previous month (H’gge or thromb)
BP > 200 syst or 120 dias
Severe liver disease
Severe renal disease
Active bleeding
Anticoag or anti-platelet therapy

Procedure
Neuro, spinal or eye surgery (v high risk if bleeding occurs)
Other with high bleeding risk
Lumbar puncture/spinal/epidural in previous 4 hours

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76
Q

Treatment of DVT/PE

A
Start LMWH eg Tinzaparin 175u/kg
 \+ warfarin
Start Warfarin at the same time, measure INR 
Stop Hep when OK
Stop LMWH when INR >2 for 2 days

Continue for 3-6 months, takes this for patients to settle
Patients with cancer: continue LMWH not warfarin.

OR
Start Rivaroxaban (NEW WAY)

DOES NOT DISSOLVE CLOT, STOPS PROPAGATION OF CLOT

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77
Q

Thrombolysis

A

About to die or critical limb
Only for life threatening PE or limb threatening DVT
Risk of haemorrhage(Intracranial Haemorrhage) 4%
Reduces subsequent post-phlebitic syndrome
Indications broadening slowly

Same treatment for stroke, potentiate fibrinolysis (TPA) tissue plasminogen activator

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78
Q

Risk of VTE recurrent

A

Higher risk (put on on long-term anticoag)
Idiopathic thrombosis (no external stimulus)
Male
Have higher d-dimer after coming off anticoagulant –> high risk of recurrence

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79
Q

Presentation of Anaemia in Cancer

A

Fe Deficiency (Occult blood loss)
GI cancer: Gastric, colonic
Urinary tract cancer: Renal cell carcinoma, bladder cancer

Anaemia of Inflammation

Leucoerythroblastic anaemia –> bone marrow infiltration
Cancer
Myrelofibrosis
Severe Infection

Haemolytic anaemias
Immune mediated
Non Immune; fragmentation (micro-angiopathic haemolytic anaemia)

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80
Q

Leucoerythroblastic anaemia

A

Bone Marrow Infiltration

Cancer
Haematopoietic: Leukaemia, Lymphoma, Myeloma
Non-Haematopoietic: Breast, Bronchus, Prostate

Severe Infection:
Miliary TB
Severe Fungal Infection

Myelofibrosis
Dry tap apriate of BM
MASSIVE Splenomegaly

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81
Q

Myelofibrosis

A

Bone marrow failure due to progressive scarring

Leukoerythroblast changes
Dry tap on BM aspirate
Massive splenomegaly

May eventually develop a serious form of acute leukaemia

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82
Q

Haemolytic Anaemia

A

Inherited: Defects of the red cell.
OR
Acquired: Defects of the environment in which the Red cell finds itself, the red cell itself is fine

Anaemia (though may be compensated)
Reticulocytosis
Raised Bilirubin (unconjugated)
Raised  LDH
Reduced haptoglobins

In bone marrow failure, you can’t increase red cell output so you don’t see reticulocytosis and the anaemia is not compensated

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83
Q

Inherited Haemolytic Anaemias

A

Membrane
Spherocytosis
Elliptocytosis

Haemoglobin
Mutation of beta chain, structurally abnormal beta chain –>
Structural (sickle cell disease)
Quantitative (thallasaemias) imbalance between alpha and beta chains

Enzymes
G6PD

Continual Red Cell breakdown –> pigment stones

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84
Q

Acquired Haemolytic Anaemia

A

Immune
OR
Non-Immune

DAT test +ve –> IMMUNE

Diseases that produce autoimmune haemaolytic immune

  • Cancer of immune system: lymphoma or lymphocytic leukaemias
  • Disease of the immune system: SLE or Sjorgen’s
  • Infection (disturbing the immune system) e.g. Mycoplasma

Mycoplasma = Cold agglutinin disease is an autoimmune disease characterized by the presence of high concentrations of circulating antibodies, usually IgM, directed against red blood cells

In autoimmune haemolytic anemia you also get acquire spherocytes

DAT NEG –> NON-immune
These diseases damage the red cells but are not immune mediated
Infection (malaria) gets into red cell

Micro-angiopathic Haemolytic anaemia (MAHA)
Red cell fragments
low platelets (activation of clotting system)
DIC/bleeding
Underlying adenocarcinoma (prostate or stomach)

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85
Q

Coombs Test

A

Direct coombs = DAT Test
Used to test for autoimmune hemolytic anemia
Tests for presence of IgG on Red cells
Blood sample is taken and the RBCs are washed (removing the patient’s own plasma) and then incubated with anti-human globulin (also known as “Coombs reagent”). If this produces agglutination of RBCs, the direct Coombs test is positive#

AND

Indirect coombs
Used in prenatal testing of pregnant women and in testing blood prior to a blood transfusion
Detects antibodies against RBCs that are present unbound in the patient’s serum
Serum is extracted from the blood sample taken from the patient. Then, the serum is incubated with RBCs of known antigenicity; that is, RBCs with known reference values from other patient blood samples. Finally, anti-human globulin is added. If agglutination occurs, the indirect Coombs test is positive.

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86
Q

micro-angiopathy haemolytic anaemia from an adenocarcinoma

A

Low grade DIC
Occult cancer secreting pro-thrombotic factors into blood
Activated coagulation pathway
Coagulation systemic throughout blood – not confined to local site

In microvasculature 
Blood flow slow
Pro-coagulation factors
At sites of slow flow, fibrin able to be formed
Fibrin goes across blood vessel
Causes red cell trauma
Fragmented cells
Platelets consumed s part of process
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87
Q

Polycythaemia

A

Appropriate e.g. high altitude

True: polycythaemia vera

Secondary: Ectopic Erythropoietin
Hepatocellular carcinoma
Renal cancer
Bronchial cancer

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88
Q

Causes of Neutrophilia

A

TIMUC

Corticosteroids (demargination of neutrophils –> apparent increase)

Underlying neoplasia

Tissue inflammation (e.g.colitis, pancreatitis)

Myeloproliferative/ leukaemic disorders

Infection -itis

Reactive:
Neutrophil count up to 15 –> infection or malignant
Presence bands, toxic granulation, and signs of infection/inflammation

Malignant:
Neutrophil count 250 –> leukaemia

Find neutrophils along with immature cells: Neutrophilia basophilia plus immature cells myelocytes, and splenomegaly. Suggest a myeloproliferative (CML)

Neutropenia plus precursors cells (Myeloblasts) (AML)

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89
Q

Eosinophilia

A

Reactive eosinophilia
Parasitic infestation
allergic diseases e.g. asthma, rheumatoid, polyarteritis,pulmonary eosinophilia.
Underlying Neoplasms, esp. Hodgkin’s, T-cell NHL (reactive eosinophilia)- lymphoma secretes eosinophil secreting factor
Drugs (reaction erythema mutiforme)

Chronic Eosinophilic leukaemia
Eosinophils part of the “clone”
FIP1L1-PDGFRa Fusion gene

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90
Q

Monocytosis

A
Rare but seen in certain chronic infections and primary haematological disorders
TB, brucella, typhoid
Viral; CMV, varicella zoster
sarcoidosis
chronic myelomonocytic leukaemia (MDS)
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91
Q

Lymphoid Vs Myeloid Clinical Distinguishing Factor

A

If you have splenomegaly and hepatomegaly and no lymph nodes –> Myeloid disorder
Haemopoiesis can go back to where it occurred in fetal, in liver

If you have splenomegaly and hepatomegaly and lymphadenopathy –> lymphoid disorder

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92
Q

Lymphoma Associated with Antigenic Stimulation

A

H.Pylori : Gastric MALT (mucosa associated lymphoid tissue) lymphoma

Sjogren’s syndrome : Parotid lymphoma

Autoimmune thyroid disease –> thyroid marginal lymphomas

Coeliac disease: small bowel T cell lymphoma EATL (enteropathy associated T-Cell lymphoma)

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93
Q

Lymphoma Associated with Translocation

A

Lymphoma associated translocations
e.g. t(8,14)

Involve the Ig Locus
Ig promoter highly active in B cells
Bring intact oncogenes close to the Ig promoter
Oncogenes may be anti apoptotic, proliferative.
bcl2
bcl6
Myc
cyclinD1
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94
Q

Risk Factors for Lymphoma

A

Constant antigenic stimulation

Infection( direct viral infection of lymphocytes)

Loss of T cell function
(HIV and Immunosuppression)

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95
Q

Lymphoma and Infectious Agents

A

1) Direct Viral Integration
HTLV1 infects T cells by vertical transmission
Carribean and Japan
May develop Adult T cell leukaemia lymphoma (2.5% at 70 years)

2) Immunosuppression + EBV infection
EBV infects B lymphocytes
Carrier state and regulated by healthy T cells
Iatrogenic supression of T cells (to prevent transplant rejection increase in B cell lymphomas)

3) HIV
60 fold increase in lymphoma in HIV (high grade B-NHL)
Loss of T cell regulation of EBV infected B cells

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96
Q

Immuno Markers

A

B Cell
CD20
Immature blast B cell = TDT
Cyclin D1 not normally expressed by B cells, Expression of cyclin D1 indicative of mantle cell lymphoma
CD5 expression in B cells indicative of mantle B cell lymphoma OR small lymphocytic lymphoma
(CD5 is normally a T cell marker)

T Cell
CD3
CD5

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97
Q

Mantle Cell Lymphoma

A

Middle aged male
Lymph node, GI tract
Present in mantle zone

Median survival 3-5 yrs
B cell expressing
cyclin D1
CD5

Translocation
t(11,14) = diagnostic

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98
Q

Follicular Lymphoma

A

Lymphadenopathy in the elderly

CD10
bcl-6 +ve
t(14,18) involving bcl-2 gene

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99
Q

Small Lymphocytic Leukaemia

A

Middle aged/ Elderly
Nodes or blood

Small lymphocytes, naive or post-germinal centre B cell
CD5
CD23

Indolent
Undergo Ritcher transformation into high grad elymphoma

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100
Q

Marginal Zone / MALT lymphoma

A

Arise at extranodal sites e.g. Gut, lung, Spleen

In response to chronic stimulation form antigen e.g. H.Pylori

Post germinal centre memory B cell

Indolent, but can transform into high grade lymphoma

Can treat if remove antigen stimulation early

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101
Q

Burkitt’s Lymphoma

A

Jaw or abdominal mass in Children
EBV associated
Immunodeficiency
Sporadic

Stary-sky appearance
C-myc
t(8,14)

Aggressive

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102
Q

Diffuse Large B Cell

A

Middle aged/Elderly
Lymphadenopathy

Germinal centre or post-germinal centre B cell

Sheets of large lymphoid cells

p54 positive

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103
Q

Peripheral T Cell Lymphoma

A

Middle aged/ Elderly
Lymphadenopathy and extra nodal sites

Large T lymphocytes

Associated with reactive cells e.g. eosinophils

Aggressive

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104
Q

Special Forms of T Cell Lymphoma

A

Adult T Cell Leukaemia / Lymphoma
HTLV-1 Japan and Caribbean endemic

Enteropathy associated T cel lymphoma
Longstanding Coeliac

Cutaneous T cell lymphomas
Mycosis fungiodes

Anaplastic large cell lymphoma

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105
Q

Anaplastic Large Cell Lymphoma

A

Children/ Young adults
Lymphadenopathy

Large epitheloid lymphocytes
T cell or null phenotype

t(2,5)
Alk-1

Agressive BUT alk-1 expression = better prognosis

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106
Q

Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma

A

Multiple nodal sites
Spreads discontinuously

B Cell
T Cell

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107
Q

Hodgkin’s Lymphoma

A

Single nodal site
Spreads continuously

Split into Classical and Lymphocyte predominant

Classical
Three subtypes
Nodular sclerosing
Mixed cellularity 
Lymphocyte rich and Lymphocyte depleted 

Lymphocyte predominant = some relation to non-hodgkin’s lymphoma

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108
Q

Classical Hodgkin’s Lymphoma

A

Young/Middle aged
Single site of nodes

germinal centre or post-germinal centre B cell

EBV associated

Sclerosis
Mixed cellularity

Reed-Sternberg and Hodgkin cells
with eosinophils

Rarely Alcohol-induce pain

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109
Q

Nodular Lymphocyte Predominant Hodgkin’s Lymphoma

A

Isolated lymphadenopathy

Germinal centre B cell

B cell rich nodules with scattered L&H cells

NO ASSOCIATION WITH EBV

Can transform into high grade B cell lymphoma

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110
Q

B Cell Non-Hodgkin Lymphomas

A
Low Grade
Follicular lymphoma
Small lymphocytic lymphoma/ Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia
Marginal zone lymphoma
Mantle zone lymphoma

High Grade
Diffuse large B cell lymphoma

Intermediate
Burkitt’s Lymphoma

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111
Q

Staging of Hodgkin Lymphoma

A
Stage
I; one group of nodes
II; >1 group of nodes same side of the diaphragm
III; nodes above and below the diaphragm
IV; extra nodal spread

Suffix A if none of below, B if any of below
Fever
Unexplained Weight loss >10% in 6 months
Night sweats

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112
Q

Treatment of Hodgkin Lymphoma

A

Chemotherapy for all cases (ABVD)
ABVD 2-6 cycles +/- Radiotherapy
PET CT
Interim: post x2 cycles, response assessment

End of Treatment: Guides need for radiotherapy

Relapse then Autologous Stem cell transplant as salvage

Chemotherapy
ABVD
Adriamycin			
Bleomycin			
Vinblastine 	
DTIC		
ABVD, is given at 4-weekly intervals.
Effective treatment
Preserves fertility (unlike MOPP the original chemo)
Can cause (long term)
Pulmonary fibrosis
cardiomyopathy
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113
Q

Treatment of Diffuse Large B Cell Lymphoma

A
International Prognostic Index (IPI)
Age > 60y
serum LDH > normal
performance status 2-4
stage III or IV
more than one extranodal site

Treated by x 6-8 cycles of R-CHOP (Rituximab-CHOP)

Combination drug regimens e.g. CHOP
Cyclophosphamide	
Adriamycin		
Vincristine 		
Prednisolone

Doxorubicin

Relapse: Autologous Stem Cell transplant salvage 25% of patients

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114
Q

Chronic Lymphocytic Leukaemia

A

Proliferation of mature B-lymphocytes

Age at presentation median 72  
Commonest leukaemia in the western world
Lymphocytosis between 5 and 300 x 109/l 
Smear cells
Normocytic normochromic anaemia
Thrombocytopenia
 Bone marrow	 Lymphocytic replacement of normal marrow elements

Mature B cells (CD19) co-expressing CD5
Further immuno studies CLL score 4-5

CLL Score (Need 4/5)
CD5	
CD23	
FMC7	
CD79b	
SmIg	

Binet and Rai staging

CD38 expression = bad prognosis
Deletion of 17p (TP53) = bad prognosis
unmutated IgH gene = bad prognosis

CD5 also expressed in Mantle Cell Lymphoma
Normally a T cell marker

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115
Q

Treatment of CLL

A

Prophylaxis and treatment of infections
Aciclovir
PCP prophylaxis for those receiving fludarabine or alemtuzumab (Campath)
IVIG is recommended for those with hypogammaglobulinemia and recurrent bacterial infections

Immunisation against pneumococcus, and seasonal flu

Auto-immune phenomena
1st Line Steroids
2nd Line Rituximab

Irradiated Blood products if risk of TA GVHD

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116
Q

Variants of CLL

A

Transformation to high grade lymphoma = Richter’s syndrome
~1% per year
Treat as high grade lymphoma with CHOP-R

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117
Q

BCR Kinase inhibitors

A

New drugs in CLL

Ibrutinib
Idelalisib

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118
Q

Myelodysplastic Syndromes

A

Typically a disorder of the elderly. (over 60) Common in 70s
Symptoms/signs are those of general marrow failure
Develops over weeks & months

Development of clone marrow stem cells with abnormal cell development

  • -> functionally defective blood cells
  • -> numerical reduction

Cytopenia
Anaemia –> tiredness, lethargy, severely anaemic –> heart failure
Neutropenia –> infection
Thrombocytopenia –> bleeding

AND Increased risk of transformation to leukaemia

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119
Q

Myelodysplastic Features in Bone Marrow and Blood

A

Pelger Huet = bilobed neutrophils

Ring sideroblast = iron arranged in ring

Dysgranulopoiesis of neutrophils = abnormal granules

Myelokathexis of neutrophils = abnormal appearance of neutrophils and pre-cursors in bone marrow

Dyserythropoiesis of red cells = Abnormal red cells in the bone marrow (bridge sand blebbing)

Dysplastic megakaryocytes = Abnormally small megakaryocytes

INCREASED PROPORTION OF BLAST CELLS (normally <5%) –> prognostic significant
More than 20% = defined as having an Acute Leukaemia

Auer rods stain deep red

They are indicative of acute myeloid leukaemia

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120
Q

WHO classification of MDS

A

Refractory anaemia (RA)
- without ringed sideroblasts
- with ringed sideroblasts (RARS)
Refractory cytopenia with multilineage dysplasia (RCMD)

Refractory anaemia with excess of blasts (RAEB)

  • RAEB-I (BM blasts 5-9%)
  • RAEB-II (BM blasts 10-19%)

5q- syndrome

Unclassified MDS: MDS with fibrosis, childhood MDS, others

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121
Q

The Revised International Prognostic Scoring System IPSS-R

A
BM blasts %
Karyotype
Hb
Neutrophils
Platelets 

0 = Good
4=Bad

Used to predict risk of development of AML

Treatment choices

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122
Q

Prognosis of MDS

A

Deterioration of blood counts
Worsening consequences of marrow failure

Development of acute myeloid leukaemia
– Develops in 50%< 1 year
– Some cases of MDS are much slower to evolve
– AML from MDS has an extremely poor prognosis and is usually not curable

As a rule of thumb
• 1/3 die from infection
• 1/3 die from bleeding
• 1/3 die from acute leukaemia

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123
Q

Treatment of MDS

A

Prolong survival:

  • allogeneic stem cell transplantation (SCT)
  • intensive chemotherapy
Supportive care
Blood product support
Antimicrobial therapy
Growth factors (Epo, G-CSF)
EPO = red cells
G-CSF = neutrophils 
Biological Modifiers
Immunosuppressive therapy
Hypomethylating agents 
Azacytidine
Lenalidomide (5q- syndrome)

Oral chemotherapy
Hydroxyurea

Low dose chemotherapy
Subcutaneous low dose cytarabine

Intensive Chemotherapy/SCT
AML type regimens
Allo/VUD standard/ reduced intensity

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124
Q

Bone Marrow Failure

A

Failure of stem cell
Depending on whereabouts in lineage the stem cell fails –> different outcome
Could fail to make lymphocytes and myeloid
Or either depending on location of failure

Results from damage or suppression of stem or progenitor cells

PLURIPOTENT HAEMATOPOIETIC CELL

  • Impairs production of ALL peripheral blood cells
  • rare

COMMITTED PROGENITOR CELLS
- Result in bi- or unicytopenias

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125
Q

Causes of Bone Marrow Failure

A

Primary
Congenital
Fanconi’s Anaemia –> MULTIPOTENT
Diamond-Blackfan Anaemia –> Red cell progenitor
Kostmann Syndrome –> neutrophil progenitor

Acquired Primary: Idiopathic aplastic anaemia –> MULTIPOTENT

Secondary
Bone Marrow Infiltration (haematological = leukaemia, lymphoma, myelofibrosis, non-haematological = solid tumour)
Radiation
Drugs
Chemicals (Benzene)
Autoimmune
Infection (Parvovirus, Hepatitis)
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126
Q

Drugs causing Bone Marrow Failure

A

Cytotoxic

Antibiotics
Chloramphenicol
Sulphonamide

Diuretic
Thiazide

Anti-Thyroid
Carbomazole

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127
Q

Aplastic Anaemia

A

Aplastic Anaemia = Pancytopenia
Subtype of Bone Marrow Failure in which all three cell lines are NOT produced

CLASSIFICATION:

  1. Severe aplastic anaemia (SAA)
  2. Non-severe aplastic anaemia (NSAA)

Camitta criteria:
2 out of 3 peripheral blood features

  1. Reticulocytes < 1% (<20 x 109/l)
  2. Neutrophils < 0.5 x 109/l
  3. Platelets < 20 x 109/l
    AND Bone marrow <20% cellularity

MULTIPOTENT defect - “Stem cell” problem (CD34, LTC-IC

Causes
Primary
Idiopathic - 70% (Telomeric shortening is a feature of both idiopathic aplastic anaemia and dyskeratosis congenita)
Fanconi's Anaemia
Dyskeratosis congenita
Schwman-Diamond Syndrome 
Secondary
Radiation
Drugs: chloramphenicol
Infection: hepatitis 
SLE

Immune attack:
Humoral or cellular (T cell) attack against multipotent haematopoietic stem cell.

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128
Q

Dyskeratosis Congenita

A

3 patterns of inheritance
Abnormal telomeric structure and function is implicated.
Telomere length is reduced

X-linked recessive trait = mutated DKC1 gene - defective telomerase function

Autosomal dominant trait = mutated TERC gene
RNA component of telomerase

Autosomal recessive trait, gene not yet been identified

Progressive bone marrow failure –> aplastic anaemia
Cancer predisposition
Somatic abnormalities

Triad of:
Reticulated skin hyperpigmentation,
Nail dystrophy
Oral leukoplakia

Tx:
Supportive
Blood/platelet transfusions
Antibiotics

Drugs to promote marrow recovery
Oxymetholone
Growth factors

Haemopoietic stem transplantation

Telomeric shortening is a feature of both idiopathic aplastic anaemia and dyskeratosis congenita

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129
Q

Schwman-Diamond Syndrome

A

Congenital disorder characterized by:

Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency
Bone marrow dysfunction –> Aplastic anaemia
Skeletal abnormalities
Short stature

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130
Q

Differential Diagnoses of Pancytopenia & Hypocellular Marrow

A

Hypoplastic MDS / Acute Myeloid Leukaemia
Hypocellular Acute Lymphoblastic Leukaemia
Hairy Cell Leukaemia
Mycobacterial (usually atypical) infection
Anorexia Nervosa
Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura

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131
Q

Management of Bone Marrow Failure

A

Seek a cause (detailed drug & occupational exposure history)

Supportive
Blood/platelet transfusions (leucodepleted, CMV neg, irradiated)
Antibiotics
Iron Chelation Therapy (avoid iron overload)

Drugs to promote marrow recovery
Oxymetholone (=anabolic steroid)
Growth factors

Immunosuppressive therapy (due to t cell attack of bone marrow)

Stem cell transplantation

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132
Q

Treatment for Idiopathic Aplastic Anaemia

A

Immunosuppressive therapy – older patient
Anti-Lymphocyte Globulin (ALG)
Ciclosporin

Androgens – oxymethalone

Stem cell transplantation
Younger patient with donor (80% cure)
VUD/MUD for > 40 yrs (50% survival)

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133
Q

Fanconi’s Anaemia

A

Autosomal recessive/ X-linked

  • -> abnormalities in DNA repair
  • -> chromosoma fragility *in vitro addition of diepoxybutane or Mitomycin –> chromosomal breakages

Normal blood count at birth
Marrow failure and pancytopenia slowly progress onset at 5-10 years

10% result in acute leukaemia

Tx:
Supportive
Androgens

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134
Q

full blood count in pregnancy

A

Mild anaemia (due to net dilution)
Red cell mass rises (120 -130%)
Plasma volume rises (150%)

Macrocytosis
Normal
Check Folate or B12 deficiency

Neutrophilia

Thrombocytopenia
increased platelet size
Incidental thrombocytopenia in third trimester
Not due to volume expansion
As plasma volume expansion finished by end of second trimester

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135
Q

Causes of Thrombocytopenia in Pregnancy

A

1) Physiological (normal to have lower platelets in pregnancy)
2) Pre-Eclampsia (HELLP)
3) Immune thrombocytopenia

4) MAHA = Schisyocytes
HELLP (remits after delivery)
TTP and HUS (do not remit after delivery)

5) All others:
Bone marrow failure
Leukaemia
Hypersplenism

Lower the platelets –> more likely pathological

*NEED >70 for epidural

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136
Q

Iron Deficiency in pregnancy

A
May Cause:
Anaemia
IUGR
Prematurity
Postpartum haemorrhage
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137
Q

Coagulation changes in pregnancy

A

Increase in:
von Willebrand
Factor VIII

PAI-2 (placenta produced)

Decrease in:
Protein S

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138
Q

Antiphospholipid Syndrome

A

Recurrent miscarriages

Lupus anticoagulant positive

Anti-cardiolipin antibody

Obstetric outcome improved with herparin and aspirin

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139
Q

Myeloproliferative Disorders

A
Ph Neg
Polycythaemia vera (PV) 
Essential Thrombocythaemia  (ET)
Primary Myelofibrosis  (PMF)

Ph Pos
Chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML)

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140
Q

Myeloproliferative Disorders Gene Mutation

A

JAK2 = PV
Calreticulin
MPL

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141
Q

Polycthaemia vera treatment

A

Venesection
Hydroxycarbamide
Aspirin

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142
Q

Essential thrombocythaemia treatment

A

Aspirin
Anagrelide
Hydroxycarbamide

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143
Q

Treatment of Primary Myelofibrosis

A

Anaemia –> transfusion

Splenectomy –> symtpomatic relief

Thrombocytosis –> hydroxycarbamide

Ruxolotinib = JAK2 inhibitor

Bone marrow transplant

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144
Q

Treatment of CML

A

Imatinib

2nd generation: Dasatanib, and Nilotinib

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145
Q

Treatment of Multiple Myeloma

A

Melphalan (mustard-type alkylating agent)
Steroids
Proteasome inhibitors
IMIDs“ - Thalidomide, Lenalidomide, Pomalidomide

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146
Q

Treatment of Graft vs Host Disease

A
Corticosteroids 
Cyclosporin A
FK506
Mycophenylate mofetil
Monoclonal antibodies (against T cells)
Photopheresis
Total lymphoid irradiation
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147
Q

Prevention of GvHD

A
Methotrexate
Corticosteroids
Cyclosporin A
CsA plus MTX
FK506

T-cell depletion

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148
Q

T(15,17)

A

T(15,17)
Translocation of retinoic acid receptor

Acute promyelocytic leukaemia

Responsive to trans retinoic acid (ATRA) aka tretinoin

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149
Q

AML Disease Hotspots, Mutations and Translocations

A

Duplication
+8
+21 gives predisposition

Loss
deletions and loss of 5/5q & 7/7q

Common mutations
NPM1
CEBPA
FLT3: internal tandem duplication = bad prognosis

Translocations = Core binding Factor Changes –> cause arrest of cell development
t(8;21) fuses RUNX1 (encoding CBFα) with RUNX1T1
15% of adult AML

inv(16) fuses CBFB with MYH11
12% of adult AML

inv(16) , t(16;16) –> eosinophilic subtype

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150
Q

Acute Promyelinocytic Leukaemia

A

t(15,17) = PML:RARA

Causes thrombocytopenia
Can present with haemorrhage of easy bruising
Because of coagulation defects and low platelets
Hyperactive fibrinolysis
Can cause DIC

Treated with ARTA – all trans retinoic acid (not chemotherapy)
Nearly all curable

Block in differentiation is further down pathway – excess of promyelocytes

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151
Q

AML vs CML Cytochemistry

A

Cytochemical stain AML ALL
Myeloperoxidase + (Gr) -
Sudan black + (Gr) -
Non-specific esterase + (Mo) -

All negative = ALL

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152
Q

AML vs ALL immunohistochemistry

A

ALL:
Precursor-B-cell: CD19, CD20, TdT, CD10 +/-
B-cell: CD19, CD20, surface Ig
T-cell: CD2, CD3, CD4, CD8,TdT

AML:
MPO, CD13, CD33, CD14, CD15 glycophorin (E), platelet antigens
Both: CD34, CD45, HLA-DR

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153
Q

Clinical features of AML

A

Bone marrow failure
Anaemia
Neutropenia
Thrombocytopenia

Local infiltration into tissues
Splenomegaly
Hepatomegaly
Gum infiltration (if monocytic)
Lymphadenopathy (only occasionally)
Skin, CNS or other sites
(Cranial nerve palsy)

Complications
septic shock
Complicated by renal failure
DIC

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154
Q

Clinical features of ALL

A

Bone marrow failure — effects of
Anaemia
Neutropenia
Thrombocytopenia

Local infiltration
Lymphadenopathy (± thymic enlargement)
Splenomegaly
Hepatomegaly
Testes, CNS, kidneys or other sites
Bone (causing pain)

Lymphoid cells are more likely to enter lymph nodes
T cells –> thymus enlargement
Bone pain in long bones of children

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155
Q

Hereditary Haemolytic Anaemias

A

Red cell membrane defects
Hereditary spherocytosis
Hereditary elliptocytosis

Haemoglobin defects
Sickle cell anaemia

Glycolytic pathway defects
Pyruvate kinase deficiency

Pentose shunt defects
G6PD deficiency

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156
Q

Paroxysmal Nocturnal Haemoglobinuria

A

Destruction of red blood cells by the complement system
Only hemolytic anemia caused by an acquired (rather than inherited) intrinsic defect in the cell membrane (deficiency of glycophosphatidylinositol leading to the absence of protective proteins on the membrane)

GPI anchor missing
GPI binds complement regulatory proteins

Red urine in the morning

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157
Q

cholelithiasis in chronic haemolytic anaemia

A

Coinheritance of Gilbert syndrome further increases risk of cholelithiasis in chronic haemolytic anaemia

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158
Q

Reduced/absent haptoglobins

A

Intravascular haemolysis

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159
Q

Hereditary spherocytosis

A

Vertical interaction

Band 3
Protein 4.2
Ankyrin
Beta Spectrin

Autosomal dominant
Osmotic fragilty test
Reduced binding of dye eosin-5-maleimide

Blood film
Looks spherical
Looks dense
Mean cell haemoglobin conc is increased

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160
Q

Hereditary elliptocytosis

A

Horizontal interaction

Alpha Spectrin
Beta Spectrin
Protein 4.1

Hereditary pyropoikilocytosis = homozygous form

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161
Q

Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency

A

X-linked

Enzyme catalyses first step in pentose phosphate(hexose monophosphate) pathway - generates NADPH required to maintain intracellular glutathione(GSH)

Clinical effects
Neonatal jaundice
Acute haemolysis(triggered by oxidants/infection)
Chronic haemolytic anaemia(rare)

Drugs, infections or fava beans –> Acute haemolysis

Blood Film
Nucleated red blood cells
Bite cells
Hemighosts
Poikilocytes
Contracted cells
**Heinz bodies formed of denatured haemoglobin = Characteristic of oxidative haemolysis
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162
Q

Agents triggering haemolysis in G6PD

A

Anti-malarials
Primaquine

Antibiotics
Sulphonamides
Ciprofloxacin
Nitrofurantoin

Other drugs 
Dapsone
Vitamin k
Fava beans 
Mothballs
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163
Q

Pyruvate kinase deficiency

A

Echinocytes (sea urchin)

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164
Q

Pyrimidine 5’-nucleotidase deficiency

A

Pyrimidine nucleotides are toxic to red cells but red cells need to retain and salvage purine nucleotides

eliminating pyrimidine nucleotides = pyrimidine 5’ nucleotidase

Prominent basophilic stickling

Lead also inhibits this enzyme

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165
Q

Ham’s Test

A

=Flow cytometry of GPI-linked proteins

Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria

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166
Q

Heinz Bodies

A

Marker of oxidative stress

=G6PD (and bite cells present)

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167
Q

JAK2 V617F

A

Polycthaemia vera

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168
Q

Idoiopathic erythrocytosis

A

Isolated erythrocytosis

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169
Q

von Willebrand’s

A

Type 1 Partial quantitative deficiency
Type 2 Qualitative deficiency
Type 3 Total quantitative deficiency (similar to haemophilia A as apparent factor VIII def)

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170
Q

Inhibitors of Cell wall Synthesis

A

Beta-Lactams
Penicillins
Cephalosporins
Carbapenems

Glycopeptides
Vancomycin
Teiciplanin

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171
Q

Penicillins

A

Penicillin
Gram positive organisms = streptococci, clostridia
Broken down by beta-lactamase

Amoxicillin
Gram positives and extended to cover enterococci and gram negatives
Broken down by beta-lactamse (staph aureus and many gram negs produced)
Co-amoxiclav (augmentin) = amoxicillin + clavulanic acid

Flucloxacillin
Resistant to beta-lactamase
Used for staph aureus

Piperacillin
Similar to amoxicillin 
Extends coverage to pseudomonas and other non-enteric gram negatives
Broken down by beta-lactamase
Tazocin = piperacillin + tazobactam
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172
Q

Cephalosporins

A

3 Generations (increasing activity against gram negative bacilli with each gen)

Need to add in metronidazaole to cover anaerobes

First generation = Cephalexin

Second generation = Cefuroxime

Third generation = Cefotaxime, Ceftriaxone, Ceftazidime

Ceftriaxone = 1st line meningitis

Ceftazidime = psudomonas coverage, give in cystic fibrosis

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173
Q

Carbapenems

A

Meropenem, Imipenem, Ertapenem

Stable to extended spectrum beta-lactamase (ESBL)
Broad spectrum
Broken down by carbapenemase enzyme –> breaks down all three types of beta-lactams (penicillins, cephalosporins, and carbapenems)

Multi-drug resistant acinetobacter and klebsiella species

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174
Q

Glycopeptides

A

Vancomycin and Teicoplanin

Unable to penetrate gram negative outer cell wall

Active against gram positives
Inhibit cell wall synthesis
Bind to D-Ala D-Ala and prevent cross-linking
Slowly bactericidal

Nephrotoxic: must monitor levels and check for accumulation

MRSA
oral for serious C.Diff

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175
Q

Antibiotics inhibiting Protein Synthesis

A

Aminoglycosides
Gentamicin
Amikacin
Tobramycin

Tetracyclines
Doxycycline

Macrolides
Erythromycin
Clarithromycin
Azithromycin

Linocosamides
Clindamycin

Streptogramins
Synercid

Chloramphenicol

Oxazolidinones
Linezolid

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176
Q

Aminoglycosides

A

Gentamicin
Akimacin
Tobramycin

30S ribosomal subunit
Streptococci are intrinsically resistant (requires specific transporter)
no activity against anaerobes 
Ototoxic and nephrotoxic 
used synergistically with beta-lactams

Bactericidal

Gentamicin and tobramycin active against pseudomonas

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177
Q

Tetracyclines

A

Doxycycline

Activity against intracellular pathogens
Chlamydia
Mycoplasma
Rickettsiae

Bacteriostatic
Reversibly bind to 30S subunit

Light-sensitive rash

Do not give to children or pregnancy women

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178
Q

Macrolides

A

Erythromycin
Clarithromycin
Azithromycin

Bind to 50S subunit

Bacteriostatic

Minimal activity against gram negatives
USed for streptococcal infections and mild staphylococcus in penicillin-allergic patients

Also active against atypical pneumonias
Campylobacter
Legionella

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179
Q

Chloramphenicol

A

Broad spec

Used in eye preparations

Risk of aplastic anaemia
Grey baby syndrome

Bacteriostatic
50S subunit

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180
Q

Oxazolidinones

A

Linezolid

Highly active against gram positive (including MRSA and VRE)

Not active against gram negatives

Bind to 23S of 50S subunit

May cause thrombocytopenia and neurological problems

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181
Q

Inhibitors of DNA synthesis

A

Flouroquinolones
Ciprofloxacin
Levofloxacin
Moxifloxacin

Nitroimidazoles
Metronidazole
Tinidazole

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182
Q

Fluoroquiniolones

A

Ciprofloxacin
Levofloxacin
Moxifloxacin

Act on alpha subunit of DNA gyrase

Bactericidal

Gram negatives including pseudomonas
Levofloxacin and moxifloxacin also against gram positive and intracellular bacteria e.g. chlamydia

Use for 
UTIs
Pneumonia
Atypical pneumonia
Bacterial gastroenteritis e.g. salmonella
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183
Q

Nitroimidazoles

A

Metronidazole
Tinidazole

Active against anaerobes and protozoa (Giardia)

Bactericidal

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184
Q

Inhibitors of RNA synthesis

A

Rifampicin

Rifabutin

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185
Q

Rifampicin

A

Mycobacterium e.g. TB

Binds to DNA-dependent RNA polymerase

Bactericidal

Monitor LFTS
induces CYP450

Turns secretions orange

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186
Q

Daptomycin

A

Cell membrane toxin

MRSA and VRE

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187
Q

Antibiotics inhibiting Folate Metabolism

A

Sulfonamides: Sulphamethoxazole

Diaminopyrimidines: Trimethoprim

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188
Q

Co-trimoxazole

A

trimethoprim + sulphamethoxazole

Used in PCP

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189
Q

Eagle Effect

A

Penicillins don’t work unless dividing

If large bacterial burden –> no active replication as nutrient deficiency
–> penicillins won’t work

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190
Q

Cytomegalovirus

A

Usually minimally symptomatic and self-limiting

Can cause mild mononucleosis-like illness and hepatitis

Groundglass appearance on CT
Owl’s eye inclusion
Retinal haemorrhages

Remains latent in bone marrow and monocytic cells

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191
Q

Epstein-Barr Virus

A

Exudative pharyngitis
Atypical lymphocytosis

Infectious mononucleosis

Associated with lymphoproliferative disease in immunosupressed
Burkitt’s
Post-transplant lymphoproliferative disease (PTLD)

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192
Q

Antivirals for CMV

A

Ganciclovir (given to all transplant recipients)
Valganciclovir (pro-drug of ganciclovir)

Foscarnet

Cidofovir

All very toxic

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193
Q

Classification of Human herpesvirus

A

Alpha = rapid growth and latency in sensory ganglia
HSV-1 - oral
HSV-2 - genital
VZV

Beta = slow-growth restricted range
CMV
HHV-6
HHV-7

Gamma = oncogenic
EBV
HHV-8

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194
Q

HHV-8

A

Kaposi’s sarcoma

Multicentric Castleman’s disease

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195
Q

Timing of Vaccine Ractions

A

Inactivated: within 48 hours

Live attenuated, need time to replicate
Measles: rash, fever, malaise 6-11 days
Rubella: pain, stiffness, swelling of joints 2nd week
Mumps: parotid swelling 3rd week

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196
Q

Acellular vaccines

A

Pertussis
Diptheria toxoid
Hib polysaccharide

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197
Q

Diptheria

A

Bacteria = corynebacterium diptheria or corynebacterium ulcerans

Airborne

Bull neck
Early: mild fever, swollen neck glands, anorexia, malaise, cough
2-3 days: grey membrane of dead cells form in throat, tonsils, larynx or nose “pseudomembrane”

Untreated: Infectious for up to 4 weeks

5-10% extensive organ damage: neurological and heart damage

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198
Q

Tetanus

A

Clostridium tetani: forms spores that can survive in environment

Non-communicable: infection by contamination of cut with soil or manure

Incubation 4-21 days

No natural immunity, ever if you have had tetanus, need to be immunised

Muscle stiffness, lock-jaw
Followed by neck stiffness, difficulty swallowing, stiffness of stomach muscles, muscle spasm, sweating and fever

Complications: fractures, laryngospasm, PE, aspiration, Death

neonatal tetanus due to infection of umbilical cord stump

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199
Q

Pertussis

A

Whooping cough

Bordatella pertussis

3 x 2 week phases:
Catarrhal phase: URI
Paroxysmal phase: paroxysms of coughing, inspiratory whoop, vomiting, apnoeic episodes
Convalescent phase: resolution but dry cough may persist for months

Acellular pertussis vaccine

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200
Q

Poliomyelitis

A

Transmission through contact with faeces or pharyngeal secretions

Can be asymptomatic
Mild-influenza-like illness
<1% result in flaccid paralysis (develops 1-10 days after prodromal illness)

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201
Q

Meningococcal vaccines

A

Meningococcal C: conjugate vaccine (polysaccharides chemically joined to tetanus or diptheria carrier proteins)

Men B: recombinant vaccine

Men ACWY: quadrivalent

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202
Q

Pneumococcal vaccines

A

PPV:purified polysaccharide vaccine = pneumovax II
23 serotypes

PCV: conjugated pneumococcal vaccine = Prevanar 13
13 valent

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203
Q

Measles

A

Morbillivirus
negative sense SSRNA

Airborne

Incubation: 7-18 days

Prodromal period: High fever and 3Cs
Cough
Coryza
Conjunctivitis

Enanthem phase
Koplik spots

Exanthem phase
Rash develops from face and upper neck –> hands and feet over 3 days
Lasts 5-6 days

Recovery: persistent cough

Complications
Severe diarrhoea
Pneumonia
Otitis media (supresses immune system for 6 weeks, infections occur)
Convulsions
Encephalitis
subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) 
Death 1 in 5,000
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204
Q

Mumps

A

Paramyxovirus
SSRNA

Cause epithelial cells to fuse, multi-nucleated giant cell

Airborne

Incubation: 14-25 days

Headache, fever, parotid swelling (unilateral or bilateral)
Meningism: photophobia, neck stiffness

Complications:
Pancreatitis
Orchitis
Oophoritis
Neurlogical complications: meningitis, bilateral/unilateral deafness
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205
Q

Rubella

A

Togavirus

Direct droplet contact

Incubation:14-21 days

Infectivity until 5-7 days after the rash onset

Usually mild illness
Swollen lymph glands, low grade fever, malaise
Conjunctivitis
Maculo-papular rash on face, neck, and body
Swollen joints

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206
Q

Congenital rubella syndrome

A

Cardiac defects
Auditory
Ophthalmic
Neurological

Risk
90% <10 weeks
10-20% 10-16 weeks
Rare >20 weeks

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207
Q

Causes of Meningitis

A

Acute
Neisseria meningitides = gram negative diplococci
Streptococcus pneumoniae = gram positive diplococci
Haemophilus influenzae B
Listeria monocytogenes = gram positive rod
Group B streptococcus = gram positive cocci
E.Coli = gram negative rod

Chronic
TB
Spirochetes (leptospirosis)
Cryptococcus (Cryptococcus neoformans)

Aseptic
Cocksackie B viruses
Echviruses

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208
Q

Septicaemia (4 processes)

A

1) Capillary leak
Lack of albumin and other plasma proteins –> hypovolaemia

2) Coagulopathy
Bleeding and thrombosis
Exposure to tissue factor
Activation of protein C

3) Metabolic derangement
Acidosis

4) Myocardial failure
- -> Multi-organ failure

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209
Q

Chronic Meningitis

A

4+ days

usually TB

Can result in tuberculous granulomas, tuberculous abscesses, cerebritis

CT changes = leptomeningeal enhancement

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210
Q

Encephalitis

A

HSV most common viral cause

Arboviruses (neonates, younger adults)
Western equine encephalitis (infants, children)
St Louis encephalitis (>40 yrs)
California encephalitis (school-aged)
Eastern equine encephalitis (infants/children)
Rabies

All more common in summer/autumn

Bacterial = listeria

Amoebic

Toxoplasmosis

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211
Q

India Ink

A

Cryptococcus

212
Q

Ziehl-Neelsen stain

A

TB

213
Q

Gram positive rod

A

Listeria

214
Q

Gram negative diplococci

A

Neisseria Meningitdes

215
Q

Gram positive diplococci

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

216
Q

Management of Meningitis

A

Ceftriaxone 2g IV BD

IF > 50 yrs OR immunocompromised add Amoxicillin 2g IV 4-hourly

217
Q

Management of meningo-encephalitis

A

Aciclovir 10mg/kg IV TDS

Ceftriaxone 2g IV BD

IF > 50 yrs OR immunocompromised add Amoxicillin 2g IV 4-hourly

218
Q

Hypoxia, worse on exertion

A

PCP
pneumocytis jiroveci pneumonia

Co-trimoxazole

219
Q

Gram stain and Grocott stain

Branching long Gram positive rods

A

Actinomyces

Lung abscess
Alcoholics

220
Q

Auramine stain

A

Mycobacterium

221
Q

Microcytic Anaemia (FAST)

A

Fe (Iron deficiency anaemia)
Anaemia of chronic disease
Sideroblastic anaemia
Thalassaemia

222
Q

Normocytic Anaemia (AHHA RAP?)

A

Acute blood loss
Hypothyroidism
Haemolysis
Anaplastic (bone marrow failure)

Renal failure
Anaemia of chronic disease
Pregnancy

223
Q

Macrocytic Anaemia (FAT RBC M)

A

Fetus (pregnancy)
Anti-folates (e.g. phenytoin)
Thyroid (hypothyroidism)

Reticulocytosis (release of immature cells e.g. haemolysis)
B12 or folate deficiency
Cirrhosis (alcoholic liver disease)

Myelodysplastic syndrome

224
Q

Plummer-Vinson

A

Oesophageal webs

Iron deficiency anaemia

225
Q

Causes of Iron-deficiency Anaemia

A

Increased loss = blood loss

Increased utilisation
Pregnancy, lactation
Growing children

Decreased intake
Prematurity
Infants and the elderly

Decreased absorption
Coeliac
Post-gastric surgery

Intravascular haemolysis
MAHA
PNH

226
Q

Cytokine driven inhibition of red cell production

A

Anaemia of chronic disease

IFNs, TNF and IL-1 reduce EPO production

Rheumatoid
Malignancy 
TB, osteomylitis (chronic infection)
Vasculitis 
(Renal Failure)
227
Q

Sideroblastic Anaemia

A

Ringed sideroblasts in bone marrow

228
Q

Treatment of Sideroblastic Anaemia

A

Treat cause

+ Pyridoxine (Vitmain B6) –> promotes red cell production

229
Q

Hypersegmented polymorphs
Leucopenia
Macrocytosis
Thrombocytopenia

A

Megaloblastic blood film

230
Q

IM hydroxocobalamin

A

Replenish vitamin B12

megaloblastic anaemia

231
Q

Intravascular haemolytic anaemia

A

Increase free plasma Hb
Decreased haptoglobins
Haemoglobinuria
Methaemalbuminaemia

232
Q

Acquired Haemolytic Anaemias

A

Immune
Autoimmune: warm or cold
Alloimmune - haemolytic transfusion reactions

Non-immune
Mechanical e.g. metal valves, trauma
Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria
MAHA
Infections (malaria)
Drugs
233
Q

Inherited Haemolytic Anaemias

A

Membrane
Hereditary spherocytosis
Hereditary eliptocytosis

Enzyme defect
G6PD deficiency
Pyruvate kinase deficiency

Haemoglobinopathies
Sickle cell disease
Thalassaemias

234
Q

Hereditary Spherocytosis

A

=spherocytes

Autosomal dominant

Spectrin or ankyrin

Extravascular=splenomegaly

Increased osmotic fragility
DAT negative

Tx: splenectomy, folic acid

235
Q

Hereditary eliptocytosis

A

=eliptocytes

Autosomal dominant

Spectrin mutations

Ranges from hydrops fetalis to asymptomatic

236
Q

South East Asian Ovalocytosis

A

Autosomal Recessive

heterzygoues = Protection against malaria

237
Q

Glucose -6 - Phosphate Dehydrogenase deficiency

A

X-linked

Deficiency in G6PD

Rapid anaemia and jaundice

Heinz bodies and bite cells

Take enzyme level 2-3 months after attack as enzymes level present in new cells

Intravascular haemolysis = dark urine

238
Q

Pyruvate Kinase Deficiency

A

Autosomal Dominant

Severe neonatal jaundice

Splenomegaly

Haemolytic anaemia

239
Q

Sickle cell mutation

A

Codon 6 which is part of coding for beta chain
GAG ==> GTG single base mutation
Glu to Val

240
Q

Vaso-occlusoive crisis of Sickle Cell Disease (SICKLED)

A

Stroke
Infections (hyposplenism, CKD)
Crises (splenic, sequestration, chest, and pain)
Kidney (papillary necrosis, nephrotic syndrome)
Liver (gallstones)
Eyes (retinopathy)
Dactilitis

Mesenteric ischaemia
Priaprism

241
Q

Diagnosis of Sickle Cell

A

Sickle cells and target cells in blood film

Sickle solubility test

Hb electrophoresis

Gurthrie test

242
Q

Treatment for Sickle cell

A

Folic acid

Penicillin V

Pneumovax

Hib vaccine

Hydroxycarbamide

243
Q

Warn autoimmune haemolytic anaemia

A

37 C
IgG
+ve coombs
Blood film - spherocytes

Primary idiopathic
Lymphoma
CLL
SLE
Methyldopa

Mx
Steroids
Splenectomy
Immunosuppression

244
Q

Cold autoimmune haemolytic anaemia

A

<37 C
IgM
+ve coombs
Raynaud’s

Primary idiopathic
Lymphoma
Infections: EBV, MYCOPLASMA

Mx
Avoid the cold
Chlorambucil

245
Q

Donath Landsteiner antibodies

A

Paroxysmal cold haemoglobinuria

246
Q

Paroxysmal cold haemoglobinuria

A

Caused by viral infection

Measles
Syphilis
VZV

Donath Landsteiner antibodies

IgG adhere in cold —> complement mediated lysis in warm

247
Q

Treatment of paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria

A

Acquired, loss of GPI

Ham’s Test

Non-immune

Morning haemoglobinuria
Thrombosis –> Budd-Chiari syndrome

Mx
Eculizimab
Folate, iron supplements
Antibiotics
Vaccines
248
Q

MAHA

A

Mechanical destruction

Schistocytes

TTP

DIC

HUS

249
Q

Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura

A

Pentad

MAHA

Fever

Renal impairment

Neurological abnormalities

Thrombocytopenia

250
Q

Intrinsic Pathway

A

APTT

Monitor: unfractionated heparin

251
Q

Extrinsic Pathway

A

PT

Monitor: Warfarin

252
Q

Factor Xa activity

A

Monitor LMWH in renal impairment and those who are underweight or overweight

253
Q

Osler Weber Rendu

A

= Hereditary Haemorrhagic Telangiectasia

Autosomal dominant

Abnormal vessel formation

Nosebleeds
GI bleeds

254
Q

Platelet Disorders

A

Reduced function
Congenital: storage pool disease and Thrombasthenia (glycoprotein deficiency)
Acquired: Aspirin, Uraemia

Low number
Decreased production: bone marrow failure
Increased destruction: ITP, drugs, HUS, DIC, TTP

255
Q

Heparin

A

Potentiates anti-thrombin III which inactivates thrombin and factors 9, 10, 11

256
Q

Treatment of DVT/PE

A

LMWH 175units/kg
AND
Warfarin

Continue LMWH until INR is 2.5
Monitor:

257
Q

INR 3.5

A

Prosthetic metal valve

258
Q

INR 2.5

A

1st episode DVT or PE

AF

259
Q

Gum infiltration + Hypokalaemia

A

AML

260
Q

Leukaemia + DIC

A

Acute Promyelocytic Leukaemia

261
Q

Sudan Black B stain

A

AML

262
Q

Smear cells

A

SMEAR CLLS =

CLL

263
Q

Small mature lymphocytosis

A

CLL

264
Q

Bad prognostic markers of CLL

A

LDH raised

CD38+

112q23 deletion

265
Q

Good prognostic markers of CLL

A

Hypermutated Ig gene

Low ZAP-70 expression

13q14 deletion

266
Q

Treatment of CLL

A

Chlorambucil

Fludarabine

Alemtuzumab (anti-CD52)

Steroids

SCT

267
Q

Reed-Sternberg cells

A

Hodgkin’s lymphoma

268
Q

Subtypes of Hodgkin’s lymphoma

A

Nodular sclerosing

Mixed cellularity

Lymphocyte rich

Lymphocyte depleted

Nodular lymphocyte predominant (non-classical Hodgkin’s) - NON classical = NOT EBV ASSOCIATED

269
Q

Hodgkin’s lymphoma

A

Reed-sternberg cells

EBV-associated

Spreads continuously from single lymph node group

B symptoms

Pain in lymph nodes after alcohol

270
Q

Staging of Lymphoma

A

Stage 1
one LN region (LN can include spleen)

Stage 2
two or more LN regions on same side of diaphragm

Stage 3
two or more LN regions on opposite sides of diaphragm

Stage 4
Extranodal sites e.g. liver, brain

A= no B symptoms

B = B symptoms

271
Q

Treatment of Hodgkin’s Lymphoma

A

ABVD

Adriamycin

Bleomycin

Vinblastine

Decarbazine

272
Q

Autologous Stem Cell Transplant

A

Self–> Self

Multiple myeloma

Lymphoma

273
Q

Allogenic Stem Cell Transplant

A

Leukaemia

274
Q

High Grade NH Lymphoma

A

V aggressive - Burkitt’s

Aggressive
Diffuse large B cell

Mantle Cell

275
Q

Low Grade NH Lymphoma

A

Follicular

Marginal Zone

Small Lymphocytic

276
Q

T(8,14)

A

Burkitt’s Lymphoma

277
Q

Mycosis fungoides

A

Cutaneous T cell lymphoma

278
Q

HTLV-1

A

Adult T cell lymphoma/leukaemia

279
Q

c-myc over expression

A

Burkitt’s lymhoma

280
Q

Alk-1 protein expression

A

Anaplastic Large cell lymphoma

281
Q

T(2,5)

A

Anaplastic Large Cell lymphoma

282
Q

Coeliac Disease

A

Enteropathy-associated T cell lymphoma

283
Q

Starry-Sky appearance

A

Burkitt’s lymphoma

284
Q

Sheets of large lymphoid cells

A

Diffuse large B cell lymphoma

285
Q

Angular nuclei

A

Mantle cell lymphoma

286
Q

T(14,18)

A

Follicular lymphoma

287
Q

H.pylori lymphoma

A

Mucosal associated lymphoid tissue lymphoma

288
Q

T(11,14)

A

Mantle Cell lymphoma

289
Q

Ritcher’s Transformation

A

From chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) and hairy cell leukemia —> DLBL

290
Q

BLIMP1

XBP1

A

Markers of Plasma Cell

291
Q
Chromosome 13 deletion
OR
Translocation at 14q32
OR
Hyperdiploid affect chromosomes with uneven numbers (3, 7, 9 etc.)
A

MGUS

additional k-ras or classical oncogenic mutation –> multiple myeloma

292
Q

Monoclonal Gammaglobinopathy of Unknown Significance

A

Pre-clinical abnormality

<10%plasma cells in bone marrow

<30g/l monoclonal paraprotein

No CRAB

293
Q

Smouldeirng Myeloma

A

> 10% plasma cells in bone marrow

> 30g/l monoclonal paraprotein

BUT no CRAB

294
Q

Waldenstrom’s Macroglobinaemia (Lymphoplasmacytoid Lymphoma - LPL)

A

Elderly men

Low grade NHL

Lymphoplasmacytoid cell sproduce monclonal IgM (unlike IgG in Multiple myeloma)

Infiltrates BM and LN

Weight loss, fatigue, hyperviscosity syndrome,

Tx: chlorambucil, cyclophosphamide,

295
Q

Apple-green birefringence

A

Amyloidosis

296
Q

Blood Film Features of Myelodysplastic Syndrome

A

Hypercellular bone marrow

Ring sideroblasts

Pelger-Huet anomaly (bilobed neutrophils)

Dysganulopoieses of neutrophils

Myelokathexis of neutrophils & precursors

Dyserythropoiesis of red cells

Dysplastic megakaryocytes – e.g. micro megakaryocytes

PROGNOSTIC SIGNIFICANCE: Increased proportion of blast cells in marrow (normal < 5%)

297
Q

Myelokathexis of neutrophils

A

Shattered nuclei in bone marrow

=myelodysplastic syndrome

298
Q

International Prognostic Scoring System for Myelodysplastic Syndrome

A

Predict development of acute myeloid leukaemia

Blast cell proportion

Karyotype: Chromosomal Abnormalities

Haemoglobin level

Platelet level

Neutrophil level

Very good: -Y, del(11q)
Good: normal, -Y, del(5q), del(12q), del(20q)
Intermediate: del(7q), +8,+19
Poor: complex (3 abnormalities), -7, double abnormalities inc. -7 or del(7q)
Very Poor: > 3 abnormalities

299
Q

Treatment of MDS

A

Supportive care
Blood product support
Antimicrobial therapy
Growth factors (Epo, G-CSF)

Biological Modifiers
Immunosuppressive therapy
Azacytidine
Lenalidomide (5q- syndrome)

300
Q

Inherited Aplastic Anaemia

A

Fanconi’s Anaemia

Dyskeratosis Congenita

Schwachman-Diamond Syndrome

Diamond-Blackfan Syndrome

301
Q

Fanoni’s Anaemia

A

AR

5-10 years

Skeletal abnormalities (Radii, thumbs)

Renal malformations

Microopthalmia

Short stature

Skin pigmentations

Increased AML

302
Q

Dyskeratosis Congenita

A

C-linked

Telomere shortening (Chromosomal instability)

Triad
Skin pigmentation
Nail dystrophy
Oral leukoplakia

Bone marrow failure

303
Q

Schwachman-Diamond Syndrome

A

AR

Skeletal abnormalities

Pancreatic dysfunction

Endocrine dysfunction

Hepatic impairment

Increased AML

304
Q

Diamond-Blackfan

A

Pure red cell aplasia

Normal WCC and platelets

Dysmorophic

305
Q

Myeloproliferative disorders

A

Ph positive
CML

Ph negative
Polycthaemia vera
Myelofibrosis
Essential thrombocytosis

306
Q

Polycythaemia

A

Primary
Polycythaemia vera
Familial polycythaemia

Secondary (due to Increased EPO)
Altitude
Renal cancer
Chronic Hypoxia

307
Q

Anagrelide

A

treatment of essential thrombocytosis

308
Q

Lowenstein-Jensen Medium

A

TB

309
Q

Gram +ve rods
Acid fast
Aerobic
Intracellular

A

TB

310
Q

Treatment TB meningitis

A

1 year TB therapy

+ corticosteroids

311
Q

Post infleunza infection + cavitation on CXR

A

Staph aureus pneumonia

312
Q

Rusty sputum

Lobar pneumonia on CXR

A

Steptococcus pneumonia

positive diplococci

313
Q

Smoker/COPD with pneumonia

A

Haemophilus influenzae

negative cocco-bacilli

314
Q

Pneumonia in alcoholic

A

Klebsiella

negative rod enterobacter

315
Q

negative coccus pneumonia in a smoker

A

M.catarrhalis

316
Q

Typical Pneumonia

A

=signs of pneumonia on examination

Streptococcus pneumonia

Haemophilus influenza

M.catarrhalis

Staph Aureus

Klebsiella pneumonia

317
Q

Atypical Pneumonia

A

Not classic signs of pneumonia on examination

Legionella

Mycoplasma

Chlamydia pneumonia

Chlamydia psittaci

Bordatella pertusis

TB

318
Q

Air conditioning
Hepatitis
Hyponatraemia

A

Legionella pneumophilia

319
Q

Joint pain
Cold agglutins
Erythema multiforme

A

Mycoplasma

320
Q

Respiratory tract infections in HIV

A

PCP
TB
Cryptococcus neoformans

321
Q

Neutropenia and Respiratory tract infections

A

Fungi - Aspergillus

322
Q

Bone marrow transplant and Respiratory tract infections

A

Aspergillus

CMV

323
Q

TWAR agent

A

Chlamydia pneumonia

324
Q

Mild-moderate CAP antibiotics

A

Amoxicillin
OR
Macrolide

325
Q

Moderate-severe CAP antibiotics

A

Clarithromycin

AND
Co-amoxiclav
OR
Cefuroxime

326
Q

Atypical CAP Antibiotics

A

e.g. chlamydia , mycoplasma

Macrolide

Tetracycline

327
Q

Hospital Acquired Pneumonia Antibiotics

A

1st Line: Ciprofloxacin +/- vancymycin

328
Q

Aspiration Pneumonia Antibiotics

A

Cefuroxime

AND

Metronidazole

329
Q

Legionella Antibiotics

A

Macrolide

AND

Rifampicin

330
Q

Staph Aureus pneumonia Antibiotics

A

Flucloxacillin

331
Q

Psuedomonas spp. Antibiotics

A

Piperacillin + tazobactam (Tazocin)

OR

Ciprofloxacin +/- Gentamicin

332
Q

MRSA antibiotic

A

Vancomycin

333
Q

Gonorrhoea Mx

A

Ceftriaxone IM 250 mg single dose

OR

Cefixime PO 400mg single dose

if resistant –> Spectinomycin 2g single dose (binds to the 30S subunit of the bacterial ribosome)

334
Q

Spectinomysin

A

Treatment of resistant gonorrhoea

Binds to the 30S subunit of the bacterial ribosome

335
Q

Treatment of Chlamydia

A

Azithromycin 1g (4 capsules) Single dose

OR

Doxycycline 100mg BD 7 days

336
Q

Treatment of LGV

A

Doxycycline 100mg BD for 21 days

337
Q

Syphilis

A

Gram neg spirochaete

Treponema pallidum

IM ben pen

338
Q

Argyll-Robertson Pupil

A

Accommodates but does not react

Tertiary syphilis

339
Q

Jarisch-Heimer reaction

A

Fever, headache, myalgia, exacerbation of syphilitic symptoms
AFTER
Treatment with IM ben Pen

340
Q

Chancroid

A

Haemophilus ducreyi

Gram neg cocoobacillus

Painful ulcers

341
Q

Granuloma inguinale

A

Klebsiella granulomatis

Gram neg bacilus

Large expanding ulcer

Beefy red appearance

Tx: azithromycin

342
Q

Molluscum contagiosum

A

poxvirus

dsDNA

In adults = HIV

343
Q

Cryptococcal Meningitis Tx

A

Amphotericin B

344
Q

Herpes Encephalitis

A

HSV-1

345
Q

Mollaret’s meningitis

A

Recurrent aseptic meningitis

HSV-2

346
Q

Pleiocytosis

A

HSV meningitis

347
Q

Tzank cells

A

Multinucleated giant cells

VZV

348
Q

VZV Tx

A

If adult
Neonate
Immunocompromised
Eye involvement

Aciclovir 800mg TDS

349
Q

Owl’s eye inclusion

A

= CMV

350
Q

Treatment of CMV

A

Ganciclovir

351
Q

Infectious Mononucleosis

A

Triad:

Fever
Pharyngitis
Lymphadenopathy

352
Q

CMV in BMT

A

=Pneumonitis

353
Q

CMV retinitis

A

=AIDS

354
Q

Paul Bunnel monospot

A

=CMV

355
Q

HHV-8

A

Kaposi’s sarcoma

Castlemann’s syndrome

Tx: ganciclovir

356
Q

PUO

A

Fever > 38.3º C

On several occasions
persisting without diagnosis for at least 3 weeks in spite of at least 1 weeks investigation

357
Q

Classical PUO

A
Abscesses 
Endocarditis
Tuberculosis
Complicated urinary tract infections
Fever in returning traveller
HIV 
Connective Tissue/Vasculitis
Neoplasms
358
Q

Fever in the Returning Traveller

A
Malaria                       21%
Dengue                        6%
Typhoid                       2%
Rickettsia                     2%
Bacterial diarrhoea       3%
Urinary tract infections 2%
Brucella (indolent)
Viral heam’ fever
359
Q

Neutropenic fever

A

Aspergillus

360
Q

Roth Spots

A

Retinal haemorrhages

If fever think endocarditis

leukemia, diabetes, subacute bacterial endocarditis, pernicious anemia, ischemic events, hypertensive retinopathy and rarely in HIV retinopathy.

361
Q

Choroid tubercle

A

=Intraocular TB

362
Q

Histoplasmosis

A

Immunocompromised

Temperate climate
Dimorphic fungus

Non-specific respiratory symptoms, often cough or flu-like
Chest X-ray findings are normal in 40–70% of cases.

Chronic histoplasmosis cases can resemble tuberculosis

Disseminated histoplasmosis affects multiple organ systems and is fatal unless treated

363
Q

Infective Endocarditis

A

Prosthetic valve –> think endocarditis

Damaged heart valve form rheumatic heart disease –> more likely to get endocarditis

Valves involved are mitral valve, aortic valve most commonly

Fever 90%
Heart murmur 85%
Changing murmur 5-10%

Fever 80%
Chills 40%
Weakness 40%
Dyspnoea 40%

364
Q

Causes of endocarditis

A

Viridans streptococci (oral) 60-80%
Enterococci 30-40%
Staph. aureus 10-27%
Gram negative bacilli 1.2-13%
Fungi 2-4%
Rare..Rothia, Cardiobacterium, etc

Coagulase negative staphylococci (CNS) cause most cases of prosthetic valve endocarditis

365
Q

Duke Criteria

A

Pathologic criteria
1.Microoraginsms demonstrated by culture or histologic examination of a vegetation, a vegetation that has embolised, or an intracardiac abscess specimen

  1. Pathologic lesions: vegetation or intracardiac abscess confirmed by histologic examination showing active endocarditis..\BIT LATE!!

B Clinical criteria
Two major criteria
One major and 3 minor criteria
Five minor criteria

366
Q

Treatment of Endocarditis

A

For strep. viridans endocarditis
Combination of benzylpenicillin and gentamicin

For enterococcal endocarditis
Combination of ampicillin and gentamicin

MSSA endocarditis - flucloxacillin for 4-6 weeks

MRSA endocarditis – Vancomycin and gentamicin or rifampicin or fucidin

367
Q

Typhoid

A

Salmonella typhi and paratyphi

Anaerobic gram neg bacillus

Enteric fever

Infection of Peyer’s patches

Fever, abdo pain, headache, constipation, relative bradycardia

Hepatosplenomegaly

Rose spots

368
Q

Malaria Species

A

P. Falciparum

P. Vivax

P. Ovale

P. Malariae

369
Q

Fever Patterns of Malaria

A

P. Falciparum = tertian 48 hr OR 24 h

P. Vivax = 48 hr

P. Ovale = 48 hr

P. Malariae = 72 hr (Quartan)

370
Q

P. Falciparum complicated infections

A

Resists removal from spleen

Clumping of red cells in capillary beds

Blocks blood flow to organs

Haemolytic organs + reduced perfusion = bad

  • cerebral malaria = confusion, seizures, coma
  • bilious malaria = vomiting, diarrhoea, jaundice and liver failure

lungs
kidney
spleen

=sepsis-like clinical picture

371
Q

Diagnosis of Malaria

A

Thick film = identifies parasites in red cells

Thin film = identifies specific plasmodium species

372
Q

Treatment of P. Falciparum Malaria

A

Mild
Quinine + Doxycycline / Clindamycin
OR Malarone
OR Riamet

Severe
Artemisinin combination therapy
OR
Quinine + Doxycycline/Clindamycin

373
Q

Treatment of P. Vivax / P. Ovale Malaria

A

Chloroquine and then Primaquine

374
Q

Schnuffer’s dots

A

P. Vivax

P. Ovale

375
Q

Young trophozoites (Rings)

Absence of mature trophozoites

Crescent-shaped gametocytes

A

P. Falciparum malaria

376
Q

Antibiotics prone to causing C. Diff

A

The 3 Cs

Cephalosporins

Clindamycin

Ciprofloxacin

377
Q

129 codon MM

A

CJD

378
Q

Serial EEG: periodic triphasic changes

A

Sporadic CJD

379
Q

Brucellosis

A

Gram negative aerobic bacilli

Facultative intracellular

Untreated diary

Undulant fever

Malaise, rigors, arthralgia, tiredness

Spinal tenderness, lymphadenopathy, splenomegaly, heaptomegaly

Epididymo-orchitis

Anti-O-polysaccharide antibody

WCC normal

Tx: tetracycline OR Doxycyline
Combined with streptomycin

380
Q

Anti-O-polysaccharide antibody

A

=Brucellosis

381
Q

Negri bodies

A

=Rabies

382
Q

Erythema chronicum migrans

A

Bulls-eye rash

= Lyme disease

383
Q

Treatment for Lyme Disease

A

Doxycycline 2-3 weks

If CNS disease –> Ceftriaxone

384
Q

Q fever

A

Coxiella burnetii

Looks like atypical pneumonia

385
Q

Painless round black lesion + rim of oedema

A

=Anthrax

386
Q

Massive lymphadenopathy + mediastinal haemorrhage + pleural effusion (resp failure)

A

Pulmonary Anthrax

387
Q

Leptospirosis

A

Gram negative aerobic motile spirochaetes

Excreted in dog, rate urine

Swimming in contaminated water

Spiking temp, headache, conjunctival haemorrhage, jaundice, malaise, myalgia, meningism, carditis, renal failure, haemolytic anaemia

Amoxicillin, Erythromycin, Doxycyline, Ampicillin

388
Q

Cutaneous Leishmaniasis

A

Sandfly (South and Central America + Middle East)

Skin ulcer at site of bite

Multiply in dermal macropahges

Heals after 1 year –> leaves depigmented scar

Type IV reaction

L. major
L. tropica

389
Q

L. braziliensis

A

Muco-cutaneous Leichmaniasis

390
Q

L. donovani
L. infantum
L. chagasi

A

Visceral Leichmaniasis

Kala-Azar

391
Q

Increase PR interval on ECG with bacterial endocarditis

A

Periventricular abscess –> need surgical intervention

392
Q

Inx for bacterial endocarditis

A

at least 3 different blood cultures

393
Q

Amantadine

A

Targets M2 ion channel

mutation S31N in M2 = resistance

394
Q

Neuraminidae inhibitors

A

Oseltamivir
Zanamivir
Sialic acid

395
Q

Influenza A

A

8 RNA segments

NA

HA

396
Q

CMV complications (RCHEP)

A
Retinitis
Colitis
Hepatitis
Encephalitis
Pneumonitis
397
Q

Guanosine analogue

A

Aciclovir

Activated by viral thymidine kinase

398
Q

Pyrophosphate analogue

A

Foscarnet

Inhibits nucleic acid synthesis without requiring activation

399
Q

Ganciclovir

A

Used to treat CMV

also EBV and HHV-6

Nucleoside analogue

Side effects: bone marrow suppression

400
Q

Nucleoside phosphonate

A

Cidofovir

Used in CMV retinitis

And post-transplant

401
Q

Treatment of HSV

A

IV aciclovir

If resistant Valaciclovir and Famciclovir

Act Very Fast
A
V
F

402
Q

Treatment for Hepatitis B

A

Entecavir

Peg IFN alpha2 (subcut)

Tenfovir

403
Q

Tenofovir

A

Inhibitor of reverse transcriptase

404
Q

Treatment for Hepatitis C

A

Peg INF 2b/2a

Ribavirin

Works bets in genotypes 2 and 3

405
Q

Ribavirin

A

RNA nucleoside analogue

(causes hamolytic anaemia)

Used in Hep B

AND adenovirus Tx in paediatric post-transplant

406
Q

CMV pos and neg in transplant

A

Solid organ:
Recipient neg –> donor must be neg

BM transplant
Recipient pos –> donor must be pos

407
Q

HHV-6 treatment

A

Ganciclovir

Foscarnet/Cidofovir

408
Q

Treatment of Pyelonephritis

A

Co-Amoxiclav
+/-
Gentimicin

OR

Cefuroxime
+/-
Getamicin

409
Q

Four mechanisms of resistance = BEAT

A

Bypass antibiotic-sensitive step e.g. MRSA

Enyme-mediated destruction e.g. beta-lactamase

Accumulation reduction e.g. Tetracycline

Target change (modify protein targeted by antibiotics) e.g. Quinolone resistance

410
Q

Treatment of Meningitis

A

Ceftriaxone

Corticosteroids

Ampicillin

411
Q

Hep B antibodies

A

HBsAntibody = chronic carrier

HBeAntibody –> low infectivity in carrier

HBcAntibody
IgM –> recent infection
IgG –> previous expsoure to HBV (cleared and chronic carriers)

412
Q

Diagnosis of Diabetes

A

Fasting Glucose >7.0mM

If still suspicious but fasting negative –>

OGTT 2 hour >11.1

HbA1c >6.5% OR >48mmol/mol

413
Q

Management of Hypokalaemia

A

3.0-3.5
Oral KCl Sandok Tablets for 48 hours
Recheck K+

<3.0
IV KCl
Max rate 10nmol/h
>20nmol/h highly irritant to veins

414
Q

Gitelman Syndrome

A

Autosomal recessive kidney disorder

Hypokalaemia

Low magnesium

Decreased excretion of calcium in the urine

Elevated blood pH

Caused by loss of function mutations of the thiazide-sensitive sodium-chloride symporter

Located in the distal convoluted tubule of the kidney

415
Q

Bartter Syndrome

A

Rare inherited defect in the thick Ascending limb of the loop of Henle

Hypokalemia

Alkalosis

Normal to low blood pressure

Polyuria, and polydipsia

Calciuria

Two types of Bartter syndrome: neonatal and classic

416
Q

Management of Hyperkalaemia

A

U&Es, ECG, drug review

10ml 10% Calcium gluconate

50ml 50% dextrose + 10 units of insulin

Nebulised salbutamol

417
Q

sgk-1

A

Under control of aldosterone

Inhibits Nedd4, normally tags ENac for degredation

sgk-1 –> sodium reabsorption

418
Q

Elevated Anion Gap (KULT)

A

Ketoacidosis (DKA, alcoholism, starvation)

Uraemia (renal failure)

Lactic acidosis

Toxins (ethylene glycol, methanol, paraldehyde, salicyclate)

419
Q

AST : ALT 2:1

A

Alcoholic liver disease

420
Q

AST : ALT <1:1

A

Viral liver disease

421
Q

GGT

A

Raised in alcohol and bile duct disease

Found in hepatocytes and epithelium of small bile ducts

422
Q

Raised ALP and Dilated Ducts

A

=mechanical obstruction

Gallstones

Cancer

423
Q

Raised ALP and ducts NOT dilated

A

=injury of the bile duct

Primary biliary cirrhosis

Primary sclerosing cholangitis

Toxic injury of bile ducts (drugs: augmentin)

Pregnancy

424
Q

Low urobilinogen

A

Obstructive jaundice

raised in haemolysis

425
Q

Decreased Albumin

A

Sepsis

Warfarin use

Nephrotic syndrome OR protein losing enteropathy e.g. IBD

Chronic liver disease

426
Q

Triad of
Abdominal Pain
Psychiatric Symptoms
Neurological symptoms

A

Porphyria

427
Q

PBG Synthase deficiency

A

ALA Dehydratase / Plumboporphyria

428
Q

HMB Synthase deficiency

A

Acute Intermittent Porphyria

429
Q

Coproporphyrinogen oxidase deficiency

A

Hereditary Coproporphyria

430
Q

Protoporphyrinogen oxidase deficiency

A

Variegate Porphyria

431
Q

Uroporphyrinogen III synthase deficiency

A

Congenital eryrthopoietic porphyria

432
Q

Uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase deficiency

A

Porphyria cutanea tarda

433
Q

Ferrochetolase deficiency

A

Erythropoietic protoporphyria

434
Q

Glucose level cut-off for triple test

A

<2.2

435
Q

Homovanillic acid in urine

A

= Neuroblastoma

436
Q

Waterhouse–Friderichsen syndrome

A

hemorrhagic adrenalitis or fulminant meningococcemia is defined as adrenal gland failure due to bleeding into the adrenal glands

Commonly caused by severe bacterial infection
Typically the pathogen is the meningococcus Neisseria meningitidis

437
Q

Treatment for Grave’s

A

Carbimazole

Propylthiouracol

Inhibit thyroperoxidase enzyme

438
Q

Schmidt’s

A

Polyglandular autoimmune type II

Addison’s

Autoimmune hypothyroidism

439
Q

MEN II

A

Thyroid (medullar carcinoma)

Parathyroid

Phaeochromocytoma

440
Q

MEN I

A

Pituitary

Parathyroid

Pancreas

441
Q

Cacitonin

A

Tumour marker for Medullary carcinoma of thyroid

Produced by C cells

Reduce blood calcium, opposing the effects of PTH

442
Q

Medullary carcinoma

A

MEN II

Calcitonin tumour marker

cancer of C cells

443
Q

Thyroglobulin

A

Tumour marker for Follicular thyroid cancers

Produced by follicular cells

Precursor of the thyroid hormones; these are produced when thyroglobulin’s tyrosine residues are combined with iodine and the protein is subsequently cleaved

444
Q

Treatment of papillary and follicular thyroid cancers

A

T4 –> suppresses TSH (TSH dependent)

removal of thyroid gland

Radioiodine to irradicate any remaining cells

445
Q

Ataxia and nystagmus

A

Phenytoin toxicity

Omit dose

446
Q

Arrhythmias, heart block, confusion, xanthopsia

A

Digoxin toxicity

Digibind

447
Q

Tremor, lethargy, fits, arrhythmia, renal failure

A

Lithium toxicity

Haemodialysis

448
Q

Tinnitus, deafness, nystagmus, renal failure

A

Gentamicin toxicity

Omit dose

449
Q

Arrhythmias, anxiety, tremor, convulsion

A

Theophyline toxicity

Omit dose

450
Q

Normal plasma calcium

A

2.2-2.6

451
Q

Adjusted calcium

A

= 40 - 0.02[albumin]

When you measure calcium you measure the albumin-bound form

If you have low albumin, you can get a falsely low Ca2+ measurement –> use adjusted calcium

452
Q

3 Important causes of Hypercalcaemia

A

Primary hyperparathyroidism

Malignancy of bone OR ectopic PTH

Sarcoidosis

453
Q

Treatment of Hypercalcaemia

A

(if unwell or >3.0)
FLUIDS FLUIDS FLUIDS

IV saline 0.9% (4L/24h)

Furosemide

IV Pamidronate (30-60mg) Bisphosphonates if bony metastasis (slow invasion and decrease pain)

454
Q

Causes of Hypocalcaemia

A

Vitamin D deficiency

Chronic kidney disease

Hypoparathyroidism

Pseudohypoparathyrodism

Magnesium deficiency

DiGeorge

455
Q

Looser’s zone

A

=vitamin D deficiency

456
Q

Radial aspect cystic changes

A

Primary hyperparathyroidism

457
Q

Management of Sarcoidosis

A

40mg steroids / day

458
Q

Band keratopathy

A

=Hypercalcaemia

(Not cancer, takes too long to develop and cancer would have killed them by then)

Ca deposits in band in front of cornea

459
Q

Causes of Osteomalacia

A

Vitamin D Deficiency

Chronic kidney disease

Anticonvulsants

Chappatis (phytic acid chelates Vit D in gut)

460
Q

Causes of Hypercalcaemia

A

PTH raised = don’t have cancer
Primary PTH adenoma

Familial hypocalciuric hypercalcaemia

PTH NOT raised = cancer
Squamous cell carcinoma

Ectopic PTHrP (neonatal marker = poor prognosis)

Bony metastasis e.g Breast cancer

Myeloma

461
Q

Familial hypocalciuric hypercalcaemia

A

Calcium sensing receptor (CaSR) mutation

Right shift: Higher PTH for a given Ca
More PTH –> More Ca in blood, less in urine

462
Q

Diagnostic Criteria for an Acute MI

A

EITHER

1) Typical rise and gradual fall of troponin OR rapid rise and fall CK-MB with at least one of the following:
- ischaemic symptoms
- pathological q wave on the ECG
- ECG changes indicative of ischaemia
- Coronary artery intervention

OR

2) Pathological findings of an acute MI

463
Q

PKU

A

Phenylaline hydroxylase deficiency

464
Q

T cell deficiencies

A

Bare Lymphocyte Syndrome

DiGeorge’s Syndrome

465
Q

Regulatory Factor X defect

A

Bare lymphocyte syndrome

466
Q

Absent MHC Class I

A

Bare lymphocyte syndrome Type 1

467
Q

Absent MHC Class II

A

Bare lymphocyte syndrome Type 2

468
Q

Membranoproliferative nephritis and bacterial infections

A

C3 deficiency with presence of a nephritic factor

469
Q

HLA B27

A

Ankylosing spondylitis

470
Q

HLA DR15 / HLA DR2

A

Goodpasture’s

471
Q

HLA-DR3

A

Graves

SLE

Type I diabetes

472
Q

HLA DR3 / HLA DR4

A

Type I Diabetes

473
Q

HLA DR4

A

Rheumatoud arthritis

Type I Diabetes

474
Q

PTPN22

A

Tyrosine phosphatase expressed in lymphocytes

Associated with Rheumatoid Arthritis, SLE and Type 1 Diabetes

475
Q

CTLA4

A

Receptor for CD80/86 expressed by T cells

Expressed in Tregs

Inhibitory control of cell activation

SLE
Type 1 diabetes
Autoimmune thyroid disease

476
Q

Human Normal Immunoglobulin

A

Antibody replacement

Pooled from 1000s of donors

Every 3-4 weeks IV or subcut

Used for:
CVID
Bruton’s
Post-BMT

477
Q

INF-alpha

A

Hepatitis B

Hepatitis C

Kaposi’s Sarcoma

Hairy cell leukaemia

Chronic Myelogenous Leukaemia

Malignant Myeloma

478
Q

INF-beta

A

MS

479
Q

INF-y

A

Chronic granulomatous disease

480
Q

Dihydrofolate reductase (DHFR) inhitor

A

Methotrexate

481
Q

GVHD Prophylaxis

A

Methotrexate/Cyclosporine

482
Q

HIV routine treatment

A

Atripla =

  • Emtricitabine
  • Tenofovir
  • Efavirenz
483
Q

HIV in pregnancy

A

Zidovudine

484
Q

CD45 RO

A

Memory T cells

485
Q

CD45 RA

A

Naive T cells

486
Q

Effector memory T cells

A

CCR7-
CD26 low

Not found in lymph nodes

Perforin and IFN-y

487
Q

Central Memory T cells

A

CCR7+
CD26 high

Lymph nodes

IL-2

488
Q

Alum

A

Adjuvant used in human vaccine

Activates Gr1 cells to produce IL-4

Primes naive B cells

489
Q

Gas gangrene

A

Clostridium perfringens

490
Q

Urinary 5-HIAA

A

Carcinoid syndrome (Bronchoconstriction, Flushing, Diarrhoea)

Metabolite of serotonin

491
Q

APC gene

A

First hit in adenocarcinoma colon cancer

FAP

492
Q

Multiple polyps
Mucocutaneous hyperpigmentation
Freckles around mouth, palms and soles

A

Peutz-Jeghers syndrome

AD - LKB1
Increased risk of intussusception and malignancy

Characterized by the development of benign hamartomatous polyps in the gastrointestinal tract and hyperpigmented macules on the lips and oral mucosa (melanosis).

493
Q

Juvenile polyposis

A

AD

< 5 yrs

May require colectomy

494
Q

Duke’s Staging

A

A: confined to mucosa (95% 5ysr)

B1: extending into muscularis propria (67% 5ysr)

B2: transmural invasion, no lymph node involved (54% 5ysr)

C1: extending to muscularis propria, with LN metastases (43% 5ysr)

C2: transmural invasion, no lymph node involved (43% 5ysr)

D: distant metastases (<10%5ysr)

495
Q

CCK

A

causes release of digestive enzyme

Produced by I-cells in duodenum

496
Q

Secretin

A

Controls gastric acid secretion with HCO30 buffering

Produced by S-cells of duodenum

497
Q

Coagulative necrosis

A

Acute pancreatitis

498
Q

Raised serum Lipase

A

Acute Pancreatitis

499
Q

Causes of Acute Pancreatitis

A

Idiopathic

Gallstones
Ethanol
Trauma

Steroids
Mumps
Autoimmune
Scorpion
Hyperlipidaemia
ERCP
Drugs (thiazides)
500
Q

Causes of chronic pancreatitis

A

Alcoholism

Cystic fibrosis

Hereditary

Pancreatic duct obstruction (stones, tumour, autoimmune IgG4 scerlosing)

501
Q

Fibrosis and loss of exocrine tissue, duct dilation with thick secretions and calcification

A

Chronic pancreatitis

502
Q

CA19.9

A

Pancreatic carcinoma (acinar)

503
Q

Functional neuroendocrine tumours

A

Insulinoma

Gastrinoma (Zollinger-Ellison syndrome)

VIPoma

Glucagonoma

504
Q

Alpha fetoprotein

A

Hepatocellular carcinoma

505
Q

Benign tumours of liver

A

Hepatic adenoma = OCP

Haemangioma

Bile duct adenoma

506
Q

Malignant tumours of the liver

A

HCC

Angiosarcoma

Hepatoblastoma (in young children, primitive hepatocytes)

Cholangiosarcoma (adenocarcinoma) - PSC, Chronic liver disease, Lynch syndrome II (HNPCC), parasitic liver disease

Metastatic: most common
Usually form GI tract
/breast/ bronchus

507
Q

Cirrhosis Histology

A

Hepatocyte necrosis

Fibrosis

Nodules of regenerating hepatocytes

Disruption of liver architecture (resistance to blood flow –> portal hypertension)

508
Q

Genetic causes of liver cirrhosis

A

Haemochromatosis = HFE gene chromosome 6

Wilson’s disease = ATP7B chromosome 13

A1AT deficiency

Galactosaemia

Glycogen storage disease

509
Q

Micronodular cirrhosis

A

< 3mm Uniform

Alcoholic hepatitis

Biliary tract disease

510
Q

Macronodular cirrhosis

A

> 3mm

Viral hepatocytes

Wilson’s disease

A1AT deficiency

511
Q

Modified Pugh Score

A

Liver cirrhosis prognosis

> 10 = v bad <20% 5yrs

512
Q

Causes of Portal Hypertension

A

Pre-hepatic
Portal vein thrombosis (e.g. Factor V Leiden)

Hepatic
Pre-sinusoidal: Schistosomiasis, PBC

Sinusoidal: Cirrhosis

Post-sinusoidal: veno-occlusive disease

Post-hepatic
Budd-Chiari syndrome: occlusion of hepatic vein

513
Q

Bile duct loss + granuloma

A

Primary biliary cholangitis

514
Q

Low ceruloplasmin

A

Wilson’s

515
Q

Direct Van den Bergh

A

Conjugated

Complete —> unconjugated

516
Q

Onion-skinning fibrosis + multi-focal strictures

A

Primary sclerosing cholangitis

517
Q

Rhodanine stain

A

Copper

Wilson’s

518
Q

Periodic acid Schiff

A

Stain A1AT

519
Q

Treatment of Haemochromatosis

A

Desforrioxamine

Venesection

520
Q

Treatment of Wilson’s

A

Penicillamine

521
Q

Macroglossia
Heart failure
Hepatomegaly

A

Amyloidosis

522
Q

HLA-DRB1

A

Goodpasture’s

523
Q

Thrombotic microangipathies

A

Thrombosis
+MAHA
+Thrombocytopenia
+renal failure (mostly in HUS)

Causes
TTP - diffuse, esp in CNS
HUS - confined to kidneys

TTP = headache, altered consciousness
HUS= renal failure
524
Q

Liver cysts and berry aneurysm with reduced GFR

A

PKD1

Chromosome 16 autosomal dominant

525
Q

Sharply circumscribed, discrete, round, firm, grey-white tumours

A

Fibroid

526
Q

Tamoxifen

A

oestrogen receptor antagonist/agonist

527
Q

Herceptin / Trastuzumac

A

Monoclonal Ig to HER2 (breast cancer)