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Pharma Past Question midterm2 > Past Questions > Flashcards

Past Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Tranquilizer sedative with mild analgesic action

A

Droperidol

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2
Q

It can cause prolapse of the third eyelid in dogs, cats and horses

A

Acepromazine

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3
Q

In the absence of special lable instruction, the multi-dose injections can be used… days after being opened for the first time

A

28

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4
Q

What is «GMP»?

A

Good manufacturing practice

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5
Q

Sedative drugs with no analgesic properties, but it potentiates the effect of analgesics

A

Acepromazine

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6
Q

Which animal species is most sensetive to Xylazine?

A

Cattle

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7
Q

Which type of alterations can be caused by the mutagens on the chromosomes?

A

Numerical abnormalities and structural abnormalities (Both)

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8
Q

Which examinations are carried out according to the GCP rules?

A

Human and veterinary clinical drug examination

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9
Q

Pre-and postnarcotic excitation is the last frequently seen when using this inhalation anaesthetic

A

Sevoflurane

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10
Q

It can cause penile prolapse in male swine

A

Azeperone

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11
Q

When applying this anaesthetic, the animal signs of catalepsy; its muscles are usually rigid, hypertonic

A

Ketamine

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12
Q

What is the physical state of the dispersed phase in the suspension?

A

Solid

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13
Q

What kind of examinations has to be conducted according to the rules and regulations of GLP?

A

Preclinical examinations: toxicology, kinetics and residual drug examination

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14
Q

The injections have to be always

A

Sterile

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15
Q

What is the extracting agent to prepare exact?

A

Watery and alcoholic (Both)

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16
Q

Which ointment is not washable with water?

A

Paraffin ointment

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17
Q

Alpha-2 agonist, which is NOT used in horses?

A

Medetomidin is NOT used

Detomidine, Xylazine and Romifidine are used

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18
Q

Sedative that decreases blood pressure, hence cannot be administred to dehydrated animals

A

Acepromazine

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19
Q

Whch drug causes cardiovascular depression?

A

Propofol

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20
Q

Which matrices are investigated in pharmacokinetic examination?

A

Blood, urine, stool, milk and eggs

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21
Q

Theur sedative effect is less related to the applied dose

A

Tranquilizers

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22
Q

This sedative can increase the incidence of convulsion, hence not suitable for administration to patient with epilepsy

A

Acepromazine

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23
Q

Which drug group has analgesic effect?

A

Alpha-2 agonists

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24
Q

This ultra short acting barbiturate can be re-administred within one day

A

Methohexital

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25
Q

What is the formulation type of Cremor aqueous?

A

Oil in water (O/W) emulsion cream

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26
Q

Which investigation does not belong to the toxicological studies?

A

Following of the unwanted side effect after authorization

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27
Q

Thiopental can be administered

A

IV

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28
Q

The solid matter content of liquid extraction is

A

50%

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29
Q

Which Butyrophenone (tranquilizer) is mainly used in lab rodents?

A

Fluanisone

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30
Q

Which attribute of a new chemical is tested in the AMES test?

A

Mutagenicity

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31
Q

The extravascular administration of this anaesthetic drug causes strong tissue irritation

A

Thiamilal

Usually barbiturates in general -› paravenous and IM administration

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32
Q

The micronucleus test

A

Is a light microscope method for determining mutagenicity

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33
Q

Which ingredient of ointment base belongs to the hydrocarbons?

A

Hard paraffin

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34
Q

Which of the following is considered as a water-insoluble base?

A

Cocoa butter

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35
Q

Sedative drug with no analgesic properties

A

Chloropromazine

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36
Q

Alpha-2 agonist NOT used in horses

A

Metomidine

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37
Q

Serious tissue irritation is not characteristic for this anaesthetic, hence it can be applied IM

A

Ketamine

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38
Q

Which vehicle is useful for preparation of the eye?

A

White vaseline

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39
Q

Generally, how often should inflammatory infusion be administred in lactating cows?

A

Every 8-12 hours

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40
Q

Which of the following cannot be an attribute of ointments?

A

Dissolves at BT

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41
Q

It increases the release of prolactin, hence not suitable for administration to pseudo-pregnant animal

A

Chlorpromazine

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42
Q

Which investigation belongs to the clinical phase?

A

Field trial

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43
Q

Which statement is NOT true?

A

The sterility and pyrogen free are not special requirements for injections

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44
Q

The teratogenicity studies have to be performed at least on

A

2 animal species

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45
Q

Sedative that decreases BP, hence cannot be administred to dehydrated animals

A

Acepromazine

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46
Q

What is the goal of pharmacological investigations in drug research?

A

Determination of mechanism…

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47
Q

In the case of Fentanyl overdose, which of the following substances can…?

A

Naloxone

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48
Q

Sedative drug with pronounced antiemetic action

A

Acepromazine

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49
Q

What is the formulation type of Suspensio terpini?

A

Aquous suspension

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50
Q

This base ountment is applicable of O/W type ountments

A

Hydrophilic ointment

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51
Q

Butyrophenone, mainly used in swine for stress reduction

A

Azeperone

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52
Q

Which drug group has analgesic effect?

A

Alpha-2-agonists

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53
Q

Which effect is characteristic for medetomidine?

A

Muscle relaxant activity

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54
Q

In the course of registration of licensed medicines, which documentation…(?) the data if clinical trials according to EUDRALEX requirements?

A

Part 4

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55
Q

Their sedative effect is well related to the applied dose

A

Alpha-2-RC-agonists

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56
Q

This dosage form is the alcoholic extract of medical plants

A

Tincture

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57
Q

Which matrices are examined in a residue analysis?

A

Edible tissue, milk, egg and honey

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58
Q

The extravascular administration of this anaesthetic drug causes strong tissue irritation

A

Metomidate

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59
Q

Which ointment is washable with water?

A

Hydrophilic ointment

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60
Q

What is the regular process of applying the intra-mammary infusion?

A

Udder wash, disinfection, milking out, administration

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61
Q

Parial agonist opiate, it is frequently combined with medetomidine

A

Butorphenol

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62
Q

Which statement is not true?

A

Butyrophenones cause hypnosis in high dose

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63
Q

What may be the property of the dispersed phase in the emulsion?

A

Hydrophilic and Lipophilic (Both)

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64
Q

Which statement is true?

A

Phenobarbital has CYP450-enzyme inductor effect

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65
Q

Its important side effects are bradycardia, pronounced respiratory depression and hypotension

A

Fentanyl

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66
Q

injectable anaesthetic, its re-administration is prohibited

A

Thiopental

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67
Q

The sympathetic nervous system and parasympathetic nervous system are divisions of which of the following?

A

Autonomic nervous system division of peripheral nervous system

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68
Q

Preganglionic sympathetic and parasympathetic fibers release____, postganglionic parasympathetic fibers release___ (for muscarinic cholinergic receptors), and postganglionic sympathetic fibers release____ (for adrenergic receptors)

A

ACh: ACg: NE

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69
Q

Which of the following adrenergic receptor is most commonly found in pre-synaptic?

A

Alpha-2

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70
Q

Which of the following describes the result of adrenal medulla stimulation?

A

mass sympathetic discharge, 85;15 ratio of Epi:norepi

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71
Q

Match the sympathetic response with the receptor:
Increased lipid breakdown
Peripheral vasoconstriction
Increased heart rate and blood pressure
Bronchial dialation, coronary dialation, glucose conversion

A

Increased lipid breakdown —› beta-3
Peripheral vasoconstriction —› alpa-1
Increased heart rate and blood pressure —› beta-1
Bronchial dialation, coronary dialation, glucose conversion —› beta-2

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72
Q

What amino acids are converted into catecholamines (NE, Epi, Dopamine?

A

Tyrosine

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73
Q

Which of the following is transported into vesicles via vesicular monamine transporter (VMAT), uptake 2, and a proton antiporter?

A

Dopamine

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74
Q

Which of the following is co-stored and co-released with ATP?

A

Norepinephrine

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75
Q

Which of the following form varicosities or en passant synapses, with the arrival of an action potentil leading to Ca2+ influx and exocytosis?

A

Postsynaptic sympathetic

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76
Q

Which of the following methods of teminating axon response is NOT a target for drug action?

A

NE diffusion away from synaptic cleft

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77
Q

NET is a symporter of what ion?

A

Na+

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78
Q

Which of the following is recycled via VMAT into vesicles after response termination?

A

NE

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79
Q

Which of the following is broken down by MAO-B (monoamine oxidase) more than the others?

A

Dopamine

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80
Q

Where is the cytosolic catecholamine metabolizing enzyme catechol-O-methyl transferase (COMT) primarily found?

A

Liver

81
Q

Which of the following receptor subtypes relaxes smooth muscle and causes liver glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis?

A

Beta-2 (Gs)

82
Q

Which of the following receptor subtyes cause vascular smooth muscle contraction and genitourinary smooth muscle contraction?

A

Alpha-1 (Gq/Gi/Go)

83
Q

Which of the following receptor subtypes increases cardiac chronotropy (rate) and inotropy (contractility), increases AV-node conduction velocity, and increases renin secretion in renal juxtaglomerular cells?

A

Beta-1 (Gs)

84
Q

Which of the following receptor subtypes decreases insulin secretion from pancreatic b-cells, decreases nerce cell norepinephrone release, and contracts vascular smooth muscle?

A

Alpha-2 (Gi/Go)

85
Q

What type(s) of second messenger(s) interact with adenylyl cyclase?

A

Beta and alpha-2

86
Q

What type(s) of second messanger(s) are associated with phospholipase C(PLC)?

A

Alpha-1

87
Q

Which of the following adrenergic receptor activation mechanim is involved with ephedrine, amphetamine and tyramine?

A

Promoting release of norepinephrine

88
Q

Which of the following adrenergic receptor activation mechanisms involved with MAO inhibitors?

A

Inhibiting inactivarion of norepinephrine

89
Q

Which of the following adrenergic receptor activation mechanism is involved with tricyclic antidepressants and cocaine?

A

inhibiting reuptake of norepinephrine

90
Q

Which of the following is NOTT true of catecholamines?

A

Non-polar

91
Q 
Match the catecholamine with the receptor(s)
Isoproterenol
Dobutamine
Norepinephrine
Dopamine 
Epinephrine
A 
Isoproterenol —› beta
Dobutamine —› beta -1
Norepinephrine —› alpha and beta
Dopamine —› delta-1 and delta-2
Epinephrine —› alpha and beta
92
Q

The basic structure of a catecholamine involves a catechol ring and which of the following types of amines?

A

Ethyl amine

93
Q

Match the noncatecholamines with the receptor agonist
Clonidine
Metaproterenol, terbutaline, ritodine
Phenylephrine

A

Clonidine —› alpha-2-agonist
Metaproterenol, terbutaline, ritodine —› beta-2-agonist
Phenylephrine —› alpha-1-agonist

94
Q

Which of the following are long-acting (oral) a1-agonist and not a short-acting (nasal spray, opthalmic drops) a1-agonist?

A

Pseudoephedrine

95
Q

Which of the following would NOT be used as a topical vasoconstrictor for a patient with epistaxis (nasal pack soaked in drug)?

A

Isoproterenol

96
Q

Alpha-1 drugs can be given with local anesthetics to vasoconstrictor and decrease blood flow to the side of administration. Which of the following should not be given above the web space?

A

Epinephrine

97
Q

Which of the following is the a1 drug of choice (DOC) for retinal exams and surgery, giving mydiasis (dilation of iris)?

A

Phenylephrine

98
Q

Alpha-2-agonist are only approved for hypertension and work by decreasing sympathetic tone and increasing vagal tone. Which of the following is NOT an a2-agonist?

A

Epinephrine

99
Q

At the adrnergic synape, what does alpha-2 do?

A

Inhibits NE release

100
Q

Which of the following agonists would be used for asthma patients or to delay premature labor?

A

Beta-2-agonist

101
Q

Which of the following agonists would be used for cardiogenic shock, cardiac arrest, heart block, or heart failure?

A

beta-2-agonist

102
Q

Which of the following is NOT a beta-2 agonist?

A

Phenylepherine

103
Q

Beta-2 stimulation leads to an increase in the cellular upptake of what ion, and thus decrease in plasma concentration of that ion?

A

K+

104
Q

Dopamine receptor activation (D1) dialates renal blood vessels at low dose. At higher doses (treatment for shock), which of the following receptor is activared?

A

Beta-1

105
Q

Which of the following responses to sympathetic stimulation would prevent receltors from being couples with G-proteins?

A

Phosphorylation

106
Q

Which of the following is the action of the indirect-acting sympathomimetic drug cocaine?

A

Inhibitor of NET (uptake 1)

107
Q

Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) have a great deal of side effects. Which of the following is the action f TCAs?

A

Inhibitor of NET (uptake 1)

108
Q

Which of the following is NOT a mixed sympathomimetic?

A

Phenylepherine

109
Q

Prior to an operation to remove a pheochromocytoma (neuroendocrine tumor of the medulla of the adrenal glands), which of the following should be given to the patient?

A

Alpha-blocker

110
Q

Which of the following is NOT an indication for b-blocker therapy?

A

Hypotension

111
Q

Which of the following b-blockers is used for decreasing aqueous humor secretion from the ciliary body?

A

Metoprolol

112
Q

Which of the following is NOT considered cardio selective?

A

Carvediol

113
Q

Blocking a2 presynaptic receptors will do which of the following?

A

Stimulate NE release

114
Q

Which of the following drugs irreversibly damages VMAT?

A

Propranolol

115
Q

Which of the following is the most likely to occur with parenteral administration of an alpha-1-agonist drug

A

Hypertension

116
Q

Which of the following agonists can have dose-related withdrawal syndrme if the drug is withdrawn too quickly, leading to rebound hypertension?

A

Alpha-2-agonist

117
Q

Which of the following agonists can have sedation and xerostomia (dry mouth) in 50% of patients starting therapy, sexual dysfunction in males, nausea, dizziness and sleep disturbances?

A

Alpha 2-agonist

118
Q

Which of the following agonist can cause hyerglycemia in diabetics?

A

beta-2-agonist

119
Q

Angina pectoris, tachycardia, and arrhythmias are posible adverse effect of which of the following agonists?

A

beta-1 agonist

120
Q

If a patient is taking MAO Inhibitors and ingests tyamine (red wine, aged cheese), which of the following acute responses is most likely? (Sympathomimetic)

A

Stimulation of NE release

121
Q

Which of the following occurs acutely, leading to a false neurotransmitter, with increased guanethidine? (Sympathomimetic)

A

Stimulation of NE release

122
Q

Major aderse affects of the a1 blockade include reflex tachycardia and which of the following?

A

Orthostatic hypotension

123
Q

Which of the following effects would be intensified with the a2 blockade?

A

Reflex tachycardia

124
Q

Which of the following is NOT an adverse affect of the b1 blockade?

A

Increased arrhythmias

125
Q

Which of the following is the most severe adverse effect that has been associated with sudden termination of b1-blockers?

A

Sudden death

126
Q

Which of the following groups of patients is most at risk for adverse effect seen in b2-blockers?

A

Asthmatics

127
Q

Which of the following can be determiental in diabetics and also can lead to masking of tachycardia, which is indicative of hypoglycemia?

A

Beta-2-blocker

128
Q

Which of the following is NOT true regarding the parasympathetic nervous system

A

Innervation of vascular smooth muscle

129
Q

Where is acetyl CoA synthesized (pre-synthesis for ACh)?

A

Mitochondria

130
Q

Which of the following locations contains choline from phosphatidylcholine?

A

Blood plasma

131
Q

Which part of the cholinergic synapse is affected by botulinum toxin?

A

ACh decrease

132
Q

ACh is packaged into vesicles via ACh ion antporter?

A

H+

133
Q

Influx of what ion causes ACh release into the synaptic cleft, prior to ACh being terminated by acetylcholinesterase (AChE)?

A

Ca2+

134
Q

Nicotinic N2 receptors are____ subtype and nicotinic N1 receptors are the ____subtype.

A

Neuronal: muscular

135
Q

Which of the following best description of the drug nicotine?

A

Neuronal subtype nicotinic agonist

136
Q

Amanita muscaria (fly Amanita) is a fungal muscarinic agonist, which is most often associated with which side effect?

A

Hallucinations

137
Q

Which of the following G-protein is associated with smooth muscle and glandular tissue, muscarinic receptor M3, mobilizing internal Ca2+ and the DAG cascade?

A

Gq

138
Q

Which of the following G-protein is associated with heart and intestines, muscarinic receptor M2, decreasing adenylyl cyclase activity?

A

Gi

139
Q

The drugs bethanechol and pilocarpine are

A

Muscarinic agonists

140
Q

Which of the following is NOT a primary effect of stimulating muscarinic M receptors?

A

Bronchi dilation and decreased bronchiole secretions

141
Q

Which of the following is NOT a primary effect of stimulating muscarinic M receptors?

A

Tachycardia, increased conduction velocity

142
Q

What is bethanechol most commonly used for?

A

Urinary retention

143
Q

What is pilocapine most commonly used for?

A

Decreasing intraocular pressure

144
Q

Which of the following is NOT a result of excessive cholinergic stimulation, as would be seen with a nerve agent or rganophosphate poisoning?

A

Mydriasis

145
Q

What drug is a natural alkaloid found in solanacea plants (deadly nightshade)?

A

Atropine

146
Q

What two clinical results of atropine facilitate opthalmoscopic examination?

A

Mydriasis and cycloplegia

147
Q

Which of the following is an adverse affect of atropine?

A

Blurred vision

148
Q

Which of the following is NOT a major sympton of atropine toxity?

A

Wet as a towel

149
Q

Which of the following topical opthalmic drugs is also used for motion sickness? (Injection, oral, or transdermal patch)

A

Scopolamine

150
Q

Of the following mydriatics/cycloplegics_____ last 7-10 days (longest) and ____ last 6 hours (shortest)

A

Atropine: Tropicamide

151
Q

Butyrylcholinesterase (BuChE) is a nonspecific pseudocholinesterase located in glia, plasma, liver, and other organs. What type of local anaesthetics are metabolized by BuChE (e.g. Procaine), along with succinylcholine (paralytic)?

A

Ester

152
Q

Which of the following reversible cholinesterase inhibitors is used for atropine intoxication?

A

Physostigmine

153
Q

Which of the following reversible cholinesterase inhibitors is used for anaesthesia?

A

Neostigmine

154
Q

Which of the following reversible cholinesterase inhibitors is used for alzheimer disease?

A

Donepezil

155
Q

Which of the following cholinesterase inhibitors is NOT used for Myasthenia Gravis?

A

Physostigmine

156
Q

Which of the following is NOT an irreversible cholinesterase inhibitor (organophosphate AchE inhibitors)

A

Tacrine

157
Q

By what mechanism do irreversible ACHE inhibitors permanently bind to the esteratic site enzyme?

A

Phosphorylation

158
Q

A MARK-1 auto injection kit is given to certain medical and military personnel who may be exposed to nerve agents or organophosphate pesticises. The kit has two drugs would you expect to be in this kit?

A

Atropine and pralidoxime (2-PAM)

159
Q

Some organophosphate AChE inhibitor insecticides have a 40 hour half-life. What is the approximate half-life of soman?

A

6 minutes

160
Q

What is currently the only ganglion blocker (shuts down entire ANS) still available in US

A

Mecamylamine

161
Q

Which of the following is NOT an effect of autonomic ganglion blocking?

A

Hypertension

162
Q

Which neuromuscular blocking drug can be reversed by the cholinesterase inhibitor Neostigmine

A

Succinylcholine

163
Q

How does neuromuscular blocking drugs work?

A

Stimulate opening or closing of nicotinic Ach receptor channel and produce or prevent depolarization of the cell membrane

164
Q

What are the adverse effects of aanticholinesterases?

A

Bradycardia

165
Q

Prior to an operation to remove a pheochromocytoma (neuroendocrine tumor of the medulla of the adrenal glands), which of the following should be given to the patient?

A

Alpha-blocker

166
Q

Blocking alpha-2 presynaptic receptors will do which of the following?

A

Stimulate NE release

167
Q

In cats it is a useful emetic drug

A

Xylazine

168
Q

Not allowed in pseudo-pregnant females

A

Acepromazine

169
Q

Only effective according to iV application

A

Propofol

170
Q

Of these four injectable anaesthetics which one is the effective after IM administration

A

Ketamine

171
Q

In dogs the primarly chosen drug in status epilepticus

A

Diazepam

172
Q

Contraindicated in epileptic patients

A

Azepromazine

173
Q

In medicine they can be orally applied antitussive (cough suppressing) opioid agent as well

A

Butorphaol

174
Q

Which agents are antidotes of sedative drugs?

A

Flumazenil

175
Q

«Slower to act» transmitters in CNS

A

Enkephalins

176
Q

Ultra-short acting barbiturates

A

Thiopental

177
Q

Apply the letter code of the drug preparation type to the drug products below

A 
A.  O/W emulsion
B.  W/O emulsion
C.  Oil suspension
D.  Real solution 
Burow solution – aluminum aceticum tartaricum 
Ungumentum hydrophilicum nonionicum 
Suspensio zinici oleosa 
Ungumentum aluminii acetici tartarici
178
Q

Which one cannot be an attribute of ointments?

A

Does dissolve on body temperature

179
Q

How frequent should be the intra-mammary infusion re-applied in case of lactating cows

A

Every 12 hours

180
Q

it is a GSH-category?

A

Highly toxic

181
Q

What does «hypnotic» effect of a substance mean?

A

Causes of sleeping

182
Q

Less soluble liquid active ingredient is dispersed in the liquid vehicle

A

Emulsion

183
Q

Sedative drugs with no analgesic properties

A

Chlorpromazine

184
Q

Can be combined with carcinogenicity studies

A

Repeated-dose toxicity studies

185
Q

Inhalational anaesthetics. It is potentially hepatotoxic, teratogenic and immunotoxic effect, lead to its being banned in EU

A

Halothane

186
Q

Sedative that can cause Paradoxical in horses

A

Acepromazine

187
Q

This sedative can increase the incidence of convulsions, hence not suitable for administration to patients with epilepsy

A

Acepromazine

188
Q

Gels are dosage form with the following attribute

A

Its vehicle is gel of other origins

189
Q

Duration of action of Thiopental

A

5-10 minutes

190
Q

Because of its anxiolytic effect, this substance can be used in stress-related diseases (e.g stress-related colitis)

A

Diazepam

191
Q

Sedatives that decreases blood pressure hence cannot be administrated to seriously dehydrated animals

A

Azepromazine

192
Q

Which drug can be used as a premedication to reverse the cardiovascular actions of Xylazine?

A

Flumazenil

193
Q

Duration of action of propofol

A

5-8 minutes

194
Q

How long is the tested substance applied to expiration duration in chronic toxicity studies

A

2 years

195
Q

A drug with potent visceral analgesic properties

A

Butorphanol

196
Q

In which animal species are the local tolerance studies preformed. Most frequently?

A

Rabbit

197
Q

Most important side effects of ultra-short acting barbiturates

A

Respiratory depression

198
Q

Which of the following administration of Diazepam would you recommend in a case of statur epilepticus

A

Rectal

199
Q

Effect characteristics for medetomidine

A

Muscle relaxant activity

Pharma Past Question midterm2 (2 decks)

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