Path 1 Final- Review Flashcards

1
Q

What does the word Lentigo mean?

A

small, pigmented spots on the skin with a clearly defined edge
“sun spots”/”age spots”
a proliferation of melanocytes

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2
Q

What is meant by the word nevus?

A

nevus= nest

melanocytic nevi are nests of melanocytes found in moles

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3
Q

What are characteristics the may indicate that a nevus may be dysplastic?

A

ABCDEFG

Asymmetrical, irregular borders, variegated color, large diameter, elevated, firm, growing

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4
Q

What can acanthosis nigricans be an indication of?

A

associated with obesity and hyperinsulinism. can be associated with internal GI malignancy

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5
Q

What is the sign of Leser-Trelat?

A

the sudden development of multiple lesions, possible accompanying an underlying malignancy. Seen in seborrheic keratosis where there is a “stuck-on” appearance of keratin-filled epidermal pseudocysts

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6
Q

What physical exam tests are used to evaluate for Psoriasis and Pemphigus?

A

Auspitz sign: Psoriasis (remove scale, look for pinpoint bleeding
Nikolski’s sign: Pemphigus (do blisters burst under light pressure

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7
Q

What is the relationship between topical steroids and Tenia infections of the skin?

A

topical steroids used in conjunction with antifungals increase the efficacy of the antifungal and provide faster relief

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8
Q

What is the difference between Eythema Nodosum and Erythema Multiforme?

A

E.Multiforme: hypersensitivity skin reactions characterized by target lesions
E. Nodosum: raised painful nodules, sometimes associated with granulomatous diseases and strep

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9
Q

What layers are involved in BCC, SCC and Melanoma?

A

BCC: arises from basal cells of hair follicles
SCC: atypical keratinocytes that invade the dermis, rarely metastasize
Melanoma: melanocytes in the dermis

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10
Q

What is the study of the essential nature and characteristic of disease?

A

pathology

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11
Q

What is the impairment of the normal states called?

A

disease

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12
Q

What is the maintenance of a harmonious environment within the body called?

A

homeostasis

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13
Q

What are the collective sequelae/effects of a disease called?

A

morbidity

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14
Q

What is the property of a disease that gives it a specific virulence/sequelae called?

A

comorbidity

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15
Q

What is a doctor-acquired illness called?

A

iatrogenic

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16
Q

What is a disease called when we don’t know the cause?

A

idiopathic

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17
Q

What is the SUBJECTIVE part of a SOAP note?

A

Symptoms

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18
Q

What is the OBJECTIVE part of a SOAP note?

A

Signs

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19
Q

When respiration in non-spontaneous, a pulse is not palpable and heart sounds are not able to be auscultated, what has occured?

A

Death

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20
Q

When the immune system functions properly to clear an infection before symptoms are present, the infection is said to be:

A

sub-clinical

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21
Q

The underlying cause of disease is called its:

A

etiology

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22
Q

The course that a disease takes from start to finish is called:

A

pathogenesis

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23
Q

The conformation of damaged cells and tissues from infection is called:

A

morphology

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24
Q

What is “functional disease”?

A

a disease that we know exists but have not discovered any gross or microscopic morphological changes at this time (eg. chronic fatigue syndrome)

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25
What is a "syndrome"?
A group of signs and symptoms that occur together and characterize a particular abnormality or condition
26
On an H and E stain, which structures are stained Red, and which are stained Blue?
Eosin stains the cytoplasm, RBCs and collagen red. | Hematoxylin stains nuclie, bacteria and nucleic acids (DNA, RNA) blue.
27
What is the difference between necrosis and apoptosis?
apoptosis is the normal cell-death cycle, whereas necrosis is abnormal cell death, usually characterized by inflammation
28
What are common causes of cellular injury?
hypoxia resulting in ischemia is the most common cause of cellular injury. infection, inflammation, immunologic reactions, congenital disorders, chemical injury, physical injury....
29
A deficiency in Vitamin A can cause what (3) conditions?
squamous metaplasia, immune deficiency and night blindness
30
A deficiency in Vitamin C can cause_____
scurvy
31
A deficiency in Vitamin D can cause (2)
rickets and osteomalacia
32
A deficiency in Vitamin K can cause
bleeding diathesis
33
A deficiency in Vitamin B12 can cause (3)
megaloblastic anemia, neuropathy, spinal cord degeneration
34
A deficiency in B9 (folate) can cause (2)
megaloblastic anemia and neural tube defects
35
A deficiency in B3 (niacin) can cause
pellagra (diarrhea, dermatitis, dementia and death)
36
When does cloudy swelling occur?
occurs when intracellular proteins accumulate in the serum. due to hypoxia and cellular degeneration. decreased ATP and Na-pump acitivity -->Na, Ca and water accumulation intracellularly
37
Where do free radicals come from?
oxygen derived, from UV light, metabolism, inflammation, smoking, ionizing radiation or air pollution
38
What is the basic pathway in an injured cell, starting with mitochondrial dysfunction and ending at cellular swelling?
mitochondrial dysfunction --> decrease in ox. phosphorylation --> dec in ATP--> highly permeable mitochondria--> mitochondria release cytochrome C, triggers apoptosis. Na/K pumps fail, influx of Na and water, efflux of K --> cellular swelling
39
What is the significance of anaplasia, what are the two chief findings of anaplasia?
complete de-differentiation of cells that are unrecognizable from their original differentiated state. "brick-like" pattern and a dramatic increase in nucleus:cytoplasm ratio.
40
What are the differences between primary, secondary and tertiary intentions?
primary: wound edges approximated (stitches), decreased scarring, heals well secondary: no stitches, wound fills with granulous tissue and fibrin (scarring) tertiary: delayed approximation (stitches) to preventin infection or edema
41
What is the difference between hypoplasia and agenesis?
Hypoplasia is defective/incomplete formation of a part, whereas agenesis is the complete absence/failure of formation of that part
42
What are the three different types of stem cells?
labile, stable and permanent cells
43
What are labile stem cells and where are they found?
continuously dividing stem cells. found in the epidermis, GI tract
44
What are stable stem cells and where are they found?
stem cells with a low level of replication, found in hepatocytes, renal tubule epithelium, alveoli, pancreatic acini....
45
What are permanent stem cells and where are they found?
stem cells that rarely, if ever, divide. found in nervous tissue, cardiac myocytes and skeletal muscle
46
What are the three states of fracture healing?
procallous: hematoma provides anchorage but no structural integrity fibrocartilaginous callous: fibrous ball around the fracture osseus callous
47
What is the difference between traumatic fracture and pathologic fracture?
pathologic fractures are caused by disease sequelae whereas traumatic fractures are caused by physical trauma
48
What is a karyotype and what is an ideogram?
karyotype: the number and visual appearance of chromosomes, showing appearance and banding patterns Ideogram: schematic representation of chromosomes showing number and banding patterns
49
How big do mutations have to be in order to be seen on a karyotype?
4mb
50
What are the parts of a chromosome?
short arm (p), long arm (q) and the centromere
51
How many pairs of autosomes and how many sex chromosomes do humans have?
22 pairs of autosomes, 1 pair of sex chromosomes (23 pairs total, 46 total)
52
How does the medical and general usage of the word "gene" differ?
medical: protein-coding sequence only general: any functional unit of a chromosome only 5% of the human genome is protein coding. 5% of that 5% is found in other animals
53
What is a locus?
the exact physical location of a gene on a chromosome
54
What are alleles?
variations of a gene. (can be heterozygous or homozygous)
55
What is the difference between genotype and phenotype?
genotype: the particular combination of alleles phenotype: the physical manifestation of the gentoype, presence of the trait
56
What is an SNP?
a single nucleotide polymorphism- DNA variations at a single nucleotide
57
What is the difference between imprinting of the X-chromosome and imprinting of an autosome?
one of two X-chromosomes in a female is entirely inactivated epigenetically (--> a barr body) imprinting of all other chromosomes usually only occurs at a few loci
58
What are the five points of control of gene expression? Which is most studied?
``` Chromatin stage (most studied) Transcriptional Stage Translational Stage Post-translational control into the cytoplasm Post-translational modification ```
59
Why does DNA naturally wrap around histones? What epigenetic changes can cocur to histone tails to encourage winding/unwinding?
Neg charged DNA backbone is attracted to the positively charged histone. Histone methylation (can also occur at CpG islands in promoter regions of DNA) --> down regulation of transcription Histone Acetylation -->upregulation of transcription Ubiquination, Sumoylation and phosphorylation can also occur
60
What is a promoter region on a gene? Why are promoter regions in active genes generally not methylated?
Promoter regions are areas of DNA that precede the gene and are generally next to CpG islands. Methylation of promoter regions generally silences that gene
61
What is the difference between exudates and transudates? Which causes pitting edema?
Transudates: edema with low protein content (will produce non-pitting edema) Exudates: fluid with high protein content *remember the newspaper test
62
What is Virchow's Triad and what are examples of diseases/conditions of each?
Hypercoagulability: clotting disorders, oral contraceptives, malignancy, pregnancy, sepsis, thrombophilia, IBD Stasis: atrial fibrilation, immobility, venous obstruction, venous insufficiency/varicose veins Vascular wall injury: trauma/surgery, venipuncture, heart valve disease/replacement, atherosclerosis, catheters
63
What is the difference between an embolism and a thrombus?
thrombus: vascular occlusion embolism: intravascular mass that is carried by the bloodstream from the site of origin (dislodged thrombus)
64
What are some features of pulmonary emboli?
found in almost half of all hospital autopsies. 95% arise from DVTs. Diagnosed by a spiral CT. Most arise from the right side of the heart
65
What is the newspaper test?
The ability to be able to read a newspaper through a fluid, indicates a transudate fluid.