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Anatomy and Physiology 1 > Past test questions > Flashcards

Past test questions Flashcards

1
Q

A physiologist observes that the concentration of sodium inside a cell is decidedly lower than that outside the cell. She also observes that there is a small leakage of sodium into the cell. What cellular process prevents the sodium concentration gradient from disappearing?

A

primary active transport

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2
Q

When you go outside on a hot summer day, your body temperature heats up above the normal range. Receptors in your brain detect the change in body temperature. The brain activates nerve cells that send messages to sweat glands, causing the body temperature to fall as the sweat evaporates from the skin. What part of this feedback loop is the stimulus?

A

increased body temperature

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3
Q

A solution that contains higher solute concentration than the cytoplasm of a cell is called

A

hypertonic

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4
Q

The most common example of a quaternary protein structure is the

A

hemoglobin molecule

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5
Q

The endocytotic process in which a sampling of particulate matter is engulfed and brought into the cell is called

A

phagocytosis

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6
Q

Which of the following does NOT influence the rate of diffusion of a chemical across a plasma membrane?

a. ATP available
b. distance the chemical has to diffuse
c. temperature
d. concentration gradient of the chemical across the membrane
e. mass of the diffusion chemical

A

A

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7
Q

How would the carbonic acid-bicarbonate buffer system respond to an increase in hydrogen ion concentration?

A

Blood pH drops and the hydrogen ion combines with a weak base to form a weak acid

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8
Q

Name the property of water in which sweat is evaporated to cool the body

A

high heat of vaporization

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9
Q

The RNA species that travels from the nucleus to the cytoplasm carrying the coded message specifying the sequence of amino acids in the protein to be made is:

A

mRNA

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10
Q

There are four different 3-D structures that proteins can be folded into. Which of those structures include the coiling of the protein chain backbone into an alpha helix or a beta pleated sheet?

A

secondary structure

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11
Q

The RNA responsible for bringing the amino acids to the factory site for protein formation is the

A

tRNA

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12
Q

Consider the following statements concerning transcription and translation. Which one is the most correct?

a. The nucleotide sequence in an anti-codon is a copy of the DNA triplet that coded for it except that uracil is substituted for thymine
b. None of the choices are correct
c. The nucleotide sequence in an anti-codon is an exact copy of the DNA triplet that coded for it
d. Amino acids base pair with corresponding tRNAs
e. The sequence of nucleotides in mRNA is an exact copy of the original DNA master

A

A

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13
Q

What is the molecular structure of glucose?

A

C6H12O6

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14
Q

Select the statement about mixtures that is NOT quite correct.

A. A solution contains solvent in large amounts and solute in smaller quantities
B. Solutions are homogeneous mixtures of two or more components
C. Suspensions contain particles that settle out in time
D. Colloids appear milky or translucent due to smaller particle size than that found in true solutions

A

D

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15
Q

The type of transport process where a solute such as glucose binds to a specific carrier protein on one side of the membrane causing a conformational change in the carrier protein that results in the solute moving down its concentration gradient to the other side of the membrane is called

A

facilitated diffusion

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16
Q

The tiny finger-like extensions on cells that are specialized for absorption such as in the kidney and small intestine is called

A

microvilli

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17
Q

In what phase of mitosis would you see chromatin condense, the nucleolus disappear, and the nuclear envelope break down.

A

prophase

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18
Q

Place the following steps of the endomembrane system function in the correct order:

Golgi apparatus receives transport vesicles from the RER (rough endopolasmic reticulum)
Ribosomes on the RER synthesize proteins
Proteins are packaged into transport vesicles
Modified proteins may be secreted from the cell by exocytosis
Proteins are modified by the Golgi apparatus
A. 2, 3, 1, 5, 4
B. 2, 4, 3, 1, 5
C. 1, 2, 3, 5, 4
D. 3, 2, 1, 4, 5

A

A

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19
Q

A red blood cell placed in pure water would

A

swell and burst

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20
Q

Carbohydrates are stored in the liver and muscles in the form of

A

glycogen

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21
Q

The transport process by which gases such as oxygen and carbon dioxide move through a membrane is called

A

simple diffusion

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22
Q

The lipid used as the basis of sex hormones, cortisol, and bile salts is

A

cholesterol

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23
Q

Translation occurs where in the cell?

A

the cytosol

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24
Q

How do melanocytes and keratinocytes work together to protect the skin from UV damage?

A

Keratinocytes accumulate melanin granules to shield the keratinocyte’s DNA

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25
Q

What does mesothelioma affect?

A

serous membranes

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26
Q

When dry or sunburned, we often notice our skin peels in sheets or layers. The type of cell junction responsible for creating this feature of epithelial tissue is called

A

desmosomes

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27
Q

The layer of skin that isn’t actually skin but anchors the skin to the underlying tissue is called the

A

hypodermis

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28
Q

Simple columnar epithelium of the digestive tract is characterized by

A

cilia and microvilli

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29
Q

The fiber type that gives connective tissue great tensile strength is

A

collagen fibers

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30
Q

The shape of the external ear is maintained by

A

elastic cartilage

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31
Q

The extracellular matrix (ECM) of blood is called

A

plasma

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32
Q

Tissue that has alternating light and dark striations and branches that fit together tightly at intercalated discs is called

A

cardiac muscle

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33
Q

How does epithelial tissue heal from a superficial paper cut?

A

regeneration

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34
Q

Disruption in the collagen fibers that separate the dermis from the epidermis cause a fluid filled pocket called a

A

blister

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35
Q 
Which of the following is an appropriate skin response to cold?
 A. dermal blood vessels vasoconstrict
 B. sebaceous gland secretions increase
 C. dermal blood vessels vasodilate
 D. Vitamin D production increases
A

A

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36
Q

What is/are the layer(s) of the skin in which you would find the Vitamin D precursor? When exposed to UV radiation, what does that Vitamin D precursor get converted into?

A

The Vitamin D precursor can be found in the stratum basale and the stratum spinosum of the epidermis. When exposed to UV radiation, the precursor gets converted to cholecalciferol.

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37
Q

Which of the following determines skin color?

A. emotional state
B. oxygenation level of the blood
C. all choices help determine skin color
D. the amount of blood flowing through it
E. the pigments found in it

A

C

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38
Q

The cartilage that makes up the intervertebral discs of the vertebral column is

A

fibrocartilage

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39
Q

Which sweat glands are specialized sweat glands that produce a product rich in proteins and sugars?

A

mammary glands

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40
Q

A single celled layer of epithelium that forms the lining of serous membranes would be

A

simple squamous

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41
Q

A callus may develop when both thin and thick skin are subjected to repeated pressure. Which layer of the epidermis develops the callus?

A

stratum corneum

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42
Q

Which type of skin cancer is the most common type and arises from the keratinocytes in the stratum basale?

A

basal cell carcinoma

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43
Q

Which sweat glands are activated at puberty and can lead to the musky body odor when exposed to bacteria on the skin?

A

apocrine

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44
Q

How does cardiac muscle hear?

A

fibrosis

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45
Q

What is the name of the tool that physicians use to determine the percentage of burns on the body?

A

rule of nines

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46
Q

What component of ground substance adheres cells to each other and to their places within the ECM?

A

glycoproteins (CAMs)

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47
Q

The permanent replacement of normal tissue with scar tissue is called

A

fibrosis

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48
Q

Epidermal ridges are responsible for creating

A

fingerprints

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49
Q

Connective tissues that possess a large quantity of reticular fibers often provide the framework for organs such as:

A. lymph nodes
B. lungs
C. kidneys
D. small intestines

A

A

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50
Q

Which type of exocrine gland accumulates its secretory product in the cytosol of its cell until the cell ruptures and becomes part of the secretory product?

A

holocrine

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51
Q

In the epidermis, the cell type that is most numerous is the

A

keratinocytes

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52
Q

What do vellus hairs lack?

A

pigment

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53
Q

The major energy reserve in the body is found stored in fat as

A

adipose tissue

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54
Q

Name all tissues that are considered specialized connective tissue.

A

cartilage, blood, bone

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55
Q

How do nutrients reach the epidermis of the skin?

A

Diffusion transports nutrients from blood vessels in the dermis into the epidermis

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56
Q

A membrane that does not open to the outside of the body is a

A

true membrane

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57
Q

Explain how you distinguish between dense regular collagenous connective tissue and dense irregular connective tissue if viewing these tissues through a microscope.

A

Dense regular collagenous connective tissue contains collagen fibers arranged in parallel bundles. By contrast, dense irregular connective tissue contains collagen fibers that are arranged in haphazard bundles.

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58
Q

The thin, non-pigmented hair covering the entire body of a fetus is called

A

lanugo

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59
Q

What layer or layers of the epidermis does active mitosis occur?

A

stratum basale and stratum spinosum

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60
Q

What is the skin condition characterized by the loss of melanocytes and an uneven dispersal of melanin?

A

vitiligo

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61
Q

What is a skin condition in which the melanoctyes fail to manufacture the enzyme tyrosinase to catalyze tyrosine?

A

albinism

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62
Q

Explain why clinically cleavage or tension lines are important.

A

A wound that is parallel to the cleavage lines will stay closed and heal better with less chance of scarring.

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63
Q

The gland that functions as a holocrine gland is the

A

sebaceous gland

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64
Q

Which sweat gland is the most numerous and its major role is to prevent the body from overheating?

A

eccrine

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65
Q

Epithelia are classified and identified by

A

shape and number of layers

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66
Q

List the sequential layers or strata of the epidermis superficial to deep

A

Stratum corneum, stratum lucidum, stratum granulosum, stratum spinosum, stratum basale

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67
Q

Inability to absorb digested nutrients and secrete mucous might indicate a disorder in which tissue?

A. transitional
B. simple squamous
C. simple columnar
D. stratified squamous

A

C

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68
Q

The layer of the epidermis that acts as the water barrier for the skin is the stratum

A

granulosum

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69
Q

The function of glandular epithelium is secretion. Glands that secrete their substances into ducts are known as

A

exocrine glands

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70
Q

Which cells are also known as bone-dissolving cells?

A

ostoclasts

71
Q 
Cranial bones develop:
 A. After birth
 B. Within fibrous membranes
 C. From cartilage models
 D. From a tendon
A

B

72
Q

What connects lacunae to one another to allow small molecules to pass from cell to cell so that oxygen and nutrients from blood reaches every osteocyte in compact bone?

A

canaliculi

73
Q

Which of the following is NOT a common characteristic of a synovial joint?

A. They are freely moveable
B. They include elastic cartilage
C. They have a joint cavity
D. They have articulating bones that are covered with hyaline cartilage

A

B

74
Q

Which structure of the knee joint limits hyperextension of the knee and prevents the anterior sliding of the tibia on the femur?

A

anterior cruciate ligament

75
Q

How many phalanges are in each hand?

A

14

76
Q

Which abnormal vertebral curvature is called swayback and is characterized by exaggerated cervical and lumbar curvatures?

A

lordosis

77
Q

What is a tendon sheath?

A

an elongated bursa that wraps completely around a tendon subjected to friction.

78
Q

The condition that is characterized by sodium urate crystals being deposited in the soft tissues of joints is called

A

gouty arthritis

79
Q

What is rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Autoimmune disorder; joints affected bilaterally; involves pannus formation and gradual joint immobilization

80
Q

What is rickets?

A

Vitamin D deficiency in children causing bones to be soft and bend

81
Q

What is bursitis?

A

Inflammation of a fluid sac; examples are housemaid’s knee and tennis elbow.

82
Q

What is osteoarthritis?

A

A consequence of wear and tear on joints; chiefly affects the large weight bearing joints; involves erosion of articular cartilage, and formation of bony spurs.

83
Q

Which vitamin is important for bone because it is needed for the synthesis of calcium ion binding glycoproteins secreted by osteoblasts?

A

Vitamin K

84
Q

The clavicles form by

A

intramembranous ossificatin

85
Q

What allows the passage of blood vessels and nerves in and out of bone marrow?

A

Volkmann’s canals

86
Q

What do fibroblasts contribute to bone repair?

A

fibroblasts form new collagen fibers to bridge the gap between bone fragments

87
Q

How would the removal of hyroxyapatite crystals from bone matrix affect the physical properties of a bone?

A

the bone would be more flexible

88
Q

The fibrous covering on the surface of the bone that is involved in thickening of the bone is called

A

periosteum

89
Q

How is a suture joint functionally classified?

A

synarthrosis

90
Q

Which layer of the hyaline cartilage allows the diaphysis to grow in length?

A

epiphyseal plate

91
Q

The atlantoaxial joint between the atlas and the axis is an example of a

A

pivot joint

92
Q

Which type of movement involves a continuous sequence of flexion, abduction, extension, and adduction resulting in a distal part moving in a circle?

A

circumdiction

93
Q

In longitudinal growth of a long bone, which zone has a high rate of mitosis occurring?

A

zone of proliferation

94
Q

What substance makes bone one of the hardest substances in the body?

A

Hydroxyapatite Crystals

95
Q

Which bone surface marking is an opening in which blood vessels, nerves, or ligaments pass through?

A

foramen

96
Q

The elbow joint is an example of a

A

hinge joint

97
Q

List the order of the four zones of cartilage found within the growth plate starting at the epiphysis and extending to the diaphysis

A

resting cartilage, proliferating cartilage, hypertrophic cartilage, calcified cartilage

98
Q

The most important organic component of the bone matrix is which protein fiber that resists torsion and tensile forces?

A

collagen

99
Q

Which functional class of joints contains joints that are freely moveable?

A

diarthrosis

100
Q

The largest diarthrosis joint in the body is the

A

knee joint

101
Q

How are osteons in compact bone tissue aligned?

A

parallel to the length of the diaphysis

102
Q

Which special movement involves moving your thumbs across the palm to touch the tips of the fingers on the same hand?

A

opposition

103
Q

Normal bone formation and growth are dependent on the adequate intake of

A

Calcium, Phosphate, and Vitamin D

104
Q

A muscle that has the major responsibility for producing a specific movement is the what of that movement?

A

prime mover, agonist

105
Q

Latrotoxin, produced by the poisonous black widow spider, increases the release of acetylcholine. How do muscle cells respond?

A

Muscle cells will experience fused or complete tetanus when excess acetylcholine exists

106
Q

The 3rd most plentiful protein in muscle that stabilizes the position of the thick filament is called

A

titin

107
Q

To stimulate skeletal muscle contraction, acetylcholine must cross what part of the neuromuscular junction and bind to receptors on the motor end plate?

A

synaptic cleft

108
Q

What happens if there is an injury to the post synaptic tissue causing the neurotransmitter not to bind to the receptors of the post synaptic tissue?

A

action potential is not propogated

109
Q

Strength or resistance training causes what of muscle fibers whereas inactivity leads to what of muscle fibers.

A

hypertrophy, atrophy

110
Q

What does the depolarization of the transverse tubules (T-tubules) promote?

A

release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum

111
Q

The principle extracellular ion is

A

sodium

112
Q

A muscle contraction in which the muscle fibers shorten is called

A

concentric isotonic

113
Q

What help prime movers by adding a little extra force to the same movement or by reducing undesirable or unnecessary movements?

A

synergists

114
Q

During muscle contraction by the sliding filament mechanism, thin filaments are pulled towards the

A

M line

115
Q

A bicep curl is an example of what kind of lever?

A

third class

116
Q

Membrane potential is determined by the charge on which side of the membrane?

A

intracellular

117
Q

What cell holds a reserve supply of oxygen in the muscle cells?

A

myoglobin

118
Q

Why is ATP needed for muscle relaxation?

A

ATP is needed to pump the calcium ions back into the SR so it decreases the calcium in the cytosol and therefore it cannot bind to the troponin.

119
Q

The muscle fibers activated when performing a maximal lift are what kind of twitch fibers?

A

fast

120
Q

Theoretically, if a muscle were stretched to the point where thick and thin filaments no longer overlapped:

A. crossbridge attachment would be optimum because of all the free binding sites on actin
B. no muscle tension could be generated
C. maximum force production will result since the muscle has a maximum range of travel
D. ATP consumption would increase since the sarcomere is trying to contract

A

B

121
Q

What help to regulate the action of a prime mover by providing some resistance?

A

antagonists

122
Q

What happens when troponin and tropomyosin block the active sites of actin?

A

the muscle will relax

123
Q

What kind training leads to an increase in the amount of mitochondria in the muscle fibers as well as an increase in the number of capillaries?

A

endurance

124
Q

What is the endomysium?

A

layer that surrounds the individual muscle cell

125
Q

Neurotransmitter in vesicles are released from the presynaptic axon terminal through a process called

A

exocytosis

126
Q

Lifting your head off of your chest is an example of what kind of lever?

A

first class

127
Q

What is the property of muscle that gives it the ability to stretch without damage?

A

extensibility

128
Q

A muscle contraction in which the muscle fibers lengthen is called

A

eccentric isotonic

129
Q

What protein structures allow cations to move from muscle cell to muscle cell, perpetuating the action potential (syncytium)?

A

gap junctions

130
Q

What is accomplished by the power stroke?

A

the power stroke results in myosin heads pulling actin toward the center of the sarcomere

131
Q

A neuromuscular junction is a synaptic relationship a somatic motor neuron has with

A

a skeletal muscle fiber

132
Q

Between the start of the latent period and the start of the contraction period in a muscle twitch, there is a time interval during which the muscle cannot respond to another stimulus. This brief period is known as the

A

refractory period

133
Q

What two types of binding sites do you find on the myosin head?

A

ATP with ATPase and Actin

134
Q

During a muscle twitch, which period is marked by a rapid increase in tension as crossbridge cycles occur repeatedly?

A

contraction

135
Q

A state of sustained partial muscle contraction is called muscle

A

tone

136
Q

Standing on your toes is an example of what kind of lever

A

second class

137
Q

A stimulus must cause the membrane potential to reach what in order to fire an action potential?

A

threshold

138
Q

What is the speed of action and duration of white muscle fibers?

A

fast speed of action, small duration

139
Q

What is the speed of action and duration of red muscle fibers?

A

Slow-twitch and long in duration

140
Q

What tissue is peralstasis a characteristic of?

A

smooth muscle

141
Q

The basic functional unit of the myofibril is the

A

sarcomere

142
Q

Clostridium botulinum is a bacterium that produces botulinum toxin that inhibits the release of acetylcholine. How will muscle cells respond to a lack of acetylcholine?

A

Muscle cells will become paralyzed when there is a lack of acetylcholine

143
Q

Calcium can be said to be the “trigger” for muscle contraction because it causes

A

depolarization of the sarcolemma

144
Q

A contraction in which the muscle does not shorten but its tension increases is called

A

isometric

145
Q

Where is the action potential generated on a neuron?

A

axon hillock

146
Q

Glycolysis begins with one molecule of

A

glucose

147
Q

The posterior side of the patella would be called

A

popliteal

148
Q

Choose the following statement that is NOT completely correct regarding serous membrane.

A. parietal pericardium covers the surface of the heart and visceral pericardium lines the walls of the heart
B. serous membranes secrete a watery lubricating fluid
C. serous membranes are divided into parietal and visceral membranes with a potential space between the two
D. serosa are very thin double layered structures

A

A

149
Q

Which of the following organs is a part of both the endocrine and lymphatic systems?

A. thymus gland
B. tonsils
C. adrenal gland
D. spleen

A

A

150
Q

Which two organ systems include the function of synthesizing vitamin D?

A

integumentary and urinary

151
Q

Which of the organs in the digestive system also has an endocrine function?

A

pancreas

152
Q

Where is the parietal pleural?

A

lines the thoracic cavity

153
Q

Ions and large polar solutes must use carrier or channel proteins to cross the phospholipid bilayer membrane. What type of transport would this be?

A

facilitated diffusion

154
Q

What is the macromolecule for each monomer?

A. nucleic acids
B. carbohydrate
C. lipids
D. protein

A

nucleotides, monosaccharide, glycerol/fatty acids, amino acids

155
Q

What is the simple definition of mass number?

A

Mass number of an element is the sum of the protons and neutrons.

156
Q

How does biological catalyst such as an enzyme affect chemical reactions?

A

It speeds up the reaction time by lowering the activation energy

157
Q

The coiling of the protein chain backbone into an alpha helix is referred to as the

A

secondary structure

158
Q

Because they are embedded within the membrane, ion channels are examples of

A

integral proteins

159
Q

What organic compound do brain cells primarily rely on for fuel?

A

glucose

160
Q

Carbohydrates, proteins, and lipids are built up from their basic building blocks by the

A

removal of a water molecule between each two units

161
Q

What kind of tissue is found around the alveoli of the lungs and is it important for the function of the lungs?

A

The tissue is simple squamous epithelial tissue and it is important because the alveoli in the longs is where gas exchange takes place so it is needed for rapid diffusion.

162
Q

What is the protein fiber that is most abundant in the extracellular matrix (ECM) of tissues?

A

collagen

163
Q

The type of cartilage found on the ends of long bones and in the C-shaped rings of the trachea is

A

hyaline cartilage

164
Q

Why are glycoproteins (CAMS) important as part of the ECM of tissue?

A

Glycoproteins are also known as cell-adhesion molecules that are responsible for adhering the cells to each other and into their places in the ECM.

165
Q

Which type of cellular junction is most prominent in tissues that communicate with each other through electrical signals?

A

gap junctions

166
Q

What is an essential part of the maculae involved in static equilibrium?

A

otoliths

167
Q

Which taste papillae are ridges that are found on the sides of the tongue?

A

foliate

168
Q

What part of the brain will smell hit to trigger memories and emotions?

A

the limbic system, amygdala

169
Q

Olfactory cells and taste buds are normally stimulated by

A

substances in solution

170
Q

Receptors for hearing are located in the

A

cochlea, organ of corti

171
Q

Marcus just turned 48 and has began to notice that he can’t see clearly when reading or working on the computer. He visits the eye doctor and gets a prescription for reading glasses. What refractive error does he most likely have?

A

presbyopia

172
Q

The opsins found in cone cells are called

A

photopsins

173
Q

In which cells do the axons come together to form the optic nerve?

A

ganglion cells

Anatomy and Physiology 1 (2 decks)

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