Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pathology 1 Final > Path 1 Final- New > Flashcards

Path 1 Final- New Flashcards

1
Q

Which countries have the highest incidence of HIV? (5)

A

South Africa, Nigeria, Kenya, Mozambique and India

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the replication cycle of HIV?

A

HIV infects CD-4 T cells and macrophages (using gp 120, gp41, CCR5, CXCR4); replication in metabolically active cells with reverse transcriptase, using cell membrane for the envelope.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Why do 10% of hemophiliacs not progress to AIDS?

A

they may not have the CCR5 receptor needed for HIV infection into CD4 cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the phases of HIV infections that lead to AIDS?

A

Acute phase: infection, reduced CD4 with viremia, seroconversion and mono-like symptoms
Latent Phase: lymphadenopathy, viral replication, low viremia, opportunistic infections, average length ~10 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What two neoplasms are most often seen in AIDS?

A

Hairy leukoplakia and Kaposi sarcoma (also non-Hodgkin lymphoma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the diagnositic criteria of AIDS and what lab tests are used to test for HIV?

A

CD4 count < 200 cells/microl, viremia reemergence, AIDS-defining diseases.
HIV testing: ELISA and Western Blot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What lab tests are used to monitor HIV infection?

A

CD4 count and HIV1 RNA viral load (PCR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are mitotic bodies/figures and what do they tell you about cancer?

A

mitotic bodies are rapidly dividing cells that can be seen on a histological slide. Normally not seen in tissue because it doesnt divide as much, but the presence of mitotic bodies indicates rapid growth, likely cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

In what types of tissues do sarcomas arise, and how do they prefer to spread?

A

muscle and CT. spread via the blood stream

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

In what types of tissue do carcinomas arise, and how do they prefer to spread?

A

generally in epithelium, spread through the lymphatic system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are adenocarcinomas?

A

glandular cancers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which tissues are most sensitive to ionizing radiation? Why?

A

cells in mitosis or G2 phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What does the ending -OMA usually indicate?

A

-OMA means tumor (malignant)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How does the Ames test work? Why might it be misleading?

A

The Ames test detects mutagneic effects of potential carcingens by inucing frameshift mutations in rats, then seeing if the substance mutates the shift back. Misleading because some carcingens work epigenetically or long term/ in large or small doses, etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What cancers kills the most females worldwide? What cancers kill the most males worldwide?

A

Males: hepatocellular carcinoma
Females: cervical
(highly variable)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

In the first world, at what age range does cancer incidence peak?

A

at 80-84 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What neoplasias are seen MEN 1?

A

PPP
pituitary adenoma
parathyroid hyperplaisa
pancreatic tumors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What neoplasias are seen in MEN II A?

A

PPM
parathyroid hyperplasia
medullary thyroid carcinoma
pheochromocytoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What neoplasias are seen in MEN II B?

A 
PMMM
pheochromocytoma
mucosal neuromas
marfanoid body habitus
medullary thyroid carcinoma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the difference between preneoplastic disorder and paraneoplastic syndrome?

A

preneoplastic disorders: may be acquired and are conditions that increase the likelihood of reaching a cancerous stage (eg. HepB, cerv. dys., cirrhosis, ulcerative collitis….)
paraneoplastic syndromes: when neoplasms secrete substances (hormones, cytokines, eg) that create pathology not directly related to cancer/growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is an initiator, and what is the difference between direct-acting and indirect-acting chemical carcinogens? What are procarcinogens?

A

initiator= carcinogen
direct-acting chemical carcinogens modify DNA to cause cancer. Indirect-acting carcinogens are procarcinogens the are altered metabolically within us to form carcinogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the difference between genotoxic and non-genotoxic mechanisms?

A

genotoxic: DNA damage, chromosomal misintegration

non-genotoxic: chronic irritation, ROS, epigenetic silencing, immunosuppression, etc….

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What type of solar radiation is the most carcinogenic?

A

UVB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How does UVB cause cancer?

A

it produces pyrimidine dimers in DNA leading to transcriptional errors and mutations of proto-oncogenes and tumor suppressor genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What types of radiation is used in hospitals for radiation oncology and sterilization?

A

ionizing radiation (high-energy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Why is neutron radiation not used?

A

neutron radiation doesnt interact as well and penetrates deeper into the body, only ionizing indirectly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What three essential cellular activities are prot-onco genes involved with?

A

growth, cellular differentiation and gene regulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is meant by a gain-of-function or a loss-of-function mutation?

A

gain of function: oncogenes. one-hit process, creates a more active gene
loss-of-function: tumor suppressors- two-hit process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is Dr. Rous credited with discovering?

A

the fact that 20% of cancers are viral (through experimentation with chicken cancer injections)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is an acutely transforming retrovirus and how does it work?

A

aka an oncovirus
integrates viral DNA into the host DNA, thus actively dividing cells transcribe and translate the DNA. Like HPV, or Kaposi sarcoma virus, can cause cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

question 71?

A

question 71?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the 7 fundamental changes in cell physiology that are needed for the tumor to behave in a malignant fashion?

A 
self-sufficiency in growth signals
insensitivity to growth-inhibitory signals
evasion of apoptosis
limitless replicative potential
sustained angiogenesis
ability to invade and metastasize
defects in DNA repair
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the guardian of the genome and what phase does it normally stop the cell from entering if the cell has damaged DNA?

A

p53- prevents a cell with damaged DNA from entering S phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is Li-Fraumeni syndrome and what does it cause? What year was it first described in?

A

first described in 1969; germ-line rotation of p53; high rate of many types of tumors, childhood sarcomas, breast cancer, brain tumors, leukemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Apoptosis is regulated by what two genes? How do they regulate apoptosis?

A

BCL-2 (inhibits apoptosis), p53 (promotes apoptosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is FNA and what does it not give the pathologist?

A

fine needle aspiration. the syringe is coated in cells that allow the pathologist to determine metastatic qualities of the cells, but NOT the morphologic qualities

37
Q

question 77?

A

question 77?

38
Q

question 78?

A

question 78?

39
Q

question 79?

A

question 79?

40
Q

What is the difference between tumor grading and tumor staging?

A

grading is specific for each type of cancer/tissue, doesnt indicate prognosis well and is more related to histology
staging: give better prognosis (T-umor size, lymph N-odules, M-etastatis)

41
Q

What is grade 4 cancer? What is stage 4 cancer?

A

grade 4 cancer: glands are fused, no intervening stroma (better prognosis?)
stage 4 cancer: metastasis

42
Q

In tumor progression, what does genetic instability mean? What does this translate to for people that have cancer reoccurence and need chemotherapy again? is this analogous to antibiotic resistance in bacteria?

A

genetic instability: malignant cells are more prone to mutate and accumulate additional defects after initial chemotherpy. This would mean a worse prognosis for patients with a reoccurence of cancer. This is analogous to antibiotic resistance

43
Q

What is the difference between seeding and transplantation?

A

seeding refers to pieces of cancer growing in different parts of the same tissue. transplantation metastasis to other tissues

44
Q

Who was sister mary joseph, and what principle of metastasis did she discover?

A

a nurse who discovered that periumbilical nodes correlate to pancreatic cancers

45
Q

What three cancers like to metastasize to the brain?

A

skin, breast, lung

46
Q

What three cancers like to metastasize to the bone?

A

breast, lung, prostate (kidney and thyroid too)

47
Q

On an x-ray, what cancers produce osteoblastic vs osteolytic lesions once they spread to bone?

A

osteoblastic: prostate cancer
osteolytic: renal and breast cancer

48
Q

What test can you use on a physical exam to test for possible bony metastasis to the spine?

A

tuning fork test (also used for bone fractures)

49
Q

What is induction treatment?

A

sole treatment, used for advanced diseases when no other treatment exists

50
Q

What is neoadjuvant treatment?

A

chemotherapy given first, followed by a secondary treatment

51
Q

What is an adjuvant treatment?

A

combination with another modality, given after other treatments are used

52
Q

What is a salvage treatment?

A

for tumors that fail to respond to chemotherapy

53
Q

WHich two types of tumors are very radiosensitive to XRT- why?

A

seminomas and lymphomas because their cells are always replicating

54
Q

Which two types of tumors are very radioresistant?

A

epithelial and sarcomas

55
Q

What is the NCCN?

A

National Comprehensive Cancer Network- a decision chart for various cancers and their Txs.

56
Q

What odor suggests cyanide?

A

bitter almonds

57
Q

What odor suggests diabetic ketoacidosis or isopropanol?

A

fruity

58
Q

What odor suggests organophosphate, arsenic, DMSO or selenium?

A

garlic

59
Q

What odor suggests Naphthalene or camphor?

A

mothball

60
Q

how often do patients with carbon monoxide poisoning turn cherry red?

A

rarely

61
Q

What poisoning often accompainies carbon monoxide poisoning in residential fires? how is carbon monoxide poisoning diagnosed? how are each treated?

A

cyanide poisoning.
carbon monoxide poisoning diagnosed by pulse oximeter, treated with hyperbaric oxygen
a cyanide antidote with: amylnitrite, sodium nitrite and sodium thiosulfate

62
Q

What is generally meant by heavy metals? What 2 ways are their exposures described in?

A

heavy metals or metalloids are metals that are denser than Fe (eg. Pb, Hg, Cd, Ag, Se, Zn….)
described as acute or chronic exposure

63
Q

do radioisotopes bioconcentrate? how do they get into the air?

A

yes, radioisotopes do bioconcentrate (concentrate in organisms up the food chain). They get into the air when they are heated/undergo combustion

64
Q

Does a bottle of wine from 1924 contain Cesium?

A

No, bottles of wine up until 1942 wont have cesium

65
Q

How can you increase the toxicity of Hg?

A

Methylated Hg is more water soluble and can cross the BBB and placental barriers. consumption of fish can cause bioaccumulation

66
Q

Hg causes two main toxicities, what are they?

A

neurotoxicity and nephrotoxicity

67
Q

What are symptoms of acute vs chronic arsenic poisoning?

A

acute: hemorrhagic gastroenteritis
chronic: malaise, abdominal pain, skin changes, Mees lines

68
Q

Why is arsenic poison? Is it poison to everything on earth?

A

replaces phosphorous in the DNA backbone, so it’s considered a poison to us but not to everything on earth

69
Q

What is the difference between Mees lines and Lead lines?

A

Mees lines are transverse bands on the fingernails seen in arsenic poisoning
Lead lines are lead depositions see in the gingivodental line and in growth plates

70
Q

Why is lead poisoning so much more destructive in children?

A

CNS toxicity (lethargy, somnolence, cognitive impariment, developmental delay, cerebral edema, peripheral neuropathy) also growth retardation, lead deposition in growth plates

71
Q

What is Pica?

A

Pica: the desire to eat dirt (or ice), a genetic condition seen in children.

72
Q

What is basophilic stippling?

A

seen in conjunction with microcytic anemia in lead poisoning. the ribosomes of cells are spread throughout the cell, showing small dots at the periphery

73
Q

Why do people that start smoking at age 30/40 usually not get COPD?

A

epitheliam transition ends at around age 20

74
Q

Why is 20 pack years a notable number in lung cancer?

A

At 20+ pack years smoked, risk of lung cancer increases

75
Q

What are the three main illnesses in children that second hand smoke seems to increase the risk of getting?

A

SIDS, otitis media, asthma, URIs

76
Q

What is photochemical smog and how does it differ from original smog as described in the early 1900s?

A

early smog was produced from burning coal, and contained soot, SO2 particles, etc.
photchemical smog is produced by chemical conversion of airborned chemicals by sunlight into NOs, VOCs and ozone

77
Q

What are VOCs and how are they made? How is ozone made?

A

volatile organic compounds (benzenes, zylenes, toluenes) that aid in ozone formation (O3, from O2 and the photochemical breakdown of NO).

78
Q

Where does ozone go if there is air inversion?

A

ozone gets trapped close to the earths surface during air inversion.

79
Q

Why is silicosis the most common pneomoconiosis?

A

caused by inhalation of duts or pollutants in smog (silica, specifically)

80
Q

What is silicosiderosis?

A

disease caused by the inhalation of mixed dust particles containing silica and iron

81
Q

What is Caplans syndrome?

A

pneumoconiosis in combination with multiple pulmonary rheumatoid nodules found in RA patients

82
Q

What is the difference between silicates, silicon and silicone?

A

silicates: addition of other atoms onto silica to make minerals
silicon: chemical element, but almost always in combination with oxygen
silicone: synthetic polymer of silicon with carbon, oxygen

83
Q

What are two meanings of pathognomonic?

A
  1. a symptom/sign that is characteristic of a disease

2. a symptoms that tells you that is in undoubtedly one disease or another

84
Q

What symptom is pathognomonic for silicosis?

A

eggshell calcification

85
Q

How do inhaled particulates of silicates, asbestos and other things cause fibrosis of the lungs?

A

macrophage ingestion of the asbestos fibers triggers fibrogenic response via release of growth factors

86
Q

Where in the lungs do the fibers of asbestor localize? What are these fibers called and what type of lung cancer do they cause? Where is this lung cancer localized?

A 
Fibrosis is brown nodules in the septum of the alveolus and the distal lung. may have a rod/dumbell shape with segmentations.
Causes mesothelioma (1000-fold more common with asbestos exposure) that involved the lower lobes and pleura
87
Q

How many fold does a persons risk of getting lung cancer increase asbestos exposure?

A

5 fold

88
Q

How many fold does a persons risk of lung cancer increase with exposure to asbestos and smoke?

A

55 fold (additive effect)

Pathology 1 Final (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions