Path 1 Final- Review Flashcards

1
Q

What does the word Lentigo mean?

A

small, pigmented spots on the skin with a clearly defined edge
“sun spots”/”age spots”
a proliferation of melanocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is meant by the word nevus?

A

nevus= nest

melanocytic nevi are nests of melanocytes found in moles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are characteristics the may indicate that a nevus may be dysplastic?

A

ABCDEFG

Asymmetrical, irregular borders, variegated color, large diameter, elevated, firm, growing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What can acanthosis nigricans be an indication of?

A

associated with obesity and hyperinsulinism. can be associated with internal GI malignancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the sign of Leser-Trelat?

A

the sudden development of multiple lesions, possible accompanying an underlying malignancy. Seen in seborrheic keratosis where there is a “stuck-on” appearance of keratin-filled epidermal pseudocysts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What physical exam tests are used to evaluate for Psoriasis and Pemphigus?

A

Auspitz sign: Psoriasis (remove scale, look for pinpoint bleeding
Nikolski’s sign: Pemphigus (do blisters burst under light pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the relationship between topical steroids and Tenia infections of the skin?

A

topical steroids used in conjunction with antifungals increase the efficacy of the antifungal and provide faster relief

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the difference between Eythema Nodosum and Erythema Multiforme?

A

E.Multiforme: hypersensitivity skin reactions characterized by target lesions
E. Nodosum: raised painful nodules, sometimes associated with granulomatous diseases and strep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What layers are involved in BCC, SCC and Melanoma?

A

BCC: arises from basal cells of hair follicles
SCC: atypical keratinocytes that invade the dermis, rarely metastasize
Melanoma: melanocytes in the dermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the study of the essential nature and characteristic of disease?

A

pathology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the impairment of the normal states called?

A

disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the maintenance of a harmonious environment within the body called?

A

homeostasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the collective sequelae/effects of a disease called?

A

morbidity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the property of a disease that gives it a specific virulence/sequelae called?

A

comorbidity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is a doctor-acquired illness called?

A

iatrogenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is a disease called when we don’t know the cause?

A

idiopathic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the SUBJECTIVE part of a SOAP note?

A

Symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the OBJECTIVE part of a SOAP note?

A

Signs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

When respiration in non-spontaneous, a pulse is not palpable and heart sounds are not able to be auscultated, what has occured?

A

Death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

When the immune system functions properly to clear an infection before symptoms are present, the infection is said to be:

A

sub-clinical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The underlying cause of disease is called its:

A

etiology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The course that a disease takes from start to finish is called:

A

pathogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The conformation of damaged cells and tissues from infection is called:

A

morphology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is “functional disease”?

A

a disease that we know exists but have not discovered any gross or microscopic morphological changes at this time (eg. chronic fatigue syndrome)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is a “syndrome”?

A

A group of signs and symptoms that occur together and characterize a particular abnormality or condition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

On an H and E stain, which structures are stained Red, and which are stained Blue?

A

Eosin stains the cytoplasm, RBCs and collagen red.

Hematoxylin stains nuclie, bacteria and nucleic acids (DNA, RNA) blue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the difference between necrosis and apoptosis?

A

apoptosis is the normal cell-death cycle, whereas necrosis is abnormal cell death, usually characterized by inflammation

28
Q

What are common causes of cellular injury?

A

hypoxia resulting in ischemia is the most common cause of cellular injury.
infection, inflammation, immunologic reactions, congenital disorders, chemical injury, physical injury….

29
Q

A deficiency in Vitamin A can cause what (3) conditions?

A

squamous metaplasia, immune deficiency and night blindness

30
Q

A deficiency in Vitamin C can cause_____

A

scurvy

31
Q

A deficiency in Vitamin D can cause (2)

A

rickets and osteomalacia

32
Q

A deficiency in Vitamin K can cause

A

bleeding diathesis

33
Q

A deficiency in Vitamin B12 can cause (3)

A

megaloblastic anemia, neuropathy, spinal cord degeneration

34
Q

A deficiency in B9 (folate) can cause (2)

A

megaloblastic anemia and neural tube defects

35
Q

A deficiency in B3 (niacin) can cause

A

pellagra (diarrhea, dermatitis, dementia and death)

36
Q

When does cloudy swelling occur?

A

occurs when intracellular proteins accumulate in the serum. due to hypoxia and cellular degeneration. decreased ATP and Na-pump acitivity –>Na, Ca and water accumulation intracellularly

37
Q

Where do free radicals come from?

A

oxygen derived, from UV light, metabolism, inflammation, smoking, ionizing radiation or air pollution

38
Q

What is the basic pathway in an injured cell, starting with mitochondrial dysfunction and ending at cellular swelling?

A

mitochondrial dysfunction –> decrease in ox. phosphorylation –> dec in ATP–> highly permeable mitochondria–> mitochondria release cytochrome C, triggers apoptosis. Na/K pumps fail, influx of Na and water, efflux of K –> cellular swelling

39
Q

What is the significance of anaplasia, what are the two chief findings of anaplasia?

A

complete de-differentiation of cells that are unrecognizable from their original differentiated state.
“brick-like” pattern and a dramatic increase in nucleus:cytoplasm ratio.

40
Q

What are the differences between primary, secondary and tertiary intentions?

A

primary: wound edges approximated (stitches), decreased scarring, heals well
secondary: no stitches, wound fills with granulous tissue and fibrin (scarring)
tertiary: delayed approximation (stitches) to preventin infection or edema

41
Q

What is the difference between hypoplasia and agenesis?

A

Hypoplasia is defective/incomplete formation of a part, whereas agenesis is the complete absence/failure of formation of that part

42
Q

What are the three different types of stem cells?

A

labile, stable and permanent cells

43
Q

What are labile stem cells and where are they found?

A

continuously dividing stem cells. found in the epidermis, GI tract

44
Q

What are stable stem cells and where are they found?

A

stem cells with a low level of replication, found in hepatocytes, renal tubule epithelium, alveoli, pancreatic acini….

45
Q

What are permanent stem cells and where are they found?

A

stem cells that rarely, if ever, divide. found in nervous tissue, cardiac myocytes and skeletal muscle

46
Q

What are the three states of fracture healing?

A

procallous: hematoma provides anchorage but no structural integrity
fibrocartilaginous callous: fibrous ball around the fracture
osseus callous

47
Q

What is the difference between traumatic fracture and pathologic fracture?

A

pathologic fractures are caused by disease sequelae whereas traumatic fractures are caused by physical trauma

48
Q

What is a karyotype and what is an ideogram?

A

karyotype: the number and visual appearance of chromosomes, showing appearance and banding patterns
Ideogram: schematic representation of chromosomes showing number and banding patterns

49
Q

How big do mutations have to be in order to be seen on a karyotype?

A

4mb

50
Q

What are the parts of a chromosome?

A

short arm (p), long arm (q) and the centromere

51
Q

How many pairs of autosomes and how many sex chromosomes do humans have?

A

22 pairs of autosomes, 1 pair of sex chromosomes (23 pairs total, 46 total)

52
Q

How does the medical and general usage of the word “gene” differ?

A

medical: protein-coding sequence only
general: any functional unit of a chromosome
only 5% of the human genome is protein coding. 5% of that 5% is found in other animals

53
Q

What is a locus?

A

the exact physical location of a gene on a chromosome

54
Q

What are alleles?

A

variations of a gene. (can be heterozygous or homozygous)

55
Q

What is the difference between genotype and phenotype?

A

genotype: the particular combination of alleles
phenotype: the physical manifestation of the gentoype, presence of the trait

56
Q

What is an SNP?

A

a single nucleotide polymorphism- DNA variations at a single nucleotide

57
Q

What is the difference between imprinting of the X-chromosome and imprinting of an autosome?

A

one of two X-chromosomes in a female is entirely inactivated epigenetically (–> a barr body)
imprinting of all other chromosomes usually only occurs at a few loci

58
Q

What are the five points of control of gene expression? Which is most studied?

A
Chromatin stage (most studied)
Transcriptional Stage
Translational Stage
Post-translational control into the cytoplasm
Post-translational modification
59
Q

Why does DNA naturally wrap around histones? What epigenetic changes can cocur to histone tails to encourage winding/unwinding?

A

Neg charged DNA backbone is attracted to the positively charged histone.
Histone methylation (can also occur at CpG islands in promoter regions of DNA) –> down regulation of transcription
Histone Acetylation –>upregulation of transcription
Ubiquination, Sumoylation and phosphorylation can also occur

60
Q

What is a promoter region on a gene? Why are promoter regions in active genes generally not methylated?

A

Promoter regions are areas of DNA that precede the gene and are generally next to CpG islands. Methylation of promoter regions generally silences that gene

61
Q

What is the difference between exudates and transudates? Which causes pitting edema?

A

Transudates: edema with low protein content (will produce non-pitting edema)
Exudates: fluid with high protein content

*remember the newspaper test

62
Q

What is Virchow’s Triad and what are examples of diseases/conditions of each?

A

Hypercoagulability: clotting disorders, oral contraceptives, malignancy, pregnancy, sepsis, thrombophilia, IBD
Stasis: atrial fibrilation, immobility, venous obstruction, venous insufficiency/varicose veins
Vascular wall injury: trauma/surgery, venipuncture, heart valve disease/replacement, atherosclerosis, catheters

63
Q

What is the difference between an embolism and a thrombus?

A

thrombus: vascular occlusion
embolism: intravascular mass that is carried by the bloodstream from the site of origin (dislodged thrombus)

64
Q

What are some features of pulmonary emboli?

A

found in almost half of all hospital autopsies. 95% arise from DVTs. Diagnosed by a spiral CT. Most arise from the right side of the heart

65
Q

What is the newspaper test?

A

The ability to be able to read a newspaper through a fluid, indicates a transudate fluid.