Past Questions Flashcards
Tranquilizer sedative with mild analgesic action
Droperidol
It can cause prolapse of the third eyelid in dogs, cats and horses
Acepromazine
In the absence of special lable instruction, the multi-dose injections can be used… days after being opened for the first time
28
What is «GMP»?
Good manufacturing practice
Sedative drugs with no analgesic properties, but it potentiates the effect of analgesics
Acepromazine
Which animal species is most sensetive to Xylazine?
Cattle
Which type of alterations can be caused by the mutagens on the chromosomes?
Numerical abnormalities and structural abnormalities (Both)
Which examinations are carried out according to the GCP rules?
Human and veterinary clinical drug examination
Pre-and postnarcotic excitation is the last frequently seen when using this inhalation anaesthetic
Sevoflurane
It can cause penile prolapse in male swine
Azeperone
When applying this anaesthetic, the animal signs of catalepsy; its muscles are usually rigid, hypertonic
Ketamine
What is the physical state of the dispersed phase in the suspension?
Solid
What kind of examinations has to be conducted according to the rules and regulations of GLP?
Preclinical examinations: toxicology, kinetics and residual drug examination
The injections have to be always
Sterile
What is the extracting agent to prepare exact?
Watery and alcoholic (Both)
Which ointment is not washable with water?
Paraffin ointment
Alpha-2 agonist, which is NOT used in horses?
Medetomidin is NOT used
Detomidine, Xylazine and Romifidine are used
Sedative that decreases blood pressure, hence cannot be administred to dehydrated animals
Acepromazine
Whch drug causes cardiovascular depression?
Propofol
Which matrices are investigated in pharmacokinetic examination?
Blood, urine, stool, milk and eggs
Theur sedative effect is less related to the applied dose
Tranquilizers
This sedative can increase the incidence of convulsion, hence not suitable for administration to patient with epilepsy
Acepromazine
Which drug group has analgesic effect?
Alpha-2 agonists
This ultra short acting barbiturate can be re-administred within one day
Methohexital
What is the formulation type of Cremor aqueous?
Oil in water (O/W) emulsion cream
Which investigation does not belong to the toxicological studies?
Following of the unwanted side effect after authorization
Thiopental can be administered
IV
The solid matter content of liquid extraction is
50%
Which Butyrophenone (tranquilizer) is mainly used in lab rodents?
Fluanisone
Which attribute of a new chemical is tested in the AMES test?
Mutagenicity
The extravascular administration of this anaesthetic drug causes strong tissue irritation
Thiamilal
Usually barbiturates in general -› paravenous and IM administration
The micronucleus test
Is a light microscope method for determining mutagenicity
Which ingredient of ointment base belongs to the hydrocarbons?
Hard paraffin
Which of the following is considered as a water-insoluble base?
Cocoa butter
Sedative drug with no analgesic properties
Chloropromazine
Alpha-2 agonist NOT used in horses
Metomidine
Serious tissue irritation is not characteristic for this anaesthetic, hence it can be applied IM
Ketamine
Which vehicle is useful for preparation of the eye?
White vaseline
Generally, how often should inflammatory infusion be administred in lactating cows?
Every 8-12 hours
Which of the following cannot be an attribute of ointments?
Dissolves at BT
It increases the release of prolactin, hence not suitable for administration to pseudo-pregnant animal
Chlorpromazine
Which investigation belongs to the clinical phase?
Field trial
Which statement is NOT true?
The sterility and pyrogen free are not special requirements for injections
The teratogenicity studies have to be performed at least on
2 animal species
Sedative that decreases BP, hence cannot be administred to dehydrated animals
Acepromazine
What is the goal of pharmacological investigations in drug research?
Determination of mechanism…
In the case of Fentanyl overdose, which of the following substances can…?
Naloxone
Sedative drug with pronounced antiemetic action
Acepromazine
What is the formulation type of Suspensio terpini?
Aquous suspension
This base ountment is applicable of O/W type ountments
Hydrophilic ointment
Butyrophenone, mainly used in swine for stress reduction
Azeperone
Which drug group has analgesic effect?
Alpha-2-agonists
Which effect is characteristic for medetomidine?
Muscle relaxant activity
In the course of registration of licensed medicines, which documentation…(?) the data if clinical trials according to EUDRALEX requirements?
Part 4
Their sedative effect is well related to the applied dose
Alpha-2-RC-agonists
This dosage form is the alcoholic extract of medical plants
Tincture
Which matrices are examined in a residue analysis?
Edible tissue, milk, egg and honey
The extravascular administration of this anaesthetic drug causes strong tissue irritation
Metomidate
Which ointment is washable with water?
Hydrophilic ointment
What is the regular process of applying the intra-mammary infusion?
Udder wash, disinfection, milking out, administration
Parial agonist opiate, it is frequently combined with medetomidine
Butorphenol
Which statement is not true?
Butyrophenones cause hypnosis in high dose
What may be the property of the dispersed phase in the emulsion?
Hydrophilic and Lipophilic (Both)
Which statement is true?
Phenobarbital has CYP450-enzyme inductor effect
Its important side effects are bradycardia, pronounced respiratory depression and hypotension
Fentanyl
injectable anaesthetic, its re-administration is prohibited
Thiopental
The sympathetic nervous system and parasympathetic nervous system are divisions of which of the following?
Autonomic nervous system division of peripheral nervous system
Preganglionic sympathetic and parasympathetic fibers release____, postganglionic parasympathetic fibers release___ (for muscarinic cholinergic receptors), and postganglionic sympathetic fibers release____ (for adrenergic receptors)
ACh: ACg: NE
Which of the following adrenergic receptor is most commonly found in pre-synaptic?
Alpha-2
Which of the following describes the result of adrenal medulla stimulation?
mass sympathetic discharge, 85;15 ratio of Epi:norepi
Match the sympathetic response with the receptor:
Increased lipid breakdown
Peripheral vasoconstriction
Increased heart rate and blood pressure
Bronchial dialation, coronary dialation, glucose conversion
Increased lipid breakdown —› beta-3
Peripheral vasoconstriction —› alpa-1
Increased heart rate and blood pressure —› beta-1
Bronchial dialation, coronary dialation, glucose conversion —› beta-2
What amino acids are converted into catecholamines (NE, Epi, Dopamine?
Tyrosine
Which of the following is transported into vesicles via vesicular monamine transporter (VMAT), uptake 2, and a proton antiporter?
Dopamine
Which of the following is co-stored and co-released with ATP?
Norepinephrine
Which of the following form varicosities or en passant synapses, with the arrival of an action potentil leading to Ca2+ influx and exocytosis?
Postsynaptic sympathetic
Which of the following methods of teminating axon response is NOT a target for drug action?
NE diffusion away from synaptic cleft
NET is a symporter of what ion?
Na+
Which of the following is recycled via VMAT into vesicles after response termination?
NE
Which of the following is broken down by MAO-B (monoamine oxidase) more than the others?
Dopamine
Where is the cytosolic catecholamine metabolizing enzyme catechol-O-methyl transferase (COMT) primarily found?
Liver
Which of the following receptor subtypes relaxes smooth muscle and causes liver glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis?
Beta-2 (Gs)
Which of the following receptor subtyes cause vascular smooth muscle contraction and genitourinary smooth muscle contraction?
Alpha-1 (Gq/Gi/Go)
Which of the following receptor subtypes increases cardiac chronotropy (rate) and inotropy (contractility), increases AV-node conduction velocity, and increases renin secretion in renal juxtaglomerular cells?
Beta-1 (Gs)
Which of the following receptor subtypes decreases insulin secretion from pancreatic b-cells, decreases nerce cell norepinephrone release, and contracts vascular smooth muscle?
Alpha-2 (Gi/Go)
What type(s) of second messenger(s) interact with adenylyl cyclase?
Beta and alpha-2
What type(s) of second messanger(s) are associated with phospholipase C(PLC)?
Alpha-1
Which of the following adrenergic receptor activation mechanim is involved with ephedrine, amphetamine and tyramine?
Promoting release of norepinephrine
Which of the following adrenergic receptor activation mechanisms involved with MAO inhibitors?
Inhibiting inactivarion of norepinephrine
Which of the following adrenergic receptor activation mechanism is involved with tricyclic antidepressants and cocaine?
inhibiting reuptake of norepinephrine
Which of the following is NOTT true of catecholamines?
Non-polar
Match the catecholamine with the receptor(s) Isoproterenol Dobutamine Norepinephrine Dopamine Epinephrine
Isoproterenol —› beta Dobutamine —› beta -1 Norepinephrine —› alpha and beta Dopamine —› delta-1 and delta-2 Epinephrine —› alpha and beta
The basic structure of a catecholamine involves a catechol ring and which of the following types of amines?
Ethyl amine
Match the noncatecholamines with the receptor agonist
Clonidine
Metaproterenol, terbutaline, ritodine
Phenylephrine
Clonidine —› alpha-2-agonist
Metaproterenol, terbutaline, ritodine —› beta-2-agonist
Phenylephrine —› alpha-1-agonist
Which of the following are long-acting (oral) a1-agonist and not a short-acting (nasal spray, opthalmic drops) a1-agonist?
Pseudoephedrine
Which of the following would NOT be used as a topical vasoconstrictor for a patient with epistaxis (nasal pack soaked in drug)?
Isoproterenol
Alpha-1 drugs can be given with local anesthetics to vasoconstrictor and decrease blood flow to the side of administration. Which of the following should not be given above the web space?
Epinephrine
Which of the following is the a1 drug of choice (DOC) for retinal exams and surgery, giving mydiasis (dilation of iris)?
Phenylephrine
Alpha-2-agonist are only approved for hypertension and work by decreasing sympathetic tone and increasing vagal tone. Which of the following is NOT an a2-agonist?
Epinephrine
At the adrnergic synape, what does alpha-2 do?
Inhibits NE release
Which of the following agonists would be used for asthma patients or to delay premature labor?
Beta-2-agonist
Which of the following agonists would be used for cardiogenic shock, cardiac arrest, heart block, or heart failure?
beta-2-agonist
Which of the following is NOT a beta-2 agonist?
Phenylepherine
Beta-2 stimulation leads to an increase in the cellular upptake of what ion, and thus decrease in plasma concentration of that ion?
K+
Dopamine receptor activation (D1) dialates renal blood vessels at low dose. At higher doses (treatment for shock), which of the following receptor is activared?
Beta-1
Which of the following responses to sympathetic stimulation would prevent receltors from being couples with G-proteins?
Phosphorylation
Which of the following is the action of the indirect-acting sympathomimetic drug cocaine?
Inhibitor of NET (uptake 1)
Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) have a great deal of side effects. Which of the following is the action f TCAs?
Inhibitor of NET (uptake 1)
Which of the following is NOT a mixed sympathomimetic?
Phenylepherine
Prior to an operation to remove a pheochromocytoma (neuroendocrine tumor of the medulla of the adrenal glands), which of the following should be given to the patient?
Alpha-blocker
Which of the following is NOT an indication for b-blocker therapy?
Hypotension
Which of the following b-blockers is used for decreasing aqueous humor secretion from the ciliary body?
Metoprolol
Which of the following is NOT considered cardio selective?
Carvediol
Blocking a2 presynaptic receptors will do which of the following?
Stimulate NE release
Which of the following drugs irreversibly damages VMAT?
Propranolol
Which of the following is the most likely to occur with parenteral administration of an alpha-1-agonist drug
Hypertension
Which of the following agonists can have dose-related withdrawal syndrme if the drug is withdrawn too quickly, leading to rebound hypertension?
Alpha-2-agonist
Which of the following agonists can have sedation and xerostomia (dry mouth) in 50% of patients starting therapy, sexual dysfunction in males, nausea, dizziness and sleep disturbances?
Alpha 2-agonist
Which of the following agonist can cause hyerglycemia in diabetics?
beta-2-agonist
Angina pectoris, tachycardia, and arrhythmias are posible adverse effect of which of the following agonists?
beta-1 agonist
If a patient is taking MAO Inhibitors and ingests tyamine (red wine, aged cheese), which of the following acute responses is most likely? (Sympathomimetic)
Stimulation of NE release
Which of the following occurs acutely, leading to a false neurotransmitter, with increased guanethidine? (Sympathomimetic)
Stimulation of NE release
Major aderse affects of the a1 blockade include reflex tachycardia and which of the following?
Orthostatic hypotension
Which of the following effects would be intensified with the a2 blockade?
Reflex tachycardia
Which of the following is NOT an adverse affect of the b1 blockade?
Increased arrhythmias
Which of the following is the most severe adverse effect that has been associated with sudden termination of b1-blockers?
Sudden death
Which of the following groups of patients is most at risk for adverse effect seen in b2-blockers?
Asthmatics
Which of the following can be determiental in diabetics and also can lead to masking of tachycardia, which is indicative of hypoglycemia?
Beta-2-blocker
Which of the following is NOT true regarding the parasympathetic nervous system
Innervation of vascular smooth muscle
Where is acetyl CoA synthesized (pre-synthesis for ACh)?
Mitochondria
Which of the following locations contains choline from phosphatidylcholine?
Blood plasma
Which part of the cholinergic synapse is affected by botulinum toxin?
ACh decrease
ACh is packaged into vesicles via ACh ion antporter?
H+
Influx of what ion causes ACh release into the synaptic cleft, prior to ACh being terminated by acetylcholinesterase (AChE)?
Ca2+
Nicotinic N2 receptors are____ subtype and nicotinic N1 receptors are the ____subtype.
Neuronal: muscular
Which of the following best description of the drug nicotine?
Neuronal subtype nicotinic agonist
Amanita muscaria (fly Amanita) is a fungal muscarinic agonist, which is most often associated with which side effect?
Hallucinations
Which of the following G-protein is associated with smooth muscle and glandular tissue, muscarinic receptor M3, mobilizing internal Ca2+ and the DAG cascade?
Gq
Which of the following G-protein is associated with heart and intestines, muscarinic receptor M2, decreasing adenylyl cyclase activity?
Gi
The drugs bethanechol and pilocarpine are
Muscarinic agonists
Which of the following is NOT a primary effect of stimulating muscarinic M receptors?
Bronchi dilation and decreased bronchiole secretions
Which of the following is NOT a primary effect of stimulating muscarinic M receptors?
Tachycardia, increased conduction velocity
What is bethanechol most commonly used for?
Urinary retention
What is pilocapine most commonly used for?
Decreasing intraocular pressure
Which of the following is NOT a result of excessive cholinergic stimulation, as would be seen with a nerve agent or rganophosphate poisoning?
Mydriasis
What drug is a natural alkaloid found in solanacea plants (deadly nightshade)?
Atropine
What two clinical results of atropine facilitate opthalmoscopic examination?
Mydriasis and cycloplegia
Which of the following is an adverse affect of atropine?
Blurred vision
Which of the following is NOT a major sympton of atropine toxity?
Wet as a towel
Which of the following topical opthalmic drugs is also used for motion sickness? (Injection, oral, or transdermal patch)
Scopolamine
Of the following mydriatics/cycloplegics_____ last 7-10 days (longest) and ____ last 6 hours (shortest)
Atropine: Tropicamide
Butyrylcholinesterase (BuChE) is a nonspecific pseudocholinesterase located in glia, plasma, liver, and other organs. What type of local anaesthetics are metabolized by BuChE (e.g. Procaine), along with succinylcholine (paralytic)?
Ester
Which of the following reversible cholinesterase inhibitors is used for atropine intoxication?
Physostigmine
Which of the following reversible cholinesterase inhibitors is used for anaesthesia?
Neostigmine
Which of the following reversible cholinesterase inhibitors is used for alzheimer disease?
Donepezil
Which of the following cholinesterase inhibitors is NOT used for Myasthenia Gravis?
Physostigmine
Which of the following is NOT an irreversible cholinesterase inhibitor (organophosphate AchE inhibitors)
Tacrine
By what mechanism do irreversible ACHE inhibitors permanently bind to the esteratic site enzyme?
Phosphorylation
A MARK-1 auto injection kit is given to certain medical and military personnel who may be exposed to nerve agents or organophosphate pesticises. The kit has two drugs would you expect to be in this kit?
Atropine and pralidoxime (2-PAM)
Some organophosphate AChE inhibitor insecticides have a 40 hour half-life. What is the approximate half-life of soman?
6 minutes
What is currently the only ganglion blocker (shuts down entire ANS) still available in US
Mecamylamine
Which of the following is NOT an effect of autonomic ganglion blocking?
Hypertension
Which neuromuscular blocking drug can be reversed by the cholinesterase inhibitor Neostigmine
Succinylcholine
How does neuromuscular blocking drugs work?
Stimulate opening or closing of nicotinic Ach receptor channel and produce or prevent depolarization of the cell membrane
What are the adverse effects of aanticholinesterases?
Bradycardia
Prior to an operation to remove a pheochromocytoma (neuroendocrine tumor of the medulla of the adrenal glands), which of the following should be given to the patient?
Alpha-blocker
Blocking alpha-2 presynaptic receptors will do which of the following?
Stimulate NE release
In cats it is a useful emetic drug
Xylazine
Not allowed in pseudo-pregnant females
Acepromazine
Only effective according to iV application
Propofol
Of these four injectable anaesthetics which one is the effective after IM administration
Ketamine
In dogs the primarly chosen drug in status epilepticus
Diazepam
Contraindicated in epileptic patients
Azepromazine
In medicine they can be orally applied antitussive (cough suppressing) opioid agent as well
Butorphaol
Which agents are antidotes of sedative drugs?
Flumazenil
«Slower to act» transmitters in CNS
Enkephalins
Ultra-short acting barbiturates
Thiopental
Apply the letter code of the drug preparation type to the drug products below
A. O/W emulsion B. W/O emulsion C. Oil suspension D. Real solution Burow solution – aluminum aceticum tartaricum Ungumentum hydrophilicum nonionicum Suspensio zinici oleosa Ungumentum aluminii acetici tartarici
Which one cannot be an attribute of ointments?
Does dissolve on body temperature
How frequent should be the intra-mammary infusion re-applied in case of lactating cows
Every 12 hours
it is a GSH-category?
Highly toxic
What does «hypnotic» effect of a substance mean?
Causes of sleeping
Less soluble liquid active ingredient is dispersed in the liquid vehicle
Emulsion
Sedative drugs with no analgesic properties
Chlorpromazine
Can be combined with carcinogenicity studies
Repeated-dose toxicity studies
Inhalational anaesthetics. It is potentially hepatotoxic, teratogenic and immunotoxic effect, lead to its being banned in EU
Halothane
Sedative that can cause Paradoxical in horses
Acepromazine
This sedative can increase the incidence of convulsions, hence not suitable for administration to patients with epilepsy
Acepromazine
Gels are dosage form with the following attribute
Its vehicle is gel of other origins
Duration of action of Thiopental
5-10 minutes
Because of its anxiolytic effect, this substance can be used in stress-related diseases (e.g stress-related colitis)
Diazepam
Sedatives that decreases blood pressure hence cannot be administrated to seriously dehydrated animals
Azepromazine
Which drug can be used as a premedication to reverse the cardiovascular actions of Xylazine?
Flumazenil
Duration of action of propofol
5-8 minutes
How long is the tested substance applied to expiration duration in chronic toxicity studies
2 years
A drug with potent visceral analgesic properties
Butorphanol
In which animal species are the local tolerance studies preformed. Most frequently?
Rabbit
Most important side effects of ultra-short acting barbiturates
Respiratory depression
Which of the following administration of Diazepam would you recommend in a case of statur epilepticus
Rectal
Effect characteristics for medetomidine
Muscle relaxant activity
