Past test questions Flashcards
1
Q
A physiologist observes that the concentration of sodium inside a cell is decidedly lower than that outside the cell. She also observes that there is a small leakage of sodium into the cell. What cellular process prevents the sodium concentration gradient from disappearing?
A
primary active transport
2
Q
When you go outside on a hot summer day, your body temperature heats up above the normal range. Receptors in your brain detect the change in body temperature. The brain activates nerve cells that send messages to sweat glands, causing the body temperature to fall as the sweat evaporates from the skin. What part of this feedback loop is the stimulus?
A
increased body temperature
3
Q
A solution that contains higher solute concentration than the cytoplasm of a cell is called
A
hypertonic
4
Q
The most common example of a quaternary protein structure is the
A
hemoglobin molecule
5
Q
The endocytotic process in which a sampling of particulate matter is engulfed and brought into the cell is called
A
phagocytosis
6
Q
Which of the following does NOT influence the rate of diffusion of a chemical across a plasma membrane?
a. ATP available
b. distance the chemical has to diffuse
c. temperature
d. concentration gradient of the chemical across the membrane
e. mass of the diffusion chemical
A
A
7
Q
How would the carbonic acid-bicarbonate buffer system respond to an increase in hydrogen ion concentration?
A
Blood pH drops and the hydrogen ion combines with a weak base to form a weak acid
8
Q
Name the property of water in which sweat is evaporated to cool the body
A
high heat of vaporization
9
Q
The RNA species that travels from the nucleus to the cytoplasm carrying the coded message specifying the sequence of amino acids in the protein to be made is:
A
mRNA
10
Q
There are four different 3-D structures that proteins can be folded into. Which of those structures include the coiling of the protein chain backbone into an alpha helix or a beta pleated sheet?
A
secondary structure
11
Q
The RNA responsible for bringing the amino acids to the factory site for protein formation is the
A
tRNA
12
Q
Consider the following statements concerning transcription and translation. Which one is the most correct?
a. The nucleotide sequence in an anti-codon is a copy of the DNA triplet that coded for it except that uracil is substituted for thymine
b. None of the choices are correct
c. The nucleotide sequence in an anti-codon is an exact copy of the DNA triplet that coded for it
d. Amino acids base pair with corresponding tRNAs
e. The sequence of nucleotides in mRNA is an exact copy of the original DNA master
A
A
13
Q
What is the molecular structure of glucose?
A
C6H12O6
14
Q
Select the statement about mixtures that is NOT quite correct.
A. A solution contains solvent in large amounts and solute in smaller quantities
B. Solutions are homogeneous mixtures of two or more components
C. Suspensions contain particles that settle out in time
D. Colloids appear milky or translucent due to smaller particle size than that found in true solutions
A
D
15
Q
The type of transport process where a solute such as glucose binds to a specific carrier protein on one side of the membrane causing a conformational change in the carrier protein that results in the solute moving down its concentration gradient to the other side of the membrane is called
A
facilitated diffusion
16
Q
The tiny finger-like extensions on cells that are specialized for absorption such as in the kidney and small intestine is called
A
microvilli
17
Q
In what phase of mitosis would you see chromatin condense, the nucleolus disappear, and the nuclear envelope break down.
A
prophase
18
Q
Place the following steps of the endomembrane system function in the correct order:
Golgi apparatus receives transport vesicles from the RER (rough endopolasmic reticulum)
Ribosomes on the RER synthesize proteins
Proteins are packaged into transport vesicles
Modified proteins may be secreted from the cell by exocytosis
Proteins are modified by the Golgi apparatus
A. 2, 3, 1, 5, 4
B. 2, 4, 3, 1, 5
C. 1, 2, 3, 5, 4
D. 3, 2, 1, 4, 5
A
A
19
Q
A red blood cell placed in pure water would
A
swell and burst
20
Q
Carbohydrates are stored in the liver and muscles in the form of
A
glycogen
21
Q
The transport process by which gases such as oxygen and carbon dioxide move through a membrane is called
A
simple diffusion
22
Q
The lipid used as the basis of sex hormones, cortisol, and bile salts is
A
cholesterol
23
Q
Translation occurs where in the cell?
A
the cytosol
24
Q
How do melanocytes and keratinocytes work together to protect the skin from UV damage?
A
Keratinocytes accumulate melanin granules to shield the keratinocyte’s DNA
25
What does mesothelioma affect?
serous membranes
26
When dry or sunburned, we often notice our skin peels in sheets or layers. The type of cell junction responsible for creating this feature of epithelial tissue is called
desmosomes
27
The layer of skin that isn't actually skin but anchors the skin to the underlying tissue is called the
hypodermis
28
Simple columnar epithelium of the digestive tract is characterized by
cilia and microvilli
29
The fiber type that gives connective tissue great tensile strength is
collagen fibers
30
The shape of the external ear is maintained by
elastic cartilage
31
The extracellular matrix (ECM) of blood is called
plasma
32
Tissue that has alternating light and dark striations and branches that fit together tightly at intercalated discs is called
cardiac muscle
33
How does epithelial tissue heal from a superficial paper cut?
regeneration
34
Disruption in the collagen fibers that separate the dermis from the epidermis cause a fluid filled pocket called a
blister
35
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Which of the following is an appropriate skin response to cold?
A. dermal blood vessels vasoconstrict
B. sebaceous gland secretions increase
C. dermal blood vessels vasodilate
D. Vitamin D production increases
```
A
36
What is/are the layer(s) of the skin in which you would find the Vitamin D precursor? When exposed to UV radiation, what does that Vitamin D precursor get converted into?
The Vitamin D precursor can be found in the stratum basale and the stratum spinosum of the epidermis. When exposed to UV radiation, the precursor gets converted to cholecalciferol.
37
Which of the following determines skin color?
A. emotional state
B. oxygenation level of the blood
C. all choices help determine skin color
D. the amount of blood flowing through it
E. the pigments found in it
C
38
The cartilage that makes up the intervertebral discs of the vertebral column is
fibrocartilage
39
Which sweat glands are specialized sweat glands that produce a product rich in proteins and sugars?
mammary glands
40
A single celled layer of epithelium that forms the lining of serous membranes would be
simple squamous
41
A callus may develop when both thin and thick skin are subjected to repeated pressure. Which layer of the epidermis develops the callus?
stratum corneum
42
Which type of skin cancer is the most common type and arises from the keratinocytes in the stratum basale?
basal cell carcinoma
43
Which sweat glands are activated at puberty and can lead to the musky body odor when exposed to bacteria on the skin?
apocrine
44
How does cardiac muscle hear?
fibrosis
45
What is the name of the tool that physicians use to determine the percentage of burns on the body?
rule of nines
46
What component of ground substance adheres cells to each other and to their places within the ECM?
glycoproteins (CAMs)
47
The permanent replacement of normal tissue with scar tissue is called
fibrosis
48
Epidermal ridges are responsible for creating
fingerprints
49
Connective tissues that possess a large quantity of reticular fibers often provide the framework for organs such as:
A. lymph nodes
B. lungs
C. kidneys
D. small intestines
A
50
Which type of exocrine gland accumulates its secretory product in the cytosol of its cell until the cell ruptures and becomes part of the secretory product?
holocrine
51
In the epidermis, the cell type that is most numerous is the
keratinocytes
52
What do vellus hairs lack?
pigment
53
The major energy reserve in the body is found stored in fat as
adipose tissue
54
Name all tissues that are considered specialized connective tissue.
cartilage, blood, bone
55
How do nutrients reach the epidermis of the skin?
Diffusion transports nutrients from blood vessels in the dermis into the epidermis
56
A membrane that does not open to the outside of the body is a
true membrane
57
Explain how you distinguish between dense regular collagenous connective tissue and dense irregular connective tissue if viewing these tissues through a microscope.
Dense regular collagenous connective tissue contains collagen fibers arranged in parallel bundles. By contrast, dense irregular connective tissue contains collagen fibers that are arranged in haphazard bundles.
58
The thin, non-pigmented hair covering the entire body of a fetus is called
lanugo
59
What layer or layers of the epidermis does active mitosis occur?
stratum basale and stratum spinosum
60
What is the skin condition characterized by the loss of melanocytes and an uneven dispersal of melanin?
vitiligo
61
What is a skin condition in which the melanoctyes fail to manufacture the enzyme tyrosinase to catalyze tyrosine?
albinism
62
Explain why clinically cleavage or tension lines are important.
A wound that is parallel to the cleavage lines will stay closed and heal better with less chance of scarring.
63
The gland that functions as a holocrine gland is the
sebaceous gland
64
Which sweat gland is the most numerous and its major role is to prevent the body from overheating?
eccrine
65
Epithelia are classified and identified by
shape and number of layers
66
List the sequential layers or strata of the epidermis superficial to deep
Stratum corneum, stratum lucidum, stratum granulosum, stratum spinosum, stratum basale
67
Inability to absorb digested nutrients and secrete mucous might indicate a disorder in which tissue?
A. transitional
B. simple squamous
C. simple columnar
D. stratified squamous
C
68
The layer of the epidermis that acts as the water barrier for the skin is the stratum
granulosum
69
The function of glandular epithelium is secretion. Glands that secrete their substances into ducts are known as
exocrine glands
70
Which cells are also known as bone-dissolving cells?
ostoclasts
71
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Cranial bones develop:
A. After birth
B. Within fibrous membranes
C. From cartilage models
D. From a tendon
```
B
72
What connects lacunae to one another to allow small molecules to pass from cell to cell so that oxygen and nutrients from blood reaches every osteocyte in compact bone?
canaliculi
73
Which of the following is NOT a common characteristic of a synovial joint?
A. They are freely moveable
B. They include elastic cartilage
C. They have a joint cavity
D. They have articulating bones that are covered with hyaline cartilage
B
74
Which structure of the knee joint limits hyperextension of the knee and prevents the anterior sliding of the tibia on the femur?
anterior cruciate ligament
75
How many phalanges are in each hand?
14
76
Which abnormal vertebral curvature is called swayback and is characterized by exaggerated cervical and lumbar curvatures?
lordosis
77
What is a tendon sheath?
an elongated bursa that wraps completely around a tendon subjected to friction.
78
The condition that is characterized by sodium urate crystals being deposited in the soft tissues of joints is called
gouty arthritis
79
What is rheumatoid arthritis?
Autoimmune disorder; joints affected bilaterally; involves pannus formation and gradual joint immobilization
80
What is rickets?
Vitamin D deficiency in children causing bones to be soft and bend
81
What is bursitis?
Inflammation of a fluid sac; examples are housemaid's knee and tennis elbow.
82
What is osteoarthritis?
A consequence of wear and tear on joints; chiefly affects the large weight bearing joints; involves erosion of articular cartilage, and formation of bony spurs.
83
Which vitamin is important for bone because it is needed for the synthesis of calcium ion binding glycoproteins secreted by osteoblasts?
Vitamin K
84
The clavicles form by
intramembranous ossificatin
85
What allows the passage of blood vessels and nerves in and out of bone marrow?
Volkmann's canals
86
What do fibroblasts contribute to bone repair?
fibroblasts form new collagen fibers to bridge the gap between bone fragments
87
How would the removal of hyroxyapatite crystals from bone matrix affect the physical properties of a bone?
the bone would be more flexible
88
The fibrous covering on the surface of the bone that is involved in thickening of the bone is called
periosteum
89
How is a suture joint functionally classified?
synarthrosis
90
Which layer of the hyaline cartilage allows the diaphysis to grow in length?
epiphyseal plate
91
The atlantoaxial joint between the atlas and the axis is an example of a
pivot joint
92
Which type of movement involves a continuous sequence of flexion, abduction, extension, and adduction resulting in a distal part moving in a circle?
circumdiction
93
In longitudinal growth of a long bone, which zone has a high rate of mitosis occurring?
zone of proliferation
94
What substance makes bone one of the hardest substances in the body?
Hydroxyapatite Crystals
95
Which bone surface marking is an opening in which blood vessels, nerves, or ligaments pass through?
foramen
96
The elbow joint is an example of a
hinge joint
97
List the order of the four zones of cartilage found within the growth plate starting at the epiphysis and extending to the diaphysis
resting cartilage, proliferating cartilage, hypertrophic cartilage, calcified cartilage
98
The most important organic component of the bone matrix is which protein fiber that resists torsion and tensile forces?
collagen
99
Which functional class of joints contains joints that are freely moveable?
diarthrosis
100
The largest diarthrosis joint in the body is the
knee joint
101
How are osteons in compact bone tissue aligned?
parallel to the length of the diaphysis
102
Which special movement involves moving your thumbs across the palm to touch the tips of the fingers on the same hand?
opposition
103
Normal bone formation and growth are dependent on the adequate intake of
Calcium, Phosphate, and Vitamin D
104
A muscle that has the major responsibility for producing a specific movement is the what of that movement?
prime mover, agonist
105
Latrotoxin, produced by the poisonous black widow spider, increases the release of acetylcholine. How do muscle cells respond?
Muscle cells will experience fused or complete tetanus when excess acetylcholine exists
106
The 3rd most plentiful protein in muscle that stabilizes the position of the thick filament is called
titin
107
To stimulate skeletal muscle contraction, acetylcholine must cross what part of the neuromuscular junction and bind to receptors on the motor end plate?
synaptic cleft
108
What happens if there is an injury to the post synaptic tissue causing the neurotransmitter not to bind to the receptors of the post synaptic tissue?
action potential is not propogated
109
Strength or resistance training causes what of muscle fibers whereas inactivity leads to what of muscle fibers.
hypertrophy, atrophy
110
What does the depolarization of the transverse tubules (T-tubules) promote?
release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
111
The principle extracellular ion is
sodium
112
A muscle contraction in which the muscle fibers shorten is called
concentric isotonic
113
What help prime movers by adding a little extra force to the same movement or by reducing undesirable or unnecessary movements?
synergists
114
During muscle contraction by the sliding filament mechanism, thin filaments are pulled towards the
M line
115
A bicep curl is an example of what kind of lever?
third class
116
Membrane potential is determined by the charge on which side of the membrane?
intracellular
117
What cell holds a reserve supply of oxygen in the muscle cells?
myoglobin
118
Why is ATP needed for muscle relaxation?
ATP is needed to pump the calcium ions back into the SR so it decreases the calcium in the cytosol and therefore it cannot bind to the troponin.
119
The muscle fibers activated when performing a maximal lift are what kind of twitch fibers?
fast
120
Theoretically, if a muscle were stretched to the point where thick and thin filaments no longer overlapped:
A. crossbridge attachment would be optimum because of all the free binding sites on actin
B. no muscle tension could be generated
C. maximum force production will result since the muscle has a maximum range of travel
D. ATP consumption would increase since the sarcomere is trying to contract
B
121
What help to regulate the action of a prime mover by providing some resistance?
antagonists
122
What happens when troponin and tropomyosin block the active sites of actin?
the muscle will relax
123
What kind training leads to an increase in the amount of mitochondria in the muscle fibers as well as an increase in the number of capillaries?
endurance
124
What is the endomysium?
layer that surrounds the individual muscle cell
125
Neurotransmitter in vesicles are released from the presynaptic axon terminal through a process called
exocytosis
126
Lifting your head off of your chest is an example of what kind of lever?
first class
127
What is the property of muscle that gives it the ability to stretch without damage?
extensibility
128
A muscle contraction in which the muscle fibers lengthen is called
eccentric isotonic
129
What protein structures allow cations to move from muscle cell to muscle cell, perpetuating the action potential (syncytium)?
gap junctions
130
What is accomplished by the power stroke?
the power stroke results in myosin heads pulling actin toward the center of the sarcomere
131
A neuromuscular junction is a synaptic relationship a somatic motor neuron has with
a skeletal muscle fiber
132
Between the start of the latent period and the start of the contraction period in a muscle twitch, there is a time interval during which the muscle cannot respond to another stimulus. This brief period is known as the
refractory period
133
What two types of binding sites do you find on the myosin head?
ATP with ATPase and Actin
134
During a muscle twitch, which period is marked by a rapid increase in tension as crossbridge cycles occur repeatedly?
contraction
135
A state of sustained partial muscle contraction is called muscle
tone
136
Standing on your toes is an example of what kind of lever
second class
137
A stimulus must cause the membrane potential to reach what in order to fire an action potential?
threshold
138
What is the speed of action and duration of white muscle fibers?
fast speed of action, small duration
139
What is the speed of action and duration of red muscle fibers?
Slow-twitch and long in duration
140
What tissue is peralstasis a characteristic of?
smooth muscle
141
The basic functional unit of the myofibril is the
sarcomere
142
Clostridium botulinum is a bacterium that produces botulinum toxin that inhibits the release of acetylcholine. How will muscle cells respond to a lack of acetylcholine?
Muscle cells will become paralyzed when there is a lack of acetylcholine
143
Calcium can be said to be the "trigger" for muscle contraction because it causes
depolarization of the sarcolemma
144
A contraction in which the muscle does not shorten but its tension increases is called
isometric
145
Where is the action potential generated on a neuron?
axon hillock
146
Glycolysis begins with one molecule of
glucose
147
The posterior side of the patella would be called
popliteal
148
# Choose the following statement that is NOT completely correct regarding serous membrane.
A. parietal pericardium covers the surface of the heart and visceral pericardium lines the walls of the heart
B. serous membranes secrete a watery lubricating fluid
C. serous membranes are divided into parietal and visceral membranes with a potential space between the two
D. serosa are very thin double layered structures
A
149
Which of the following organs is a part of both the endocrine and lymphatic systems?
A. thymus gland
B. tonsils
C. adrenal gland
D. spleen
A
150
Which two organ systems include the function of synthesizing vitamin D?
integumentary and urinary
151
Which of the organs in the digestive system also has an endocrine function?
pancreas
152
Where is the parietal pleural?
lines the thoracic cavity
153
Ions and large polar solutes must use carrier or channel proteins to cross the phospholipid bilayer membrane. What type of transport would this be?
facilitated diffusion
154
What is the macromolecule for each monomer?
A. nucleic acids
B. carbohydrate
C. lipids
D. protein
nucleotides, monosaccharide, glycerol/fatty acids, amino acids
155
What is the simple definition of mass number?
Mass number of an element is the sum of the protons and neutrons.
156
How does biological catalyst such as an enzyme affect chemical reactions?
It speeds up the reaction time by lowering the activation energy
157
The coiling of the protein chain backbone into an alpha helix is referred to as the
secondary structure
158
Because they are embedded within the membrane, ion channels are examples of
integral proteins
159
What organic compound do brain cells primarily rely on for fuel?
glucose
160
Carbohydrates, proteins, and lipids are built up from their basic building blocks by the
removal of a water molecule between each two units
161
What kind of tissue is found around the alveoli of the lungs and is it important for the function of the lungs?
The tissue is simple squamous epithelial tissue and it is important because the alveoli in the longs is where gas exchange takes place so it is needed for rapid diffusion.
162
What is the protein fiber that is most abundant in the extracellular matrix (ECM) of tissues?
collagen
163
The type of cartilage found on the ends of long bones and in the C-shaped rings of the trachea is
hyaline cartilage
164
Why are glycoproteins (CAMS) important as part of the ECM of tissue?
Glycoproteins are also known as cell-adhesion molecules that are responsible for adhering the cells to each other and into their places in the ECM.
165
Which type of cellular junction is most prominent in tissues that communicate with each other through electrical signals?
gap junctions
166
What is an essential part of the maculae involved in static equilibrium?
otoliths
167
Which taste papillae are ridges that are found on the sides of the tongue?
foliate
168
What part of the brain will smell hit to trigger memories and emotions?
the limbic system, amygdala
169
Olfactory cells and taste buds are normally stimulated by
substances in solution
170
Receptors for hearing are located in the
cochlea, organ of corti
171
Marcus just turned 48 and has began to notice that he can't see clearly when reading or working on the computer. He visits the eye doctor and gets a prescription for reading glasses. What refractive error does he most likely have?
presbyopia
172
The opsins found in cone cells are called
photopsins
173
In which cells do the axons come together to form the optic nerve?
ganglion cells
